Angeles University COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
REFRESHER COURSE EXAMINATION MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY
January 09, 2004
Name: _________________________________ SCORE: ________________ I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER.
_____ 1. Mycobacterial lipid:
A. Responsible for the acid fastness of the organism
B. Makes the organism resistant to the effects of the complement and antibodies C. Responsible for their serpentine growth
D. All of the above _____ 2. In primary tuberculosis…
A. The person becomes sensitie to the tuberculo protein of the organism
B. When the infection resolves, the Gohn complex is seen in the hilar region of the lungs
C. Dormant bacilli are establish D. All of the above
_____ 3. Culture medium used for M. tuberculosis:
A. Lowenstein-Jennsen medium C. Subouraud dextrose agar
B. Blood agar D. TCBS
_____ 4. The most definitive tool in the diagnosis of tuberculosis due to M. tuberculosis is: A. Acid-fast staining C. Culture
B. Chest X-ray D. Serology
_____ 5. One of the following is NOT a part of the tubercle bacilli complex:
A. M. africanum C. M. bovis
B. M. canis D. M. tuberculosis
_____ 6. Controlling tuberculosis means: A. Finding cases and treating them
B. Seeing to it that the cases will finish the full course of treatment C. Both
D. Neithr
_____ 7. The advantage of the Bactec method over the conventional culture for TB is: A. It is highly specific for M. tuberculosis C. It is a rapid test
B. It is cheap D. All of the above
_____ 8. In pulmonary tuberculosis is the host response is primarily: A. Cell mediated immune response C. Both
B. Humoral immune response D. Neither _____ 9. The most common mode of transmission of HIV:
A. Homosexual and heterosexual intercourse C. Mother to child B. Transfusion of blood and blood products D. All of the above _____10. Possible outcome of HIV infection of T helper cells:
A. Stay latent C. Both
B. Go into productive cycle D. Neither
_____11. The decline in the antibodies against this HIV marker heralds the beginning of AIDS symptoms:
A. Anti-p24 C. Anti-gp41
_____12. Which of the following is an AIDS indicator disease?
A. Toxoplasmosis of brain C. Kaposis sarcoma
B. PC pneumonia d. All of the above
_____13. The test used to confirm HIV infection is:
A. ELISA C. Northern blot
B. Southern blot D. Western blot
_____14. Which is most commonly used for the treatment of HIV?
A. Zidovudine C. Amantadine
B. Saquinavir D. Rifampicin
_____15. A specific virologic diagnosis of HIV can be achieved by: A. Detection of viral components in the plasma, such as p24 B. Presence of anti-HIV in the serum
C. Isolation of virus D. All of the above
_____16. Most common viral cause of diarrhea in infancy:
A. Adenovirus C. Rotavirus
B. Norwalk virus D. Polio virus
_____17. Which of the following protozoans has a “smiling face”?
A. Giardia lamblia C. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Chilomastix mesnili D. Balantidium coli
_____18. Characteristics of nematodes:
A. They are roundworms C. They are unicellular B. They are flatworms D. They are hermaphroditic _____19. Trichuriasis may cause
A. Intestinal obstruction C. Pneumonitis
B. Pruritus ani D. Rectal prolapse
_____20. Enterobiasis:
A. Common cause of pruritus ani C. Has an indirect life cycle
B. Diagnosed by direct fecal smear D. Also known as whipworm infection _____21. This parasite does not require development in soil:
A. Trichuris trichiura C. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Enterobius vermicularis _____22. The larvae of this parasite migrate via the pulmonary route:
A. Trichuris trichiura C. enterobius vermicularis B. Capillaria philippinensis D. Ascaris lumbricoides _____23. This will differentiate E. histolytica from E. coli
A. Number of nuclei in trophozoite C. Shpae of nucleus in trophozoite B. Size of trophozoite D. Presence of RBC inside trophozoite _____24. A 2-year-old passed out a “big worm” that looks like an earthworm. Most likely
diagnosis:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Trichuris trichiura
B. Enterobius vermicularis D. Strongyloides stercoralis _____25. Which of the following will most likely cause intestinal obstruction?
A. Trichuris trichiura C. Capillaria philippinensis B. Ancyiostoma duodenaie D. Ascaris lumbricoides _____26. Etiologic agent of traveler’s diarrhea:
A. ETEC C. EIEC
_____27. Typhoid fever is characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
A. Splenomegaly C. Rose colored spots
B. High grade fever D. Rice water stools _____28. Cholera is characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
A. Washerwoman’s hands C. Sunken eyes
B. Rice water stool D. Mucoid and bloody diarrhea _____29. The following are gram-negative curved rods:
A. Vibrio cholerae C. Yersinia enterocolitica B. Campylobacter jejuni D. Only A and B are correct _____30. Shigellosis is characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
A. Tenesmus C. Vomiting
B. Copious water diarrhea D. Stool with blood and mucus _____31. The best specimen to collect during the 1st week of typhoid fever is:
A. Blood C. Both A and B
B. Stool D. Either A or B
_____32. Vibrio parahemolyticus is associated with:
A. Poultry C. Seafoods
B. Meal and meat products D. Dairy products _____33. Campylobacteriosis is usually seen in:
A. Adults C. <10 years old
B. Teen-agers D. Neonates
_____34. Which of the following produce disease similar to Shigellosis?
A. ETEC C. EPEC
B. EIEC D. EHEC
_____35. Which of the following produce Shigalike toxin?
A. ETEC C. EPEC
B. EIEC D. EHEC
_____36. Larvae are passed out in feces:
A. Capillaria philippinensis C. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Ancylostoma duodenale _____37. This organism produce a toxin whose action is similar to choleragen:
A. ETEC C. EPEC
B. EIEC D. EHEC
_____38. The following has carrier state, EXCEPT:
A. Salmonella typhi C. Vibrio cholerae
B. Shigella sonnei D. ETEC
_____39. In cholera cases the first line of treatment is:
A. Tetracycline C. Both A and B
B. Fluid & electrolyte replacement D. None of the above _____40. Shigella sp. Move from one cell to the next by:
A. GM1 receptor C. Actin polymerization
B. CFA1 D. None of the above
_____41. Which symptom is absent in food poisoning caused by common bacterial agents?
A. Vomiting C. Fever
_____42. Food poisoning due to which organism is most likely to cause a flaccid muscle paralysis?
A. Clostiridum botulinum B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Bacillus cereus growing in cooked meat D. Clostridium perfringens
_____43. A 4-year-old female presents with a history of diarrhea and violent vomiting that occurred last night as well as one night a week ago. No gastrointestinal disease symptoms were noted in between the two events. The child’s meal last night consisted of ham and cheesy-potato leftovers. The child also shows honey-crusted dried lesions below her nose and in the near facial vicinity. You are not pleased with the child’s level of hygiene and the mother’s obvious personal problem with folliculitis on her face and lower arms. Culture of a fecal swab from the child produces a few pinkish-red colonies on MacConkey agar that were later shown to be negative for both citrate utilization and urease production. Based on the data available, which etiologic agent seems most likely to have caused the child’s emesis?
A. Bacillus cereus C. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Escherichia coli D. Staphylococcus aureus _____44. Injectable therapeutics used for C. botulinum food poisoning include, the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Guanidine HCI C. Edrophonium
B. Trivalent (ABE) botulinum antitoxin D. 4-aminopyridine _____45. Presumptive diagnosis of botulism is made by:
A. Demonstrating botulinal toxin in serum B. Presence of rapidly ascending paralysis C. Presence of botulinal toxin in feces D. Presence of rapidly descending paralysis
_____46. Bacterial food poisoning commonly associated with fried rice: A. Clostridium botulinum C. S. aureus
B. Clostridium perfringens D. B. cereus
_____47. The following organisms can produce a non-inflammatory type of gastroenteritis, EXCEPT:
A. C. difficile C. C. botulinum
B. C. perfringens D. B. cereus
_____48. Most probable cause of food poisoning in newborns after ingestion of honey:
A. C. perfringens C. C. botulinum
B. S. aureus D. B. cereus
_____49. Drug of choice for Staphylococcal food poisoning:
A. Erythromycin C. Clindamycin
B. Penicillin D. Chloramphenicol
_____50. Most important management for non-inflammatory type of gastroenteritis:
A. Antibiotics C. Antitoxin
B. Replenishment of fluids D. None of the above _____51. A carrier of HBV will have the following markers:
A. Anti-Hbe (+); Anti-HBs (+), HbeAg (+) B. Anti-Hbe (-); Anti-HBs (-), HbeAg (+) C. Anti-HBc IgM (+); Anti-HBs (+), HbeAg (+) D. Anti-HBc IgG (+); Anti-HBs (+), HbeAg (+) _____52. Infectiousness in HBV is a measure of:
A. HBc Ag C. HBs Ag
_____53. When baby is born to a mother who is HBV carrier, which of the following should be immediately done?
A. Immunized with Hep B vaccine within few hours after deliver
B. If mother is Hbe Ag positive, simultaneously give passive immunization at different site
C. Isolate the baby
D. Only A and B are correct
_____54. Which of the following statement/s on Hep D is/are correct? A. Needs helper virus to cause infection
B. Common among drug-users infected with HBV C. Has an RNA genome
D. All of the above are correct
_____55. Which of the following is/are TRUE of Hepatitis C? A. Has an RNA genome, belongs to the flavivirus group.
B. PCR on blood samples detect viral RNA and indicates infectivity C. The parenteral non-A, non-B hepatitis
D. All of the above are correct
_____56. Which of the following hepatitis is also a flavivirus, but antigencially distinct from HCV, is transmitted by blood transfusion and its role in disease is still uncertain.
A. HDV C. HFV
B. HEV D. HGV
_____57. A calicivirus, has high morality rate among pregnant women:
A. HDV C. HFV
B. HEV D. HGV
_____58. Though there is not enough evidence yet, this virus is regarded as mutant of HBV:
A. HDV C. HFV
B. HEV D. HGV
_____59. Pathology seen in women with this virus is similar to drug induced hepatotoxicity:
A. Hep A C. Hep F
B. Hep C D. Hep E
_____60. A person immunized with Hep B vaccine will have this/these antibody/ies:
A. Anti-HBs D. All of the above
B. Anti-HBc E. Only A and B are correct
C. Anti-Hbe
_____61. The causative agent of Kala-azar or Dum-dum fever:
A. Echinococcus granulosus C. Entamoeba histolytica B. Leishmania donovani D. Schistosoma japonicum _____62. The first choice of drug for the treatment of amebic liver abscess:
A. Mebendazole C. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Emetine HCl D. Metronidazole
_____63. The molluscan intermediate host of Schistosoma japonicum in the Philippines is:
A. Phlebotomus sp. C. Lutzomyla sp.
B. Oncomelania quadrasi D. Biomphalaria glabrata _____64. The intermediate host of visceral leishmaniasis is:
A. Snail C. Cat
B. Dog D. Sandfly
_____55. The infective stage of Echinococcus granulosus:
A. Scolex C. Sporozoite
_____56. Diagnostic stage of L. donovani:
A. Amastigote C. Promastigote
B. Trophozoite D. Cyst
_____57. Infective stage of L. donovani:
A. Amastigote C. Promastigote
B. Trophozoite D. Cyst
_____58. Infective stage of Schistosoma sp. In man:
A. Amastigote C. Miracidium
B. Cercaria D. Trophozoite
_____59. Infective stage of Fasciola hepatica in man: A. Metacercaria encysted in watercress B. Miracidium in snail
C. Sporocyst and redia in snail D. Cercariaa in water
_____60. The “small fox tapeworm” which causes alveolar echinococcus:
A. E. granulosus C. E. vogeli
B. E. multilocularis D. E. oligarthrus _____61. It is also known as the “Chinese liver fluke”.
A. Fasciola hepatica C. Entamoeba histolytica B. Schistosoma japonicum D. Clonorchis sinensis _____62. It is also known as the “cat liver fluke”.
A. Fasciola hepatica C. Clonorchis sinensis B. Opisthorchis viverinii D. Opisthorchis felineus _____63. It is also known as the “sheep liver fluke”.
A. Fasciola hepatica C. Entamoeba histolytica B. Schistosoma japonicum D. Chlonorchis sinensis _____64. The intermediate host of Schistosoma sp.:
A. Snail C. Cat
B. Dog D. Sandfly
_____65. The intermediate host of L. donovani belong to the following:
A. Phlebotomus C. Lutzomyia
B. Anopheles D. A and C only
_____66. The alpha viruses and flavi viruses are classified based on:
A. Neutralization C. Complement fixation assay B. Hemagglutination – inhibition D. All of the above
_____67. Which of the following arthropods is not a vector of the arboviruses?
A. Culex mosquitoe species C. Anophelined mosquitoe species B. Aedes mosquitoe species D. ixodes (ticks)
_____68. Arboviral infections are characterized by: A. Short prodrome
B. Mild systemic disease in the majority of cases C. Antibody rises when fever subsides
D. All of the above
_____69. Members of the flaviviruses exhibit cross-reaction in serologic tests-against:
A. Core antigens C. Core enzymes
_____70. Which is TRUE of Dengue Infections?
A. The dengue virus multiples in the gut of mosquitoes. B. Human to human transmission is a problem.
C. Immunity to one serotype leads to life long immunity to the others. D. The best mode of control is to kill adult mosquitoes.
_____71. The pathogenesis of dengue hemorrhagic fever/dengue shock syndrome (DSS) is based on:
A. Previous infection with a different type
B. Formation of infectious immune complex i.e. virus + non-neutralizing IgG C. Immune clearance
D. All of the above
_____72. In the WHO grading of Dengue which of the following is/are true? A. All stages have thrombocytopenia and hemoconcentration B. Grade III and IV are already considered DSS
C. All stages will exhibit positive tourniquet test D. All of the above
_____73. Laboratory diagnosis of dengue infection includes: A. Clinical monitoring; serial hematocrit determination B. Virus isolation and serology
C. Tourniquet test D. All of the above
_____74. The method/s of prevention and control of dengue infections includes: A. Elimination of breeding places of mosquito vector
B. Killing of adult mosquitoes
C. Personal protection such as use of insect repellant D. All of the above
_____75. Which is true of cytomegalovirus infection? A. Caused only by one serotype
B. Primary disease is rare but infection is widespread
C. Infections in the baby can be congenital or acquired postnatal D. All of the above
_____76. The cytomegalovirus (CMV): A. Is a DNA virus
B. Produces the biggest intrnuclear inclusion body C. Is carried by macrophages and lymphocytes to tissue D. All of the above are characteristics of CMV
E. None of the above is a characteristic of CMV _____77. Which of the following is not used in CMV infection?
A. Ganciclovir C. Amantadine
B. Foscarnet D. None of the above
_____78. Which is true of Epstein-Barr virus?
A. Has oncogenic properties D. All of the above
B. Persists in the lymphocytes E. Only A and B are correct D. Can grow in suspension of human lymphoblast
_____79. Which is not true of Purtillo’s syndrome? A. Seen among boys
B. Fatal infectious mononucleosis in the patient
C. Patient has x-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome with immunodeficiency D. All of the above
_____80. Which is true of EBV infections?
A. Most infections are mild and symptomless B. Can transform lymphocytes
C. Associated with nasopharyngeal Ca D. All of the above
_____81. The following can cause Endocarditis, EXCEPT:
A. C. diphtheria C. S. aureus
B. Viridans strep D. S. epidermis
_____82. All of the following can cause Myocarditis, EXCEPT:
A. B. burgdorferi C. R. tsutsugamushi
B. C. perfringens D. P. aeruginosa
_____83. The following bacterial agents can cause pericarditis, EXCEPT:
A. H. influenza C. N. meningitides
B. S. pneumonia D. S. epidermis
_____84. Which of the following is associated with dental caries and subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A. S. aureus C. S. epidermis
B. Viridans strep D. S. fecalis
_____85. Which of the following is associated with late prosthetic valve endocarditis?
A. S. aureus C. S. epidermis
B. Viridans strep D. S. fecalis
_____86. Most frequent cause of early prosthetic valve endocarditis:
A. S. aureus C. S. epidermis
B. Viridans strep D. S. fecalis
_____87. Which of the following can cause bacterial endocarditis in debilitated or immunocompromised patients?
A. Group A streptococci C. S. aureus B. Group D streptococci D. S. viridans _____88. Drug of choice for methicillin-resistant staphylococci:
A. Cephalosporins C. Clindamycin
B. Erythromycin D. Vancomycin
_____89. Which of the following is associated with rheumatic fever?
A. S. pyogenes C. S. aureus
B. Viridans strep D. S. epidermis
_____90. Which of the following can cause myocarditis after absorption of a preformed exotoxin?
A. S. aureus C. Viridans strep
B. S. epidermis D. C. diptheria
_____91. Drug of choice in patients who are allergic to penicillins:
A. Vancomycin C. Cephalosporin
B. Erythromycin D. Clindamycin
_____92. Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome characterized by pericarditis and bilateral hemorrhagic destruction of the adrenals is associated with one of the following: A. N. meningitides C. S. epidermis
B. S. sanguis D. S. mutans
_____93. All of the following belong to viridans streptococcus, EXCEPT:
A. S. mitis C. S. agalactiae
_____94. Which of the following is TRUE of S. pyogenes?
A. Group A α hemolytic C. Group D α hemolytic B. Group A β hemolytic D. Group B β hemolytic _____95. Which of the following organisms is a strict aerobe?
A. Borrelia burgdorferli C. Leptospira interrogans B. Treponema pallidum D. All of the above
_____96. The cell wall peptidoglycan of Leptospira spp. Contains: A. Diaminopimelic acid C. Ornithin
B. 4-0 methyl mannose D. All of the above _____97. The source of energy/carbon of Leptospira spp. Is from:
A. Amino acids C. Protein and lipids
B. Long chain fatty acids D. All of the above _____98. Leptospirosis is also known as:
A. Weil’s disease C. Burkitt’s syndrome B. Woolsorter’s disease D. None of the above _____99. Leptospira manilae was isolated in:
A. 1963 C. 1960
B. 1975 D. 1957
_____100. All of the following are pathogenic leptospira, EXCEPT:
A. Leptospira interrogans C. Leptospira biflexa
B. Leptospira santarosai D. Leptospira borgpetersenii
