Name: ___________________________________ Date: ______________
____ 1. The principles of continuity and closure best illustrate the importance of A) binocular cues.
B) perceptual adaptation. C) visual capture.
D) perceptual constancy. E) top-down processing.
____ 2. Color constancy refers to the fact that
A) light waves reflected by an object remain constant despite changes in lighting. B) objects are perceived to be the same color even if the light they reflect changes. C) the perceived color of an object has a constant relation to its brightness.
D) the frequency of light waves is directly proportional to the light's wavelength.
E) colors remain the same hue even when the tint changes under our difference threshold.
____ 3. Who emphasized that the whole may exceed the sum of its parts? A) evolutionary psychologists
B) parapsychologists C) behaviorists
D) Gestalt psychologists E) psychoanalysts
____ 4. The sequentially flashing Christmas tree lights appeared to generate pulsating waves of motion. This best illustrates
A) relative motion. B) retinal disparity. C) the phi phenomenon. D) visual capture.
E) perceptual adaptation.
____ 5. The semicircular canals are most directly relevant to A) hearing.
B) kinesthesis.
C) the vestibular sense. D) parallel processing.
____ 6. The green-colored ham and eggs had such a strange appearance that they tasted terrible to Sam. This illustrates the importance of
A) difference thresholds. B) sensory adaptation. C) equilibrium.
D) sensory interaction. E) accommodation.
____ 7. Which of the following play the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a thrilling roller coaster ride?
A) olfactory receptors B) feature detectors C) basilar membranes D) semicircular canals E) tempanic membrane
____ 8. Which basic taste attracts us to protein-rich foods? A) sweet
B) salty C) sour D) umami
E) bitter
____ 9. When given a placebo that is said to relieve pain, we are likely to be soothed by the brain's release of
A) umami. B) nociceptors. C) endorphins. D) feature detectors.
E) synapses.
____ 10. Our sense of taste originally was thought to involve only the following four sensations
A) sweet, salty, starch, and bitter. B) salty, fatty, bitter, and sweet. C) sour, bitter, sweet, and starchy.
____ 11. The McGurk effect best illustrates A) phantom limb sensations.
B) the rubber-hand illusion. C) tinnitus.
D) sensory interaction. E) color constancy.
____ 12. Which of the following senses is best described as a chemical sense? A) touch
B) kinesthesis C) audition D) vision
E) smell
____ 13. Sound wave vibrations are transmitted by three tiny bones located in the A) vestibular sacs.
B) semicircular canals. C) inner ear.
D) cochlea. E) middle ear.
____ 14. The volley principle is most directly relevant to our perception of A) temperature.
B) color. C) brightness. D) pain.
E) pitch.
____ 15. Cones and rods are to vision as ________ are to audition. A) eardrums
B) cochleas C) oval windows D) hair cells
____ 16. The area of the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye is called the A) blind spot.
B) pupil.
C) visual cortex. D) cornea.
E) lens.
____ 17. In additive color mixing, a combination of red and green forms ________; in subtractive color mixing, a combination of yellow and blue forms ________. A) green; yellow
B) yellow; green C) white; black D) red; blue
E) blue; red
____ 18. Visual information is processed by
A) feature detectors before it is processed by rods and cones. B) ganglion cells before it is processed by feature detectors. C) bipolar cells before it is processed by rods and cones. D) feature detectors before it is processed by bipolar cells.
E) the optic nerve before it is processed by ganglion cells.
____ 19. The axons of ganglion cells converge to form A) the basilar membrane.
B) bipolar cells. C) the auditory nerve. D) the optic nerve.
E) the olfactory epithelium.
____ 20. Low-pitched sounds are to high-pitched sounds as ________ colors are to ________ colors.
A) red; blue B) yellow; red C) purple; green D) green; orange
____ 21. People who demonstrate blindsight have most likely suffered damage to their A) cornea.
B) lens. C) fovea. D) optic nerve.
E) visual cortex.
____ 22. Opponent-process cells have been located in the A) thalamus.
B) cochlea. C) spinal cord. D) visual cortex.
E) semicircular canals.
____ 23. The ability to simultaneously recognize the color, shape, size, and speed of an oncoming automobile best illustrates
A) sensory interaction. B) kinesthesis.
C) parallel processing. D) subliminal perception.
E) blindsight.
____ 24. Bipolar cells are located in the A) optic nerve.
B) retina. C) blind spot. D) lens.
E) cochlea.
____ 25. Objects are brought into focus on the retina by changes in the curve and thickness of the
A) rods and cones. B) lens.
C) bipolar cells. D) optic nerve.
____ 26. The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the
A) adaptation threshold. B) difference threshold. C) subliminal threshold. D) absolute threshold.
E) change threshold.
____ 27. Damage to the temporal lobe region of the brain essential for facial recognition produces a loss of
A) perception. B) signal detection. C) transduction. D) accommodation.
E) sensation.
____ 28. Although Manuel was sitting right next to his parents, he smelled a skunk minutes before they did. Apparently, Manuel has a lower ________ for skunk odor than his parents have.
A) accommodation level B) absolute threshold C) tolerance level
D) olfactory saturation level E) adaptation level
____ 29. Photographs of people were rated more positively if the photos immediately followed a briefly flashed image of kittens. This best illustrates the impact of
A) sensory adaptation. B) interposition. C) retinal disparity. D) priming.
____ 30. When informed that a brief imperceptible message would be flashed repeatedly during a popular TV program, many viewers reported feeling strangely hungry or thirsty during the show. Since the imperceptible message had nothing to do with hunger or thirst, viewers' strange reactions best illustrate
A) the McGurk effect. B) sensory adaptation. C) the volley principle. D) a placebo effect.
E) accommodation.
____ 31. A subliminal message is one that is presented A) while an individual is under hypnosis.
B) below one's absolute threshold for awareness. C) in a manner that is unconsciously persuasive. D) with very soft background music.
E) repetitiously.
____ 32. News about the supposed effects of briefly presented messages on moviegoers' consumption of popcorn and Coca-Cola involved false claims regarding
A) parallel processing. B) difference thresholds. C) kinesthesis.
D) synaesthesia.
E) subliminal stimulation.
____ 33. Those who believe in the value of subliminal audiotapes would be wrong to claim that A) people are capable of parallel processing.
B) signal detection is influenced by a person's motivational state. C) unconsciously processed information is unusually persuasive. D) sensory transduction can occur without conscious awareness.
E) any of these are true.
____ 34. Diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus is known as A) accommodation.
B) blindsight.
C) sensory adaptation. D) transduction.
____ 35. Weber's law is relevant to an understanding of A) absolute thresholds.
B) difference thresholds. C) sensory adaptation. D) sensory interaction. E) parallel processing.
____ 36. Bottom-up processing involves analysis that begins with the A) optic nerve.
B) sensory receptors. C) cerebral cortex. D) feature detectors.
E) occipital lobe.
____ 37. Hearing a sequence of sounds of different pitches is to ________ as recognizing the sound sequence as a familiar melody is to ________.
A) the just noticeable difference; accommodation B) absolute threshold; difference threshold C) sensory interaction; feature detection D) feature detection; sensory interaction
E) sensation; perception
____ 38. Patients' negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure can increase their postoperative experience of pain. This best illustrates the importance of
A) transduction. B) accommodation. C) sensory adaptation. D) difference thresholds.
E) top-down processing.
____ 39. Sensory adaptation refers to
A) the process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural impulses. B) diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
C) the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information. D) changes in the shape of the lens as it focuses on objects.
____ 40. If the just-noticeable difference for a 10-ounce weight is 1 ounce, the just noticeable difference for an 80-ounce weight would be ________ ounce(s).
A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 10
____ 41. Puberty is most closely related to the onset of A) menopause.
B) menarche.
C) crystallized intelligence. D) conventional morality.
E) dementia.
____ 42. Lolita vacillates between acting rebellious toward her parents and high school teachers and behaving with compliance and respect. Erikson would have suggested that Lolita's inconsistency illustrates
A) separation anxiety. B) role confusion. C) egocentricity. D) stagnation.
E) inferiority.
____ 43. Primary sex characteristics are to ________ as secondary sex characteristics are to ________.
A) male testes; adrenal glands
B) female ovaries; deepened male voice C) female breasts; deepened male voice D) male testes; female ovaries
E) adrenal glands; underarm hair
____ 44. According to Piaget, during the formal operational stage people begin to A) reason abstractly.
B) adhere to social norms.
C) distinguish between good and bad behaviors.
D) become aware of the positive and negative consequences of their own behaviors. E) understand mathematical operations involving sets.
____ 45. A child's temperament is likely to be A) difficult to observe.
B) stable over time.
C) a product of parenting style.
D) a reflection of his or her gender schema. E) different as an infant than as a teenager.
____ 46. The labels “easy,” “difficult,” and “slow-to-warm-up,” are used to refer to differences in an infant's
A) gender schema. B) personal space. C) temperament. D) gender typing.
E) genotype.
____ 47. Gender differences in heritable personality traits cannot necessarily be attributed to male-female genetic differences because
A) physical maturation proceeds at a different rate for males and females. B) variations in temperament contribute to gender differences.
C) heritable traits can be influenced by social environments.
D) males and females are also affected by their different sex hormones. E) chromosomal adaptation has not been accounted for.
____ 48. Because Marla is the first girl in her fourth-grade class to sexually mature, she is sometimes teased and rejected by her classmates. Marla's sense of social isolation and embarrassment result from the interaction of
A) X and Y chromosomes. B) nature and nurture. C) schemas and roles.
D) individualism and collectivism.
E) home environment and school environment.
____ 49. At 3 o'clock in the morning, John has already slept for 4 hours. As long as his sleep continues, we can expect an increasing occurrence of
A) sleeptalking.
____ 50. The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during Stage 2 sleep are called A) alpha waves.
B) circadian rhythms. C) sleep spindles. D) delta waves.
E) amplitude waves.
____ 51. Those who emphasize that mood fluctuations may be indicative of seasonal affective disorder are highlighting the importance of
A) neuroadaptation. B) animal magnetism. C) biological rhythms. D) narcolepsy.
E) REM sleep.
____ 52. Increasing excitatory signals above the threshold for neural activation will not affect the intensity of an action potential. This indicates that a neuron's reaction is
A) inhibited by the myelin sheath. B) delayed by the refractory period. C) an all-or-none response.
D) dependent on neurotransmitter molecules. E) primarily electrical rather than chemical.
____ 53. The ovaries in females and the testes in males are part of the A) limbic system.
B) endocrine system.
C) sympathetic nervous system. D) reticular formation.
E) central nervous system.
____ 54. After Kato's serious motorcycle accident, doctors detected damage to his cerebellum. Kato is most likely to have difficulty
A) experiencing intense emotions. B) reading printed words.
C) understanding what others are saying. D) tasting the flavors of foods.
____ 55. Slender women are considered especially beautiful in one country; in another country, stout women are seen as particularly attractive. In both countries, however, women perceived as very beautiful receive preferential treatment. This best illustrates that ________ often underlie cultural differences.
A) negative correlations
B) common psychological processes C) gender differences
D) unconscious preferences E) genetic dissimilarities
____ 56. Professor Ambra was skeptical about the accuracy of recently reported research on sleep deprivation. Which process would best enable her to assess the reliability of these findings?
A) naturalistic observation B) replication
C) random sampling D) the case study
E) standard deviation
____ 57. To accurately infer cause and effect, experimenters should use A) random assignment.
B) naturalistic observation. C) standard deviations. D) correlation coefficients.
E) scatterplots.
____ 58. A clinical psychologist who explains behavior in terms of unconscious drives and conflicts is employing a(n) ________ perspective.
A) evolutionary B) psychodynamic C) behavioral D) social-cultural
____ 59. Dr. Karima conducts basic research on the relative effectiveness of massed practice and spaced practice on a person's ability to remember information. Dr. Karima is most likely a ________ psychologist.
A) social
B) developmental C) personality D) biological
E) cognitive
____ 60. The biopsychosocial approach provides an understanding of social-cultural influences integrated within the larger framework of
A) SQ3R.
B) introspection.
C) humanistic psychology. D) multiple levels of analysis.
Answer Key - AP C6 Practice Test
1. E 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. E 13. E 14. E 15. D 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. E 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. D 31. B 32. E 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. B 37. E 38. E
42. B 43. B 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. C 51. C 52. C 53. B 54. E 55. B 56. B 57. A 58. B 59. E 60. D
