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1. Which of the OSI model layers is also referred to as Transport layer? A. Layer 7 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 5 D. Layer 4

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CompTIA N10-005 Network+ 100-Question Practice Exam Developed for www.GetCertified4Less.com

(Author to remain anonymous)

This practice exam has been developed exclusively for GetCertified4Less.Com. Answers and explanations on last pages.

1. Which of the OSI model layers is also referred to as Transport layer? A. Layer 7

B. Layer 2 C. Layer 5 D. Layer 4

2. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) runs by default on TCP port: A. 3389

B. 67 C. 443 D. 25

3. Examples of connectionless protocols include: (Select three answers) A. SSH

B. SNMP C. SMTP D. FTP E. TFTP F. DHCP

4. Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the network troubleshooting methodology is to:

A. Test the theory to determine cause B. Question users

C. Implement the solution

D. Establish a theory of probable cause

5. Which of the following commands can be used to display a routing table? (Select two answers) A. traceroute

B. route print C. netstat -r D. ipconfig /all E. print route

6. Switches and MAC addresses are defined at which of the OSI layers? A. Data link layer

B. Layer 4

C. Application layer D. Layer 1

(2)

7. Media Access Control (MAC) address consists of: A. 8 bits

B. 16 bits C. 32 bits D. 48 bits

8. Password combined with PIN used as an authentication requirement is an example of: A. Multi-factor authentication

B. Single sign-on

C. Two-factor authentication D. Something that the user knows

9. The practice of marking symbols in public places that indicate the presence of an unsecured wireless connection is also referred to as:

A. War chalking B. SSID discovery C. War driving D. Port scanning 10. What is PoE? A. Media converter

B. Another term for Wireless Access Point (WAP)

C. Technology that allows for supplying electrical power over Ethernet cable D. Another term for Private Branch Exchange (PBX) system

11. Which of the following is used to prevent switching loops? A. UDP

B. STP C. FTP D. UTP

12. Disabling SSID:

A. Is one of the measures used for securing networks B. Makes a WLAN harder to discover

C. Blocks access to a Wireless Access Point (WAP) D. Prevents wireless clients from accessing the network

13. VLAN membership can be configured through: (Select two answers) A. Switch ports

B. VLAN multiplexing

C. IP-address-to-VLAN mapping D. TCP and UDP port numbers E. MAC-address-to-VLAN mapping

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14. Data from multiple VLANs on a single switch is carried through a single network link between switches. This is often referred to as: (Select two answers)

A. Routing B. Trunking

C. VLAN multiplexing D. Tunneling

E. Load balancing

15. Communication that takes place in two directions simultaneously is also referred to as: A. Full duplex

B. Point-to-multipoint C. Simplex

D. Half duplex

16. Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the Network Interface Card (NIC) is called:

A. HIDS B. Accounting C. MAC filtering

D. Quality of Service (QoS)

17. Which of the following connectors is used with copper cabling? A. ST

B. MTRJ C. BNC D. LC

18. Which of the following connectors is used with fiber-optic cabling? A. RJ-45

B. DB-9 C. SC

D. F-connector

19. Which of the following technologies uses multiple antennas in order to increase performance and range?

A. MIMO B. Ethernet C. SONET D. Coax

20. Which of the following allows multiple hosts on a network to share an IP address? A. APIPA

B. CARP C. DNS D. RARP

(4)

21. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) runs by default on TCP ports: (Select two answers) A. 25

B. 23 C. 20 D. 21 E. 22

22. An IPv6 address consists of: A. 32 bits

B. 48 bits C. 64 bits D. 128 bits

23. Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the Network Interface Card (NIC) is called:

A. HIDS B. Accounting C. MAC filtering

D. Quality of Service (QoS)

24. Which of the following is the default port number used by Kerberos authentication system? A. 88

B. 443 C. 80 D. 3389

25. While troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), connector pins on the NIC's port can be tested with the use of:

A. Loopback plug B. Punch down tool C. Pliers

D. Molex connector

26. Which of the following tools would be the best for attaching RJ-45 connector to the end of a twisted-pair Ethernet cable?

A. Punch down tool B. Crimp tool C. Cable certifier D. Needle-nose pliers

27. Hubs operate at which level of the OSI model? A. Layer 1

B. Data link layer C. Layer 3

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28. The term war driving refers to: A. Penetration testing

B. Scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car C. Setting up a rogue access point

D. Marking unsecured wireless networks

29. In computer security, the practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating people is also known as:

A. Vulnerability B. Hacking C. Mantrap

D. Social engineering

30. Which of the following attacks uses multiple compromised computer systems against its target? A. Logic bomb

B. Botnet C. DDoS D. DoS

31. What is the name of a Windows command-line utility that displays TCP/IP configuration settings? A. ifconfig

B. dxdiag C. ipconfig D. msconfig

32. Which of the following tools would be the best for attaching wires to a patch panel? A. Punch down tool

B. Crimp tool C. Cable certifier D. Needle-nose pliers

33. Windows command-line utility for displaying intermediary points on the packet route is called: A. ping

B. netstat C. ipconfig D. tracert

34. Which of the following is an example of a multi-factor authentication? A. Password and biometric scan

B. User name and PIN

C. Smart card and identification badge D. Iris and fingerprint scan

35. Which of the following terms refers to a rogue access point? A. Computer worm

B. Backdoor C. Evil twin D. Trojan horse

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36. A lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the company's firewall consisting of publicly available servers is also referred to as:

A. VPN

B. Access Point (AP) C. VLAN

D. DMZ

37. T1 lines support data transfer rates of up to: A. 1.544 Mbps

B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 44.736 Mbps

38. Which of the following servers dynamically assigned IP addresses? A. DHCP

B. DNS C. WINS D. SMTP

39. An IP address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates a problem with what type of service?

A. DNS B. SNMP C. SMTP D. DHCP

40. What is the speed of an E3 line? A. 1.544 Mbps

B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 44.736 Mbps

41. In routing metrics, the number of routers a packet needs to traverse before reaching its destination is known as:

A. Switching loop B. Hop count C. Route counter D. Latency

42. The largest data unit expressed in bytes which may be sent over a network link is also referred to as: A. QoS

B. MX C. Hop count D. MTU

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43. Which of the following command-line tools is used to display protocol statistics and active TCP/IP network connections?

A. ipconfig B. netstat C. dig D. tracert

44. T3 lines support data transfers rates of up to: A. 1.544 Mbps

B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 44.736 Mbps

45. Which of the following allows an administrator to inspect the traffic passing through a network switch?

A. Port mirroring B. Fault-tolerant mode C. Authentication D. VLAN tagging

46. Which of the following should be the first step when troubleshooting networking problems? A. Establishing a theory of probable cause

B. Implementing the solution C. Identifying the problem

D. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem

47. Which type of cabling provides protection against EMI? (Select all that apply) A. UTP

B. Coaxial C. Fiber-optic D. STP

48. Which of the following cabling types are used with RJ-45 connectors? (Select all that apply) A. STP

B. fiber-optic C. twisted pair D. UTP

49. E1 lines support data transfer rates of up to: A. 1.544 Mbps

B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 44.736 Mbps

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50. Which of the following tools would be used for locating a break in a cable? A. FDDI

B. TDR C. EGP D. OSPF

51. Network cabling, hubs, and repeaters can be found at which OSI layer? A. Physical layer

B. Layer 3 C. Session layer D. Application layer

52. Which of the following hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?

A. NAC B. QoS C. NAT D. DMZ

53. Which type of policy allows for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic?

A. QoS

B. Implicit deny C. IDS

D. Privacy policy

54. 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing: A. Token ring

B. SONET C. Ethernet D. WLANs

55. Coding errors and security vulnerabilities in software that has already been released can be rectified through:

A. User training

B. Application hardening C. Patch management D. Incident response

56. Cabling with a fire-retardant jacket placed in the space between dropped ceiling and structural ceiling is called:

A. HVAC B. Plenum C. EMI

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57. What is the name of a command-line utility used for checking the reachability of a remote host? A. dxdiag

B. ping C. cmd D. regedit

58. A monitored host or network specifically designed to detect unauthorized access attempts is also known as:

A. Botnet

B. Rogue access point C. Honeypot

D. Flood guard

59. What type of filtering allows for restricting the access of specific Internet services? A. IP

B. URL C. Port D. MAC

60. An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is also referred to as:

A. Single sign-on

B. Multi-factor authentication C. Peer-to-peer (P2P)

D. Network Access Control (NAC)

61. What kind of termination would be used to create a crossover cable? A. BNC connector

B. T568A on both ends C. T568A and T568B D. T568B on both ends

62. What type of filtering allows for blocking or allowing access to specific Internet domains? A. Port

B. IP C. MAC D. URL

63. Which of the following are tunneling protocols? (Select two answers) A. SMTP

B. PPTP C. TFTP D. L2TP E. SNMP

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64. IPsec encrypts an entire packet in what kind of mode? A. Secure

B. Transport C. Default D. Tunnel

65. What kind of termination would be used to create a straight-through cable? (Select two answers) A. T568A on both ends

B. Rollover / Yost C. T568A and T568B D. T568B on both ends

66. Which of the following tools would be used for locating a cable in a cabling bundle? A. Punch down tool

B. Protocol analyzer C. Toner and probe kit D. Multimeter

67. Which of the following wireless encryption schemes offers the highest level of protection? A. WEP

B. WPA2 C. SSID D. WPA

68. Which type of IDS relies on known attack patterns in order to detect an intrusion? A. Behavior-based

B. Signature-based C. Port mirroring D. AD-IDS

69. Which of the following protocols are used for implementing Voice over IP (VoIP)? (Select all that apply)

A. SIP B. IMAP C. RTP D. SNMP

70. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) provides what kind of resolution? A. IPv6 to IPv4

B. MAC to IP

C. Domain name to IP D. IP to MAC

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71. Which of the following tools allow for obtaining domain name to IP address mapping? (Select two answers)

A. nslookup B. tracert C. pathping D. netstat E. dig

72. Which of the following protocols is used in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices?

A. RTP B. SNMP C. IMAP4 D. SMTP

73. Which of the following protocols transmit data in an unencrypted form? (Select all that apply) A. SCP

B. IPsec C. SNMPv1 D. FTP E. Telnet F. SFTP

74. Network switch with configuration features that can be changed through a user interface is called: A. Unmanaged switch

B. Layer 1 switch C. Managed switch D. Plug and play

75. An IP address in the range 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255 is an example of what kind of address? A. Routable

B. Loopback C. IPv6

D. Non-routable

76. In half-duplex communication transmission takes place: A. In two directions simultaneously

B. Only in one direction at a time C. In one direction only

D. In one direction at half the speed

77. Which of the following are loopback addresses? (Select two answers) A. MAC address

B. 127.0.0.1 C. Link-local D. ::1 E. Multicast

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78. Frequency ranges used in 802.11 networks include: (Select two answers) A. 2.4 GHz

B. 54 Mbps C. 11 GHz D. 2.4 MHz E. 5.0 GHz

79. Which of the following devices can cause disruptions in wireless network connectivity? (Select all that apply)

A. Cordless phone B. Baby monitor C. Microwave oven D. Ethernet switch

80. The period of time during which a networked host can use an IP address assigned by a DHCP server is called:

A. Scope B. DNS record C. Latency D. Lease

81. Which of the following devices allows for connecting copper and fiber-optic cabling? A. Multilayer switch

B. 56k modem C. Media converter D. TDR

82. 255.255.255.248 subnet allows for how many hosts? A. 2

B. 6 C. 14 D. 30

83. Which type of cabling provides protection against EMI? (Select all that apply) A. UTP

B. Coaxial C. STP D. Fiber-optic

84. In twisted-pair cabling wires are grouped into pairs and wires in each pair are twisted around each other in order to reduce:

A. Cross-talk B. Eavesdropping C. Collisions D. Cable clutter

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85. OC-3 line supports transmission rates of up to: A. 1.544 Mbps

B. 51.84 Mbps C. 44.736 Mbps D. 155.52 Mbps

86. Which of the following are the characteristics of the 802.11b wireless standard? (Select two answers)

A. 5.0 frequency range B. 54 Mbps

C. 2.4 GHz frequency range D. OFDM

E. 11 Mbps

87. The maximum cable segment length for CAT 5e cable is: A. 25 meters

B. 50 meters C. 100 meters D. 250 meters

88. Which of the following tools would be used for locating faults and breaks in fiber-optic cabling? A. Crimping tool

B. Toner and probe kit C. OTDR

D. Channel bonding 89. OSPF and IS-IS are: A. Authentication schemes B. DNS records

C. Encryption standards D. Routing protocols

90. DNS database AAAA record identifies: A. Mail server

B. IPv4 address C. Canonical name D. IPv6 address

91. Convergence state in routing refers to a situation where: A. A server receives the final ACK packet

B. All routers have finished updating their routing tables C. Some of the WAPs have duplicate IP addresses

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92. Which of the following tools would be used to check the contents of an IP packet? A. Protocol analyzer

B. Secure Shell (SSH) C. SNMP agent D. Port scanner

93. IEEE 802.11g standard is backwards compatible with: A. 802.11n

B. WiMAX C. 802.11a D. 802.11b

94. 802.3 is the IEEE standard for implementing of what kind of networks? A. WLANs

B. Token ring C. Ethernet D. WiMAX

95. Which of the following are the characteristics of 10GBaseT Ethernet? (Select all that apply) A. CAT 6a cabling

B. RJ-45 connectors C. Multimode fiber D. CAT 5e cabling E. 802.3an

96. What is the most common type of a DSL Internet access? A. VDSL

B. ADSL C. SDSL D. UDSL

97. Which of the following TCP ports is used by Simple Mail transfer Protocol (SMTP)? A. 25

B. 53 C. 80 D. 23

98. Routers operate at which of the OSI layers? A. Physical layer

B. Data link layer C. Network layer D. Transport layer

99. Which of the following switches puts the ping command in a loop? A. -a

B. -l C. -n D. -t

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100. Which of the following can stop attacks on the network? A. HIPS

B. HIDS C. NIPS D. NIDS

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ANSWERS

1. Answer: D. Layer 4

Explanation: The Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI model) consists of seven layers. Layer 4 of the OSI model is also known as transport layer.

2. Answer: A. 3389

Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft proprietary remote connection protocol. RDP runs by default on TCP port 3389.

3. Answers: B, E, and F. SNMP, TFTP, and DHCP

Explanation: The most important protocols comprising the transport layer (layer 4) of the OSI model include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP). TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that requires a set of initial steps in order to establish a connection (three-way handshake), supports retransmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the amount of data that is being sent), or sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order). User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connectionless protocol. UDP doesn't support three-way handshake (thus it is also referred to as unreliable or best-effort protocol) or other features offered by TCP. Examples of the protocols that use UDP for data transmission include Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP), and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

4. Answer: C. Implement the solution

Explanation: In network troubleshooting methodology recommended by CompTIA, implementing the solution should come after establishing a plan of action to resolve problem and identifying potential effects.

5. Answers: B and C. route print and netstat -r

Explanation: A routing table contains paths to different destinations on the network. route print and netstat -r are the two commands that allow for displaying routing table on a networked computer. 6. Answer: A. Data link layer

Explanation: Switches handle network traffic based on Media Access Control (MAC) addresses. Both, switches and MAC addresses are terms that are defined at the data link layer (layer 2) of the OSI model. 7. Answer: D. 48 bits

Explanation: Media Access Control (MAC) addresses are unique identifiers assigned to Network Interface Cards (NICs). MAC address consists of 48 bits written as 12 hexadecimal characters. First half of the MAC address is also referred to as Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) and identifies the manufacturer of the network adapter. The second half is the unique number assigned by the vendor to a device (this is also known as Device ID).

8. Answer: D. Something that the user knows

Explanation: Password combined with PIN as an authentication requirement is an example of something that the user knows. Authentication process can be based on three categories of authentication factors: something that the user knows (password or Personal Identification Number), something that the user has (physical token such as smart card), or unique traits of every single person, such as fingerprints. Multi-factor authentication requires authentication factors from two or more different categories.

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Password combined with PIN used as an authentication requirement is an example of something that the user knows.

9. Answer: A. War chalking

Explanation: The practice of marking symbols in public places that indicate the presence of an unsecured wireless connection is also referred to as war chalking.

10. Answer: C. Technology that allows for supplying electrical power over Ethernet cable

Explanation: Technology that allows for supplying electrical power over Ethernet cable is also known as Power over Ethernet (PoE).

11. Answer: B. STP

Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is used to prevent switching loops. Switching loop occurs when there's more than one active link between two network switches, or when two ports on the same switch become connected to each other.

12. Answer: B. Makes a WLAN harder to discover

Explanation: Service Set Identifier (SSID) is another term for the name of a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN). Many wireless networks advertise their presence by regularly broadcasting the SSID in a special packet called beacon frame. In wireless networks with disabled security features knowing the network SSID is enough to get access to the network. SSID can be hidden by disabling the SSID broadcast on the Wireless Access Point (WAP), but hidden SSID makes a WLAN only harder to discover and is not a true security measure. Wireless networks with hidden SSID can still be discovered by packet sniffing

software. Security measures that help in preventing unauthorized access to a wireless network include strong encryption schemes such as WPA and WPA2.

13. Answers: A and E. Switch ports and MAC-address-to-VLAN mapping

Explanation: VLAN membership can be set either through switch ports, where a device connecting to a certain switch port automatically becomes a member of the VLAN assigned to that port (static VLAN), or through mapping the VLAN membership with the MAC address of the device connected to the port (dynamic VLAN). Dynamic VLANs are configured through the use of server software that relies on a database containing MAC-address-to-VLAN mappings. When a device connects to the dynamic port on a switch its MAC address is sent to the server, and if the matching entry in its database is found, the server sends the VLAN number for that port.

14. Answers: B and C. VLAN multiplexing and Trunking

Explanation: Data from multiple VLANs on a single switch is carried through a single network link between switches. This is often referred to as "trunking" or "VLAN multiplexing", and each of the switches has a special port (trunk port) configured to pass all the data, regardless of the VLAN number, between all switches on a LAN. To allow for multiple VLANs on one link, frames from individual VLANs must be identified. The most common and preferred method, IEEE 802.1Q, adds a tag to the Ethernet frame header labeling it as belonging to a certain VLAN.

15. Answer: A. Full duplex

Explanation: Full duplex is a type of communication that takes place in two directions simultaneously. Communication between two devices whereby transmission takes place in only one direction at a time is called half-duplex communication.

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16. Answer: C. MAC filtering

Explanation: Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the Network Interface Card (NIC) is called MAC filtering or MAC address filtering. 48-bit MAC address is a unique number assigned to every network adapter. Wireless Access Point can have a certain MAC address blacklisted or whitelisted and based on the entry on either of the lists grant or deny access to the network.

17. Answer: C. BNC

Explanation: Bayonet Neill–Concelman (BNC) connector is used with coaxial copper cabling. ST, MTRJ, and LC connectors are all used with fiber-optic cabling.

18. Answer: C. SC

Explanation: SC connector is used with fiber-optic cabling. RJ-45, DB-9, and F-connector are all used with copper cabling.

19. Answer: A. MIMO

Explanation: Multiple-Input Multiple-Output (MIMO) technology is a wireless technology that allows for using multiple antennas in order to increase performance and range.

20. Answer: B. CARP

Explanation: Common Address Redundancy Protocol (CARP) is a computer networking protocol which allows multiple hosts on a network to share an IP address. Hosts running CARP form a redundancy group with one main host taking the IP address and handling the traffic. In case of failure of that host, another host in the group can take over the IP address and respond instead.

21. Answers: C and D. 20 and 21

Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is an unencrypted file exchange protocol. FTP employs TCP ports 20 and 21. Connection established over TCP port 20 (the data connection) is used for exchanging data, connection made over TCP port 21 (the control connection) remains open for the duration of the whole session and is used for session administration (commands, identification, passwords, etc.). 22. Answer: D. 128 bits

Explanation: An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits compared to 32 bits in IPv4. IPv6 addresses are written in eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons (IPv4 addresses are made of four groups of decimal digits separated by dots).

23. Answer: C. MAC filtering

Explanation: Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the Network Interface Card (NIC) is called MAC filtering or MAC address filtering. 48-bit MAC address is a unique number assigned to every network adapter. Wireless Access Point can have a certain MAC address blacklisted or whitelisted and based on the entry on either of the lists grant or deny access to the network.

24. Answer: A. 88

Explanation: Kerberos authentication system runs by default over port number 88. 25. Answer: A. Loopback plug

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Explanation: Connector pins on the Network Interface Card (NIC) port can be tested with the use of a loopback plug.

26. Answer: B. Crimp tool

Explanation: Crimpers are used for attaching RJ connectors to the end of a twisted-pair Ethernet cable. Most commonly, a crimp tool also allows for cutting and stripping the cable from the outer insulating cover.

27. Answer: A. Layer 1

Explanation: Hubs operate at the layer 1 (physical layer) of the OSI model. 28. Answer: B. Scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car

Explanation: The term war driving refers to scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car. Marking symbols in public places that indicate the presence of an unsecured wireless connection is known as war chalking.

29. Answer: D. Social engineering

Explanation: The practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating people is also known as social engineering.

30. Answer: C. DDoS

Explanation: As opposed to the simple Denial of Service (DoS) attacks that usually are performed from a single system, a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack uses multiple compromised computer systems to perform attack against its target. The intermediary systems that are used as platform for the attack are the secondary victims of the DDoS attack; they are often referred to as zombies, and

collectively as a botnet. The goal of DoS and DDoS attacks is to flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system so that it becomes overwhelmed with false requests and in result doesn't have time or resources to handle legitimate requests.

31. Answer: C. ipconfig

Explanation: Windows command-line utility for displaying and configuring TCP/IP settings is called ipconfig (ifconfig is the Linux equivalent of this tool used in UNIX-like systems). By default ipconfig displays only the IP address, subnet mask and default gateway for each network adapter on the system configured to use TCP/IP. ipconfig /all displays full configuration information (including, for example, MAC address of the Network Interface Card).

32. Answer: A. Punch down tool

Explanation: Patch panels contain multiple computer ports arranged in rows and are used for organizing cables in computer rooms. Cable tips are connected to the ports at the back of the patch panel with the use of a punch down tool.

33. Answer: D. tracert

Explanation: Windows command-line utility for displaying intermediary points (routers) the packet is passed through on its way to a destination host is called tracert. Command-line program for testing the reachability of a remote host is called ping. Windows command-line program for displaying TCP/IP configuration details is called ipconfig. Command-line utility used for displaying active TCP/IP connections is called netstat.

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34. Answer: A. Password and biometric scan

Explanation: Authentication is proving user identity to a system. Authentication process can be based on three categories of authentication factors: user names and passwords (something that the user knows), physical tokens such as smart cards (something that the user has), or unique traits of every single person, such as fingerprints (fingerprint scanner). Multi-factor authentication requires authentication factors from two or more different categories.

35. Answer: C. Evil twin

Explanation: Evil twin is another term for a rogue access point. Rogue access point will have the same network name as the legitimate access point and can be set up by a hacker in order to steal user credentials or for the purpose of traffic eavesdropping.

36. Answer: D. DMZ

Explanation: Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the

company's firewall consisting of publicly available servers. The purpose of DMZ is to offer services, such as web browsing, FTP, or e-mail, to both the public and internal clients without compromising the security of the private LAN.

37. Answer: A. 1.544 Mbps

Explanation: T1 lines support data transfer rates of up to 1.544 Mbps. 44.736 Mbps is the data transfer rate of a T3 connection. E1 lines support data transfer rates of up to 2.048 Mbps. E3 lines support speeds of up to 34.368 Mbps.

38. Answer: A. DHCP

Explanation: Dynamic IP addresses are managed by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. DNS servers resolve host names to IP addresses. WINS servers resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses in Windows networks. SMTP servers handle electronic mail (e-mail) messages.

39. Answer: D. DHCP

Explanation: An IP address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates that a DHCP service is not available. IP address in the range 169.254.x.x is also known as Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). Auto configuration with APIPA is a feature of Windows operating systems. Windows clients configured with APIPA can communicate only within a private network and cannot send data on the Internet.

40. Answer: C. 34.368 Mbps

Explanation: E3 lines support data transfer rates of up to 34.368 Mbps. 41. Answer: B. Hop count

Explanation: In routing metrics, the number of routers a packet needs to traverse before reaching its destination is known as hop count.

42. Answer: D. MTU

Explanation: The largest data unit expressed in bytes which may be sent over a network link is also referred to as Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU). MTU values may vary depending on the protocol used; an Ethernet frame for example has the MTU set to 1500 bytes.

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Explanation: Command-line tool used for displaying protocol statistics and active TCP/IP connections is called netstat.

44. Answer: D. 44.736 Mbps

Explanation: T3 lines support data transfers of up to 44.736 Mbps. Data transfer rate of 1.544 Mbps is the maximum speed supported by T1 connections. E1 lines support data transfer rates of up to 2.048 Mbps. E3 lines support speeds of up to 34.368 Mbps.

45. Answer: A. Port mirroring

Explanation: Port mirroring allows an administrator to inspect traffic passing through a network switch. On a switch that supports port mirroring, a packet analyzer can be connected to an empty port and the switch can be configured to pass a copy of the data sent over one or multiple ports on that switch to the packet sniffer port allowing the administrator to monitor contents of the traffic passing through the switch.

46. Answer: C. Identifying the problem

Explanation: Identifying the problem should be the very first step in the network troubleshooting methodology recommended by CompTIA. This step involves gathering of information, identifying symptoms of the problem, questioning users, and determining if anything has changed.

47. Answers: B, C, and D. Coaxial, Fiber-optic, and STP

Explanation: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) and coaxial cabling provide protection against Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) in the form of cable shielding. Fiber-optic cabling is immune to EMI. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) is not surrounded by any shielding that would provide protection against EMI from outside sources.

48. Answers: A, C and D. STP, twisted pair, and UTP

Explanation: Twisted pair is one of the cabling types (besides coaxial and fiber-optic cabling) used in Ethernet networks. When used as a network media, Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cables are often installed with Registered Jack 45 (RJ-45) connector. The other type of twisted-pair cabling called Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) also uses RJ-45 connectors.

49. Answer: B. 2.048 Mbps

Explanation: E1 lines support data transfer rates of up to 2.048 Mbps. 50. Answer: B. TDR

Explanation: A type of cable tester that allows for locating faults and breaks in a twisted-pair or coaxial cabling is called Domain Reflectometer (TDR). TDRs locate faults in metallic cabling; Optical Time-Domain Reflectometers (OTDRs) are used for fiber-optic cabling.

51. Answer: A. Physical layer

Explanation: Network cabling, hubs, and repeaters can be found at the physical layer (layer 1) of the OSI model.

52. Answer: C. NAT

Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device.

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53. Answer: A. QoS

Explanation: Quality of Service (QoS) policy allows for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic.

54. Answer: D. WLANs

Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) communication.

55. Answer: C. Patch management

Explanation: Coding errors and security vulnerabilities in software that has already been released can be rectified through patch management.

56. Answer: B. Plenum

Explanation: The term plenum refers to an enclosed space used for airflow, such as between a dropped ceiling and the structural ceiling in a building. Cabling with a fire-retardant jacket placed in this space is called plenum-rated cabling. Plenum-rated cabling must meet special requirements so that it doesn't catch on fire easily. Materials from which the plenum-rated cable's cover is made include low-smoke polyvinyl chloride (PVC) or a fluorinated ethylene polymer (FEP).

57. Answer: B. ping

Explanation: Command-line utility used for checking the reachability of a remote host is called ping. Ping operates by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo request packets to the destination host and waiting for a reply.

58. Answer: C. Honeypot

Explanation: A monitored host or network specifically designed to detect unauthorized access attempts is also known as a honeypot. This type of system contains no valuable data and is used to divert the attacker's attention from the corporate network. Multiple honeypots set up on a network are known as a honeynet.

59. Answer: C. Port

Explanation: Each Internet service uses a specific port number for communication. Port numbers are used to identify the type of network traffic (e.g. web, mail, file transfer). Port filter lists allow for defining ports or port ranges to restrict the access of specific Internet services.

60. Answer: A. Single sign-on

Explanation: An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is also referred to as single sign-on. A single sign-on subsystem typically requires a user to log in once at the beginning of a session, and then during the session grants further access to multiple, separately protected hosts, applications, or other system resources, without further login action by the user. 61. Answer: C. T568A and T568B

Explanation: T568A and T568B termination standards define wire layouts for CAT UTP cabling. A UTP cable wired as T568A or as T568B on both ends is a straight-through cable. A UTP cable terminated as T568A on one end and as T568B on the other end is a crossover cable.

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Explanation: Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering allows for blocking or allowing access to specific Internet domains. A URL, such as ftp://example.com/file.zip allows for locating a resource on the Internet by using the part after the colon (known as a domain name) and also provides instructions on how to handle the resource (which protocol to use) in the part before colon.

63. Answers: B and D. PPTP and L2TP

Explanation: Tunneling creates encrypted links over unsecure public networks such as the Internet and allows for sending regular traffic through those secure links. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) are examples of tunneling protocols. PPTP runs on port number 1723, L2TP uses port 1701. Creating a logical, restricted-use network with the use of encryption and tunneling protocols over physical, public network links is the main idea behind Virtual Private Networks (VPNs). Both, PPTP and L2TP are used for creating VPN connections.

64. Answer: D. Tunnel

Explanation: IPsec provides the encryption of entire packet in tunnel mode. Another mode, called transport mode, encrypts only the payload (the data part of the packet).

65. Answers: A and D. T568A on both ends and T568B on both ends

Explanation: A UTP cable wired as T568A or as T568B on both ends is a straight-through cable. 66. Answer: C. Toner and probe kit

Explanation: Tone generator and tone probe are the tools used for identifying cables in cabling bundles. Toner and probe kits are also used for tracing individual wires in a cable.

67. Answer: B. WPA2

Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) are encryption standards designed for securing wireless networks. WEP is an older standard and due to its

vulnerabilities is not recommended. WPA was designed as an interim replacement for WEP, and WPA2 was introduced as the official standard offering the strongest security of the three.

68. Answer: B. Signature-based

Explanation: Signature-based Intrusion Detection Systems rely on known attack patterns in order to detect intrusions.

69. Answers: A and C. SIP and RTP

Explanation: Voice over IP (VoIP) is a form of communication that allows to make phone calls over a broadband Internet connection instead of typical analog telephone lines. Examples of protocols used for implementing VoIP include Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) and Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP). 70. Answer: D. IP to MAC

Explanation: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) provides IP to MAC address mapping. 71. Answers: A and E. nslookup and dig

Explanation: Domain Information Groper (dig) and nslookup are command-line tools that allow for querying Domain Name System (DNS) servers for domain name to IP address mappings. Both tools are also used for reverse name lookups (IP address to domain name mapping) and other DNS queries. Of the two, dig is the preferred tool on UNIX-like systems; nslookup is the default DNS query tool for Windows.

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72. Answer: B. SNMP

Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a protocol used in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices. SNMP is typically integrated into most modern network infrastructure devices such as routers, bridges, switches, servers, printers, copiers, fax machines, and other network-attached devices. An SNMP-managed network consists of three key components: a managed device, a network-management software module that resides on a managed device (Agent), and a network management system (NMS) which executes applications that monitor and control managed devices and collect SNMP information from Agents. All SNMP-compliant devices include a virtual database called Management Information Base (MIB) containing information about configuration and state of the device that can be queried by the SNMP management station. The manager receives notifications (Traps and InformRequests) on UDP port 162. The SNMP Agent receives requests on UDP port 161, and before answering a request from SNMP manager, SNMP Agent verifies that the manager belongs to an SNMP community with access privileges to the Agent. An SNMP community is a group that consists of SNMP devices and one or more SNMP managers. The community has a name, and all

members of a community have the same access privileges. An SNMP device or Agent may belong to more than one SNMP community and it will not respond to requests from management stations that do not belong to one of its communities. The relationship between SNMP server system and the client systems is defined by the so called community string which acts like a password.

73. Answers: C, D, and E. SNMPv1, FTP, and Telnet

Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol version 1 (SNMPv1), File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Telnet are examples of protocols that transmit data in cleartext. SNMP version 1 and version 2 offer only authentication based on community strings sent in cleartext. SNMPv3 provides authentication, packet encryption, and hashing mechanisms that allow for checking whether data has changed in transit. Secure Shell (SSH) is a tunneling protocol for secure remote login designed as an alternative to Telnet. Alternatives for FTP include SSH-based protocols such as Secure Copy (SCP) or SSH File Transfer Protocol (SFTP).

74. Answer: C. Managed switch

Explanation: Network switch with configuration features that can be changed through a user interface is called managed switch.

75. Answer: D. Non-routable

Explanation: An IP address in the range 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255 is an example of a non-routable (private) IP address. Hosts with non-routable addresses need Network Address Translation (NAT) service in order to be able to send data on the Internet.

76. Answer: B. Only in one direction at a time

Explanation: In half-duplex mode communication takes place only in one direction at a time. Two devices communicating with each other in both directions simultaneously are said to be in full-duplex mode. Transmission that is carried out in one direction only is also referred to as simplex. Network devices supporting autonegotiation feature automatically configure best mode supported by both devices. Duplex mismatch is the term used for a situation where two devices communicate with each other using different duplex modes.

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Explanation: 127.0.0.1 and ::1 are examples of loopback addresses. Pinging a loopback address allows for testing the network adapter's ability to send and receive packets. 127.0.0.1 is an IPv4 loopback address, ::1 address is used with IPv6.

78. Answers: A and E. 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz

Explanation: 802.11 networks (WLANs) operate in 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequency ranges. 79. Answers: A, B, and C. Cordless phone, Baby monitor, and Microwave oven

Explanation: Cordless phones, baby monitors, microwave ovens, Bluetooth devices and other wireless devices operating in the 2.4-GHz frequency range can cause disruptions in wireless network

connectivity.

80. Answer: D. Lease

Explanation: The period of time during which a networked host can use an IP address assigned by a DHCP server is called DHCP lease.

81. Answer: C. Media converter

Explanation: Media converters are devices that allow for connecting different types of incompatible media such as copper and fiber-optic cabling.

82. Answer: B. 6

Explanation: 255.255.255.248 subnet (/29 subnet) allows for 6 hosts. 83. Answers: B, C, and D. Coaxial, STP, and Fiber-optic

Explanation: Coaxial and Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) are two types of copper cabling that provide protection against Electromagnetic Interference (EMI). Coaxial cabling uses either foil or braid shield to reduce the EMI interference from outside sources such as power generating machinery. STP cabling can be implemented with the use of a braided screen or foil and protecting sheath can cover all four pairs only, or (in order to offer the best protection) cover all four pairs and additionally each individual pair of wires. Fiber-optic cabling is immune to EMI.

84. Answer: A. Cross-talk

Explanation: The general feature of all twisted-pair cabling types is that wires are grouped into pairs and wires in each pair are twisted around each other in order to reduce signal interference from adjacent wire pairs (effect known as cross-talk).

85. Answer: D. 155.52 Mbps

Explanation: OC-3 line supports transmission rates of up to 155.52 Mbps. Optical Carrier (OC) transmission rate specifications adhere to a pattern whereby OC- prefix is followed by a number designating a multiple of the base unit of 51.84 Mbps.

86. Answers: C and E. 2.4 GHz frequency range and 11 Mbps

Explanation: 802.11b devices operate in 2.4 GHz frequency range and support transmission rates of up to 11 Mbps.

87. Answer: C. 100 meters

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88. Answer: C. OTDR

Explanation: A type of cable tester that allows for locating faults and breaks in fiber-optic cabling is called Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR). Tone generator and tone probe are the tools used for identifying cables in cabling bundles.

89. Answer: D. Routing protocols

Explanation: Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Intermediate System To Intermediate System (IS-IS) are routing protocols.

90. Answer: D. IPv6 address

Explanation: AAAA is one of the DNS record types and identifies an IPv6 address. 91. Answer: B. All routers have finished updating their routing tables

Explanation: Convergence state in routing refers to a situation where all routers have finished updating their routing tables.

92. Answer: A. Protocol analyzer

Explanation: Protocol analyzer (also known as packet sniffer) is a tool used for capturing and analyzing contents of network packets.

93. Answer: D. 802.11b

Explanation: IEEE 802.11g standard is backwards compatible with the 802.11b standard. 802.11g supports transfer rates of up to 54 Mbps, 802.11b has a maximum data transfer rate of 11 Mbps. The disadvantage of having devices supporting different standards on the same network is that network performance will be downgraded to the transmission rate supported by the 802.11b standard. 94. Answer: C. Ethernet

Explanation: IEEE 802.3 is a collection of standards defining wired Ethernet networks. IEEE 802.11 is a family of standards for implementing Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs). IEEE 802.16 is a series of standards defining high-speed, long-distance wireless communication (also known as WiMAX).

95. Answers: A, B, and E. CAT 6a cabling, RJ-45 connectors, and 802.3an

Explanation: 10GBaseT refers to 10 gigabit Ethernet over twisted-pair copper cable. 802.3an is the IEEE standard for implementing 10GBaseT. 10GBaseT requires CAT 6a cabling with RJ-45 connectors for transmissions over distances up to 100 meters (CAT 6 cabling can also be used but shortens the available range).

96. Answer: B. ADSL

Explanation: Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) is the most common type of DSL technology. ADSL download and upload speeds differ (ADSL download rates are much higher than upload rates). ADSL modems use RJ-11 connectors and share the regular telephone line (customer's telephone line requires special filtering device to pass both ADSL and voice communication over the same line). 97. Answer: A. 25

Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses TCP port 25. Port number 53 is used by Domain Name System (DNS) servers. Port number 80 is assigned to HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP). 23 is the port number used by Telnet.

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98. Answer: C. Network layer

Explanation: Routers operate at network layer (layer 3) of the OSI model. 99. Answer: D. -t

Explanation: ping -t pings the specified host until stopped (Control-C is used to stop the execution of this command).

100. Answer: C. NIPS

Explanation: Network Intrusion Prevention system (NIPS) inspects network traffic in real-time and has the capability to stop the attack.

References

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