JAR 66 Module 7 Exam Practice Exam
Module 7
Maintenance Practices
This is exam number 1.
1. Where would you disconnect a chain? a) At a bolted joint
b)At a spring clip joint c) At an riveted joint
Answer:A
2. How many strokes per minute should be used with a hacksaw? a) 30
b)55 c) 60
Answer:A
3. Unused holes in an electrical multi-pin connector should be a) fitted with pins
b)fitted with blanks c) left open
Answer:B
4. How many times can a locking plate be used? a) once, then discarded
b)indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked
c) 3 times, then discarded
5. In a front release connector the pin will be
a) released from the front and extracted from the rear b)released from rear and extracted from the front
c) released from the front and extracted from the front
Answer:A
6. What cable would you use where temperatures are going to exceed 200 degrees C?
a) Aluminium b)Silver plated c) Nickel plated
Answer:C
7. Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be caused by a) heavy landing
b)rotation of the outer race in the wheel housing c) overheating of the brakes
Answer:A
8. A hi-lock collar should be a) lubricated before fitting
b)washed in solvent before fitting
c) not lubed or washed because they are lubed at manufacture
Answer:C
9. A CAA issued capability list gives
a) details of the scope and extent of a type rated engineer's license b)details of the scope and extent to which an organization's approval is granted
c) details of the operational restrictions in terms of manoeuvres (g. forces) placed on a transport category aircraft at the time of issue of a C of A.
10. Mandatory Warning Plaques and symbols a) must be displayed on all flights
b)must be displayed in the cabin only if they are legible
c) need not be displayed if they are incorporated in the flight manual
Answer:A
This is exam number 2.
1. A chain removed for routine inspection a) does not need proof loading
b)must be proof loaded to 50% c) must be proof loaded to 150%
Answer:A
2. Taper pins resist what loads a) shear
b)tension
c) compression
Answer:A
3. The pipe flaring angle is a) 37o
b)25o c) 45o
Answer:A
4. What is a drill cutting angle? a) 59o
b)12o - 15o c) 125o - 135o
5. When drilling out a rivet, use a drill a) same size as the hole
b)larger than the hole c) smaller than the hole
Answer:A
6. A dry joint in soldering is caused by a) flux not used
b)components not hot enough c) wrong solder used
Answer:B
7. What type of drill would you use on carbon fibre? a) carburundum
b)tungsten carbide c) diamond tipped
Answer:A
8. After welding why would you normalise to a) remove carbon build up from the welded joint b)release the stresses from the material
c) remove oxidation from the welded joint
Answer:B
9. A stud broken off below the surface is removed by a) using a stud box
b)cutting a slot in it and removing with a screwdriver c) a stud remover tool fitted into a drilled hole
Answer:C
10. Following a major defect the C of A
a) will be suspended until the defect is rectified. b)will be invalidated and needs renewing.
c) is not affected, however may run out on a time basis.
This is exam number 3.
1. Brinelling of a bearing is
a) shallow smooth depressions caused by the rollers being forced against the cup, due to overtorquing
b)blueing of the bearing due to overheating
c) indentations in the race surface caused by continual static vibration
Answer:A
2. The purpose of a joggle is a) to act as a tear stopper
b)to produce a flush fit at a metal joint c) to make the holes for a rivet line up
Answer:B
3. When riveting two dissimilar sheets of metal together the joint should be protected with
a) paint b)grease
c) jointing compound
Answer:C
4. Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black. This would indicate the metal is
a) aluminium b)duralumin
c) magnesium alloy
Answer:B
5. Proof testing after cable installation is a) not required
b)sometimes required c) always required
Answer:A
6. An aircraft control chain is connected using a) a split link and spring clip
b)quick release pins c) nuts and bolts
Answer:C
7. If a control chain can be lifted clear of a tooth, it should be a) removed and an elongation check carried out
b)cleaned, retensioned and inspected after a period of time c) rejected as unserviceable
Answer:A
8. A control cable that has been contaminated with acid should be a) cleaned
b)cleaned, inspected, and reinspected after a period of time c) rejected
Answer:C
9. Removal of a scratch from a sheet of metal requires a) burnishing
b)blending c) polishing
Answer:A
10. When dimpling a sheet of metal you would require a) a male die only
b)a male and female die
c) an oversized rivet and special reaction block
Answer:B
1. A micro-shaver is used to
a) cut rivets to length prior to forming b)trim the shank diameter prior to forming c) mill the rivet head after forming
Answer:C
2. The skin on an aircraft is normally manufactured from a) 2024 aluminium alloy
b)2117 aluminium alloy c) 7075 aluminium alloy
Answer:A
3. Springs are manufactured from
a) high carbon alloy steel with low strength requirements b)low carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements c) high carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements
Answer:C
4. The mold point is
a) an imaginary point from which real base measurements are provided b)the centre of curvature of a radiused corner in a metal fabricated component
c) the mid point in the thickness of a sheet of metal to which the radius dimension is calculated
Answer:A
5. Relief holes are
a) holes drilled in the corner of a metal box to prevent cracking b)holes drilled in a battery container to provide drainage
c) holes drilled to stop a crack
Answer:A
6. The 'setback' is
b)the distance from the bend tangent line to the setback line
c) the distance from the edge of the metal to the bend tangent line
Answer:A
7. A balance cable is installed in a control system to a) allow the aircraft to be flown 'hands off'
b)correct for wing heaviness
c) enable the cable to be tensioned
Answer:C
8. Faying surfaces are
a) surfaces that have been treated with anti-corrosion compound b)surfaces that are stressed
c) surfaces that are in contact with each other
Answer:C
9. After a heavy landing you should inspect a) the engine module alignment
b)the engine thrust alignment c) the engine toe-in
Answer:B
10. The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and a) borax powder
b)hydrochloric acid c) zinc chloride
Answer:A
This is exam number 5.
1. A wear check on a cylinder head valve spring should include a) diameter and length
b)length under load c) length off-load
Answer:B
2. A tapered roller bearing is designed to take a) radial loads only
b)axial loads only
c) both radial and axial loads
Answer:C
3. When riveting, the distance from the edge to the rivet (land) should not be less than
a) 1D b)2D c) 4D
Answer:B
4. The type of flux to be used When soft soldering on aircraft is a) active
b)non-active
c) either active or non-active
Answer:B
5. When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be a) twice the working pressure for two minutes
b)three times the working pressure for five minutes c) 1.5 times the working pressure
Answer:C
6. When checking a hose after installation it should be checked for freedom of movement
a) by flexing +/- 15o either side of the neutral position b)by flexing through the normal operating range plus 15o c) by flexing through the normal operating range only
7. If the outer cover of a flexible hose is found to be cracked a) it is unserviceable since it may have a restricted flow
b)it is unserviceable since it may leak c) it may still be serviceable
Answer:C
8. A rigid hydraulic pipe requires shaping. It should be carried out a) as supplied
b)after annealing
c) after age hardening
Answer:A
9. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is a) 1:400
b)1:600 c) 1:200
Answer:B
10. The strength of a riveted joint compared to that of the original metal is
a) 75% b)100% c) 125%
Answer:A
This is exam number 6.
1. A repair has a double riveted joint. The shear strength would be a) 75%
b)100% c) 125%
Answer:A
be
a) a DTI and 'V' blocks
b)a ball bearing and a micrometer
c) a surface plate and a three leg trammel
Answer:A
3. Fretting corrosion on a braided pipe would mean it was a) unserviceable and should be replaced
b)not necessarily unserviceable
c) only unserviceable if the corrosion penetrates the braids
Answer:A
4. When weighing an aircraft the hydrostatic weighing units are positioned
a) one under each jack b)one on top of each jack
c) either under or on top of each jack
Answer:B
5. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be sprayed with
a) aluminium paint b)ferrous paint
c) polyurethane paint
Answer:A
6. When carrying out a dye penetrant test, after the developer has been applied it should be inspected
a) as soon as the developer is dry and again after approximately 10 minutes
b)after 30 minutes c) after 1 hour
Answer:A
a) 16 b)32 c) 64
Answer:B
8. What is the cutting angle of a drill? a) 130o
b)59o c) 12o
Answer:B
9. When inserting a helicoil insert, which way does the tang face? a) Towards the hole
b)Away from the hole c) Towards the mandril
Answer:A
10. When using a moving coil as an ammeter the greatest amount of current flows through the
a) coil b)shunt c) bushes
Answer:B
This is exam number 7. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A B B B B B B C C
1. During a colour contrast test the penetrant time should be a) longer for a small crack
b)shorter for a small crack c) longer for a wide crack
2. When using the old style vernier caliper for taking internal measurements
a) add the nib measurements b)subtract the nib measurements
c) the nib size has no relevance and can be ignored
3. To carry out an insulation test on a wire rated at 115 volts you would use
a) a 500 volt megger b)a 250 volt megger c) a 115 volt megger
4. How would you test a mach switch in-situ? a) It is not possible to test a mach switch in situ b)Use an external test kit
c) Use built in test equipment
5. A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a bend radius of no less than
a) 10 times the diameter of the wire b)3 times the diameter of the wire c) 5 times the diameter of the wire
6. The standard minimum rivet row spacing is a) 3 D
b)4 D
c) 2 1/4 D
7. In sheet metal bending, how would you measure the bend radius to calculate the bend allowance?
a) Measure to the outside of the bend radius b)Measure to the inside of the bend radius
c) Measure to the inside of the bend radius plus half the metal thickness
8. A dry joint when soldering is caused by a) too much flux
b)too little heat c) too large an iron
9. What elements is solder made from? a) Tin, lead and silver
b)Tin, lead and copper c) Tin and lead only
10. How should a dye penetrant field kit be stored? a) At a cold temperature in a darkened room
b)In direct sunlight
c) At room temperature away from direct sunlight
This is exam number 8. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A B A A C B B B C
1. When carrying out a colour contrast test on a pressure vessel a) the dye should be applied to the outside and the developer to the inside
b)both the dye and the developer should be applied to the outside c) the dye should be applied to the inside and the developer to the outside
2. After a reported lightening strike
a) the flight controls should be checked for full and free movement before the next flight
b)the flight controls need to be checked for full and free movement only if a bonding lead to one of the control surfaces is found to be burned or
broken
c) the aircraft and its systems must have a major overhaul before the next flight
3. Aircraft below 5700kg not used for commercial air transport purposes are required to be reweighed
a) every 5 years
b)as required by the CAA c) every 2 years
4. When an aircraft has been reweighed under JAR OPS, what should be done to the old weight and balance report?
a) Destroyed after 3 months b)Kept in the aircraft logbook
c) Kept in the weight and balance schedule
5. When the park brake has been applied on an aircraft which has a
pressurized hydraulic system and is reading maximum system pressure, the brake gauges to the left and right main wheels will read
a) full system pressure b)no indication
c) full scale deflection
6. What tap do you use when fitting a Helicoil? a) The same as the original thread size
b)The next size up from the original tap size c) The tap supplied with the Helicoil kit
7. What is the maximum bow allowed in a strut? a) 1 in 200
b)1 in 600 c) 1 in 500
unacceptable?
a) In either of the outer 1/3 portion of the tube b)In the mid 1/3 section
c) Nowhere on the tube is an indentation acceptable
9. After a report of flight through heavy turbulence, you would a) carry out a major overhaul
b)check the aircraft symmetry c) not carry out any checks
10. When leak testing with a colour contrast field kit, the soak time for a component less than 1/8 in. (3mm) thick would be
a) at least the normal soak time b)at least twice the normal soak time c) at least 3 times the normal soak time
This is exam number 9. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B B C A C C A C
1. The normal drill angles are
a) cutting angle 130o, web angle 59o and clearance angle 12o b)cutting angle 59o, web angle 130o and clearance angle 12o c) cutting angle 12o, web angle 130o and clearance angle 130o 2. To check a chain for articulation
a) it should be run over the finger through 180o and checked for smoothness and kinks
b)move each link individually and check for tightness c) lay on a flat surface and check for kinks
3. Glycol de-icer fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause a) corrosion
b)a fire
c) disintegration of the cable insulation
4. With a rear release connecter, the pin will be a) released from the front and extracted from the rear b)released from the rear and extracted from the rear c) released from the rear and extracted from the front
5. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector is
a) 135oC b)200oC c) 260oC
6. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert / extract tool be used on?
a) 12 - 10 b)22 - 18 c) 16 - 14
7. Can the insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool? a) No
b)Yes by turning a knob c) Yes by adjusting the pins 8. The abbreviation “A/F” means a) American Fine
b)Associated Fine c) Across Flats
9. This drawing indicates a) a blind hole
b)a countersunk hole c) a counterbored hole
10. The width of a visible outline on a drawing is a) 0.3 mm
b)0.5 mm c) 0.7 mm
This is exam number 10. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C C C A B A A C B
1. What gauge of pin would a red plastic insert / extract tool be used on?
a) 12 - 10 b)22 - 18 c) 16 - 14
2. What cable would you use where temperatures are going to exceed 200oC?
a) Tinned copper or aluminium b)Silver plated copper or aluminium c) Nickel plated copper or aluminium
3. When weighing an aircraft by the weighbridge method the aircraft is a) jacked and levelled
b)only levelled laterally c) resting on the wheels
4. What test do you do on a bonded join? a) shear
b)tension c) peel
5. Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a wing is caused by a) hogging
b)sagging c) tension
6. The maximum temperature for Nyloc nuts is a) 100oC
b)120oC c) 160oC
7. What type of grinding wheel would you sharpen an HSS drill bit on? a) A fine wheel
b)A course wheel c) A green wheel
8. When using a reamer
a) use the same lubricant as was used on the drill bit b)use lard oil
c) use no lubricant
9. The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is a) 1 kilohm
b)1 megohm c) 1 ohm
10. How long should a fireproof cable last in a fire? a) 5 minutes
c) 50 minutes
This is exam number 11. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A C A C C C B A A
1. What type of rivet would you use when there is access to only one side of the work?
a) Hilok b)Pop c) Blind
2. When using a colour contrast dye penetrant kit, and a small crack is suspected in the material
a) less developer should be used b)less inhibitor should be used
c) a magnifying glass is recommended
3. How would you use a Pacific T5 tensiometer? a) Use a load meter to apply the correct load
b)Use a standard riser and use the chart to correct for different sized cables
c) Use correct chart and correct riser
4. Small indentations in the race of a ball bearing indicate a) brinelling
b)corrosion
c) overtorqueing
5. What gauge of pin would a blue plastic insert / extract tool be used on?
a) 12 - 10 b)22 - 18 c) 16 - 14
6. On a composite repair the vacuum should be a) above required level
b)below required level c) at the required level
7. The insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheelwells should normally be not less than
a) 10 megohms b)5 megohms c) 2 megohms
8. How many teeth per inch are used on a hacksaw blade for cutting hard metal?
a) 26 b)36 c) 54
9. How many strokes per minute are used on a hacksaw when cutting thick metal?
a) 30 b)55 c) 65
10. What would you use to check the runout on a control rod? a) DTI + V blocks
b)Micrometer + ball bearing c) 3 leg trammel + feeler gauge
This is exam number 12. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B B B C A C C B B
1. Points forward of the datum point are a) positive
b)negative c) neutral
2. Pipe flaring is carried out a) in the annealed state
b)as supplied
c) after normalizing
3. What is meant by empty weight?
a) Basic weight minus unusable fuel plus oil b)Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus oil c) Basic weight only
4. When picketing a helicopter you a) tie down one blade
b)fit sleeves and tie off all blades
c) fit sleeves to the blades to protect them if they strike the ground
5. Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried out in the following order
a) continuity, bonding, functional, insulation b)functional, bonding, continuity, insulation c) bonding, continuity, insulation, functional 6. A rivet shaver is used to
a) mill the head flush b)mill the tail after setting
c) mill the tail after cutting
7. What NDT method would you use to detect delamination? a) Colour contrast dye penetrant
b)Eddy current c) Ultrasound
8. Before using a dead weight tester you would a) calibrate the tester using a standard weight b)replace the oil
c) pressurize the tester to the required pressure
9. After the normal function test of an individual circuit has been completed and the circuit switched off
a) a second function test must be carried out to verify the first
b)the fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check the isolation of the circuit concerned
c) a duplicate check must be carried out in accordance with AWN 3 10. A drill and wire gauge has holes numbered
a) 1 to 50 b)1 to 80 c) 10 to 60
This is exam number 13. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A B A B B B B B B
a) in fuel tanks
b)on electronic equipment c) on radio aerials
2. What does GA stand for on a drawing? a) General arrangement
b)General assembly c) Gradient Axis
3. What is the purpose of an aileron balance cable? a) Allows for hands off flying
b)Equalizes control cable tension c) Relieves pilot loads
4. When dimpling sheet with a squeeze dimpling tool a) adjust the jaws to accommodate different material gauges b)the jaws are not adjustable
c) use a lubricant
5. Bend radius on sheet metal is a) outside radius
b)inside radius
c) inside radius + ½ thickness 6. Why would you joggle panels? a) To make a stronger joint
b)To make panels flush c) To make a tighter seal
7. Magnetic particle testing detects faults a) longitudinally
b)transverse
8. Dye penetrant in a cold climate a) is not affected
b)takes longer to work c) works more quickly
9. If the leads of a megger are held apart
a) the spring will return the needle to the zero stop b)if the handle was turned the meter would read infinity c) the spring will return the needle to infinity
10. If after spraying the developer, red blotches appear, the part a) was not cleaned properly
b)is porous
c) has sub-surface defects
This is exam number 14. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B A C C C A B C C
1. When storing parts you should use a) silica gel
b)monitor the temperature c) place in a sealed container
2. How would you inspect a cable for fraying? a) Run your fingers the full length of the cable b)Run a rag the full length of the cable
3. What causes knuckling on older type electrical cables? a) Excessive pull through forces
b)Over-temperature soldering c) Applying cable ties too tightly
4. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out a) a bonding check
b)a milli-volt drop test c) a continuity check
5. The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft primary structure should be
a) 0.001 ohms b)0.01 ohms c) 0.05 ohms
6. One megohm is equal to a) 1,000 ohms
b)100,000 ohms c) 1,000,000 ohms
7. Before effecting a crimp, the bare ends of a cable should be a) twisted lightly in the direction of the lay
b)straightened out c) tightly twisted 8. Reamers are used to a) drill accurate holes
b)enlarge holes to accurate dimensions c) to make holes oversize
9. The pitch of a hacksaw blade is a) its length
c) the number of teeth per inch 10. The web angle of a twist drill is a) 59o
b)12o c) 130o
This is exam number 15. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B B C B A C A C C
1. The leads of a bonding tester
a) have critical lengths and the resistance of the leads is accounted for
b)are supplied in 60 foot and 6 foot lengths but can be varied due to wear
c) are interchangeable, one 60 foot long having two prongs and a 6 foot one with a single prong
2. The number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates that
a) the crimp is properly formed
b)the correct tool was used to effect the connection c) the correct connector has been used
3. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by
a) varying the torque applied to the handles b)changing the position of the pins
4. When referring to fuses, HRC means a) hot running capacity
b)high running current c) high rupture capacity
5. Expanding reamers are used to
a) ream holes in metal that has been heated
b)ream holes of different diameters by adjusting the position of the blades
c) ream tapered holes
6. The main scale on a 24/25 vernier caliper is divided into a) inches, tenths and fortieths
b)inches, tenths and twentieths c) inches, tenths and thousandths
7. The vernier height gauge uses the same principle as the a) micrometer
b)bevel protractor c) vernier caliper
8. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organizations approved by
a) CAA in accordance with the BCARs b)British Standards Institute
c) SBAC
9. This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean a) cylindricity
b)concentricity c) angularity
10. One revolution of the thimble of the English micrometer produces a linear movement of the spindle of
a) 0.040" b)0.001" c) 0.025"
This is exam number 16. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C C B C A C C B C
1. The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread is a) 0.5 mm
b)0.02 mm c) 1.0 mm
2. ATA specification 100 is
a) the American FAA specification controlling the manufacture of aluminium and its alloys
b)the procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can be given a Certificate of Airworthiness in the Transport Category (Passenger) c) the International standardization of maintenance manuals,
illustrated parts catalogues, overhaul and repair manuals, service bulletins and letters
3. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloured
a) green and yellow b)blue
4. When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component can be protected from damage by the sling by
a) using a suitably shaped sling b)using spreader bars and packing c) fabricating alternative lifting points 5. A dry powder extinguisher is coloured a) red
b)green c) blue
6. When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where the required value falls
a) at the top end of the range b)at the bottom end of the range c) in the middle of the range
7. Torque loading is carried out to provide a) as tight a joint as possible
b)flexibility
c) sufficient clamping without overstressing
8. High temperature solder is used where the operating temperature is high. It is an alloy of
a) lead / copper / antimony b)tin / zinc / antimony / silver c) tin / lead / antimony / silver 9. A flux is used in soldering to
a) etch the metal surface for more adhesion b)dissolve oxides
10. Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with a) tin and silver
b)tin and copper c) copper and silver
This is exam number 17. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C A B C C C B A C
1. When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable can be cut by a) using a chisel on a flat metal surface
b)using a hacksaw with the cable under tension c) using an oxy-acetylene torch
2. When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully positioned using
a) a copper or aluminium tube drift b)a steel drift with light blows c) a soft steel or brass tube drift
3. A ball or roller bearing is cleaned by soaking and rinsing in a) white spirit
b)trichloroethylene c) petroleum spirit
4. To allow for shrinkage, vibration and whip all straight hoses must be a) 2% longer than the distance between the fittings
b)3% longer than the distance between the fittings c) 5% longer than the distance between the fittings
5. Gas bottles for CO2 air and acetylene are coloured a) grey, maroon, green
b)green, grey, maroon c) black, grey, maroon
6. Graphite prevents seizure and conducts heat. It is normally used in a) lithium based greases
b)copper based greases c) sodium based greases
7. What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant inspection? a) It is drawn to the crack by electrostatic attraction
b)It seeps into the crack and makes it show up
c) It acts a s a blotter to draw out the penetrant that has seeped into the crack
8. The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable is
a) a high tension circuit tester b)a low reading ohmmeter c) an ammeter
9. If all three prongs on a bonding tester were shorted together, the metre would read
a) zero b)FSD
c) off-scale high
10. An aircraft should carry at least the following number of spare fuses
a) 3 b)10
c) 3 or 10%, whichever is greater
This is exam number 18. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B A B A B B A B A
1. The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is a) 0.050 in
b)0.0001 in c) 0.025 in
2. The vernier scale on an English micrometer is divided into a) 50 equal divisions
b)25 equal divisions c) 40 equal divisions
3. Which pictorial projection shows one face in true elevation and line of depth normally draw at 30o or45o to the horizontal
a) oblique b)perspective c) isometric
4. If a design amendment is made on a drawing
a) the old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added b)a new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing c) no change in issue number or date is necessary
5. The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into a) 50 equal divisions
b)25 equal divisions c) 40 equal divisions
6. The main advantage of dye penetrant inspection is a) the part to be inspected does not require cleaning
b)the penetrant solution works on any non-porous material c) the defect must be opened to the surface
7. The British Standard for Engineering Drawings is a) BS 307
b)BS 308 c) BS 306
8. What is the normal spacing between rivets a) 4 D
b)2 D c) 3 D
9. In British rivets (solid) what is the length grading unit? a) 1/10"
b)1/16" c) 1/32"
10. If the thickness of a single sheet of material, about to be joined by riveting was 1/16" of an inch thick what would be the approximate diameter of the rivets to be used
a) 3/16" b)1/16" c) 1/8"
Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A C C A B C A A A
1. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires
a) that the developer be applied to a flat surface b)a longer than normal penetrating time
c) the surface to be highly polished
2. When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to
a) reveal all possible defects b)evenly magnetize the entire part c) ensure uniform current flow 3. P.C.D. is an abbreviation for a) Pitch Cord Diameter
b)Precision Circle Dimension c) Pitch Circle Diameter
4. Maintenance Schedules are issued a) with an approval certificate by the CAA
b)in a folder with the operators name on the cover c) by the operator with CAA approval
5. This represents a) squared shaft b)bearing on shaft c) relief valve
Engineer, what is issued a) a Flight Release Certificate b)Certificate of Release to Service
c) a Certificate of Maintenance Review 7. A hard time engine inspection involves
a) removal of an engine component, its inspection and refitting b)an in-situ function test
c) replacement with a new or overhauled component 8. This represents
a) internal thread b)external thread c) counterbored hole 9. Drawing numbers are a) unique to each drawing
b)changed after each drawing amended after May 28, 1999 c) the same as serial numbers
10. Hatching lines are usually drawn at: a) 45o
b)30o c) 60o
This is exam number 20. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C A B B B A A
using either circular or longitudinal magnetisation a) 45o
b)longitudinal c) transverse
2. Who approves Maintenance Manuals a) The CAA
b)The Board of Trade
c) The Department of Trade and Industry
3. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and forgings may usually be detected by
a) the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers b)gamma ray inspection
c) submerging the part in a solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsing with clear water
4. Regarding riveting, which of the following is correct?
a) the length of a round head or flat head is measured from the end of the rivet to underside of rivet head
b)the length of a countersunk rivet (flush head) is measured from the end of the rivet to the top of the countersunk head
c) both of the above are correct
5. When riveting, a certain clearance must exist between the rivet and the hole in which it is fitted, to allow for shank expansion. If the
clearance is too large, what could be the result? a) Separation of the sheets may occur
b)Sheet may tend to buckle
c) Indentations by rivet head on the material 6. To replace one 1/8 inch rivet
a) two 1/16 inch rivets would be required b)four 1/16 inch rivets would be required c) three 1/16 inch rivets would be required
7. The scale of an engineering drawing is shown as 1:4. This indicates it is
a) drawn to scale b)drawn to a quarter
c) drawn four times larger
8. A Certificate of Release to Service must be issued after a) a Re-fuel has been done
b)a repair has been carried out in accordance with an approved repair scheme
c) engine runs
9. An orthographic projection usually shows a) three, two-dimensional views of an object b)one, three-dimensional view of an object c) a pictorial view of the object
10. When dimensioning a drawing, the dimension lines should be
a) the minimum number of dimensions necessary to enable the component to be manufactured
b)as many dimensions as possible c) only size dimensions
This is exam number 21. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C A B C B A B B B
action must be taken?
a) Amend the Maintenance Schedule
b)Amend the Maintenance Schedule and seek the CAA approval c) Await CAA approval before amending the Maintenance Schedule 2. When is a Certificate of Fitness for Flight under 'A' conditions required?
a) to allow an unregistered aircraft to fly for air test
b)after a Certificate of Maintenance Review has been signed c) to allow an aircraft to fly on air test to check out a
modification
3. When there is an overlap of responsibility, how is the CRS signed? a) Appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineers must each certify the parts appropriate to their license coverage
b)Only one appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer may sign the CRS as he assumes responsibility for the operation, the other
engineers must sign the paperwork
c) An appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer and an ATPL holder sign the CRS when the aircraft is away from base
4. Information contained in the ANO is
a) of a mandatory nature where safety is concerned
b)of a legal nature in all sections and is therefore mandatory
c) written in compliance of the Civil Aviation Act of 1943 ratifying the ICAO Convention
5. Which of these metals is inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method
a) magnesium alloys b)aluminium alloys c) iron alloys
is by
a) subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage a.c
b)slowly moving the part out of an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength
c) slowly moving the part into an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength
7. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?
a) Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a punch.
b)Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch
c) Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and remove the rivet with a punch
8. Aircraft skin is joggled to a) Conform with the “Area Rule“
b)Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces c) Make a frame lighter but stronger
9. If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed time they can be re-treated. What is the maximum number of times that they can be heat-treated?
a) Twice only b)Three times
c) If no more in Stores, as many times as required
10. Rivets kept at a temperature of between –15oC and –20oC are usable for
a) 150 minutes b)150 hours c) 150 days
This is exam number 22. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B C B C B C A A A
1. A hole is placed in the lowest point of electrical cable conduit a) to allow for pull-through of the cables
b)to allow for drainage of moisture
c) to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft structure
2. Taper pins are used in which of the following applications? a) To take compression loads
b)To take shear loads
c) To take compression and shear loads
3. What action is taken with a common circlip removed from a component? a) It is replaced with a new item on assembly
b)It is examined for distortion c) It is checked for springiness
4. The maximum bolt diameter for which a 1/16 split pin may be used is a) 1/4" or 2BA
b)3/8" c) 7/16"
5. The check for a cable pulling out of a swaged fitting is by a) seeing that the cable is still past the safety holes in the swage b)seeing that there are no broken wires near the fitting
c) looking for a shiny surface on the cable near the fitting
6. A 'Reel' used to hold an aircraft cable in storage should have a minimum diameter of
a) at least 25 times that of the cable diameter b)at least 40 times that of the cable diameter c) at least 50 times that of the cable diameter
7. How do you remove a tight link from a chain which is to be used on an aircraft control system?
a) Dismantle, inspect, rectify and re-assemble the chain
b)If the chain has a tight link, the chain has to be removed from service c) You may be able to remove the tight link by applying a light tap with a hammer
8. Why is a shouldered stud used a) to provide a rigid assembly
b)as a replacement for a damaged stud
c) to decrease weight without loss of strength
9. Large control cables (45 to 120 cwt) may have tension loads that can break the locking wire or lease lock nuts. How is this overcome?
a) A tube is fitted over the turnbuckle assembly and drilled to take up to 3 bolts, to prevent independent rotation of any part
b)The cable is kept slightly slack
c) Duplicating the number of cables to cut down on individual tensile loads
10. The initial lubricant on a new chain a) should not be removed
b)should be removed and replaced with the approved oil c) must be replaced with grade altitude grease
This is exam number 23. Answer
C B B B B A B B C A
1. False Brinelling of a bearing is
a) movement of the outer ring relative to its housing
b)a scoring of the race-way surfaces due to ball or roller skidding c) indentations on the race-way due to load transferred through the bearing when static
2. Avdel rivets are closed by a) a squeezing process
b)a broaching process c) a tapered mandrel
3. What is the purpose of the Avdel pin tester? a) To test the shear strength of the pin
b)To test the tightness of the pin in the rivet c) To test the tightness of the rivet in the hole 4. On completion of assembly the bearing housing a) should be examined for end float
b)lightly packed with grease c) packed fully with grease
5. What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminium? a) Removes dirt, grease, and oil
b)Minimises or prevents oxidation
c) Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod
6. The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilises a ferromagnetic material that has
a) high permeability and low retentivity b)low permeability and high retentivity c) high permeability and high retentivity
7. When inspecting a butt-welded joint by visual means
a) the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal
b)the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal
c) look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead
8. A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What non-destructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured
a) eddy current test b)metallic ring test c) ultrasonic test
9. The shielding gases generally used in the Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding of aluminium consist of
a) a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide
b)nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen c) helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon
10. An “On Condition” Inspection involves
a) an inspection of a component with a view to continued operation if its condition warrants such action
b)replacement of life expired components for new ones c) a program of inspections used to increase the life of lifed components
This is exam number 24. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1. Air Navigation General Regulations are to be found in a) Airworthiness Requirements CAP 455
b)British Civil Airworthiness Requirements Section A c) CAA Printed Manual CAP 393
2. The information in the ANO is given in the form of
a) Chapters, each one dealing with a different aspect of Civil Aviation, these chapters being backed up by the schedules
b)Articles of Law, some of which are further clarified by Schedules c) Regulations, each one covering a different aspect of Civil Aviation and as such is mandatory
3. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements
a) are printed by the CAA and are of an advisory nature
b)form the Technical requirements for the design and operation of aircraft and their equipment
c) interpret the ANO and form the Technical requirements for the design
4. Which statement concerning a welding process is true?
a) The inert-arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the atmosphere
b)In the metallic-arc welding process, filler material, if needed, is provided by a separate metal rod of the proper material held in the arc c) In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler rod used for steel is covered with a thin coating of flux
5. The "Dwell Time" of a dye-penetrant NDT inspection is the a) amount of time the developer is allowed to act
b)time the penetrant is allowed to stand c) time it takes for a defect to develop
6. The stems of an Avdel rivet are a) removed with the riveting tool b)removed with a taper punch
c) nipped off and milled flush with the head
7. When checking a ball bearing for corrosion and foreign matter a) oscillate and rotate slowly to listen for roughness
b)rotate at operational speed and check for roughness c) make a strip down inspection
8. A thread insert is made from a) white metal
b)aluminium alloy c) stainless steel
9. Filing or grinding a weld bead
a) may be performed to achieve a smoother surface b)reduces the strength of the joint
c) may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve uniform material thickness
10. What non-destructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat-treat conditions
a) eddy current inspection b)ultrasonic inspection
c) magnetic particle inspection
This is exam number 25. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A A B A A C B B A
1. A thread insert is removed by
a) using a drill the major diameter of the thread insert b)a special drill provided by the thread insert manufacturer c) once fitted, a thread insert must not be removed
2. To correctly tension cables it can help
a) to have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally
b)to take up initial slack by additional pulleys
c) to use a cable with turnbuckles at least every eight feet 3. What type of load is a journal load?
a) Radial b)Axial
c) Centrifugal
4. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter Type F a) 20 to 60 lbs per sq. in
b)60 to 80 lbs per sq. in c) 40 to 60 lbs per sq. in
5. Gamma Ray Testing of combustion chambers will show up a) light grey on black background
b)black on lighter background c) grey on white background
6. In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the
b)temperature of the flame
c) melting point of the filler metal
7. Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals, plastics and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects:
a) magnetic particle inspection b)eddy current inspection c) ultrasonic inspection
8. The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is/are a) current setting or flame temperature
b)material compatibility c) ambient conditions 9. A CMR is raised after a) defect rectification
b)scheduled servicing at specified intervals c) major overhaul
10. Compliance with the ANO is restricted to
a) aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK Civil Register only b)aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK & Commonwealth Civil Registers
c) All civil aircraft and their equipment on the international Civil Register
This is exam number 26. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1. The measuring capacity of a Vernier Caliper is a) the length of the graduated scale
b)the length of the graduated scale plus the width of the nibs c) the length of the graduated scale less the length of the vernier scale
2. To drill a 1/4 inch hole in titanium, the correct starting procedure would be
a) to drill 1/4 inch hole direct b)to centre punch
c) to centre drill
3. When using a D.T.I. to check the run-out of a shaft, readings of -15 to +25 would indicate a run-out of
a) 0.025 inches b)0.040 inches c) 0.020 inches
4. Vee-blocks are manufactured
a) as single items and may be paired with any other vee-block b)in sets of two and identified for use as a set
c) in sets of three and identified for use as a set 5. The metric micrometer reading shown is a) 13.87 mm
b)13.37 mm c) 10.337 mm
6. When fitting Rivnuts into position how are they secured and prevented from rotating?
b)Locknut at the rear c) A locating key
7. The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be a) oxidizing
b)neutral
c) carbonizing
8. A flexible hose that cannot be internally inspected by eye or intrascope can be ball tested by suspending from one end at a time to check
a) ball of 90% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight b)a ball of 98% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight c) a ball of 95% of bore of hose can be pushed through with a metal rod
9. Bearings to be cleaned for further examination should be wiped free of all grease on outer surfaces with the aid of dry compressed air for cages and rolling parts. The bearings should then be soaked in
a) lead free gasoline b)white spirit
c) M.E.K.
10. Ultra sonic flaw detectors use a) high frequency sound waves b)x-rays
c) a magnetic field
This is exam number 27. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1. on an engineering drawing would indicate a) repair and recondition
b)ultra-sonic test
c) dye penetrant check
2. S.W.G. is an abbreviation for a) Standard Wire Gauge
b)Screw Width Gauge c) Standard Water Gauge
3. A Certificate of Release to service states that
a) the aircraft has been maintained to an approved schedule b)an operator has satisfied the CAA of his competence c) a task has been carried out in accordance with the ANO 4. When can a CMR be renewed
a) never b)1 year c) 2 years
5. If the edge of aluminium is treated with caustic soda, the metal turns
a) black b)white
c) black / white / black
6. Technical and Administrative information is officially circulated to L.A.M.E.S. in
a) C.A.I.P.s b)B.C.A.R.s c) A.W.N.s
7. After cleaning a bearing should be dried with a) lint free rags
b)left in free air to dry naturally c) clean, warm, dry compressed air 8. Hoses are normally pressure tested to a) 2 times maximum working pressure b)1½ times maximum working pressure c) maximum working pressure
9. Defects are indicated in the dye penetrant crack detection test by a) green lines and dots
b)red lines on a white background c) yellowish green marks
10. A dent is measured in a tubular push-pull rod by a) passing a ball down its bore
b)callipers and feeler gauges c) a steel ball and micrometer
This is exam number 28. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C C B A C C A C A
1. A fluid line marker with a skull & crossbones is a) warning symbol
b)radioactive symbol
c) fluid line carries toilet waste
2. NDT using colour dye process at temperatures below 15°C will a) mean choosing alternative NDT method
b)not be affected by the temperature
c) retard the penetrant action of the dye and penetration time is extended
3. The international marking for a water injection pipeline is a series of
a) dots b)squares c) chevrons
4. What solder should be used to solder aluminium? a) 90% tin and 10% zinc
b)wire flux cored solder
c) D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder
5. The soldering method where molten solder is pumped from the bottom of
a bath through a slot so that a stationary wave of solder appears on the surface is known as the
a) standing wave bath method b)stationary wave method c) rotary bath method
6. A ketts saw is used because
a) its low torque allows single handed use b)it is available both pneumatic and electric
c) it can cut thicker metal than is required by most repair schemes 7. An aircraft should be cleared of snow
a) using hot fluid b)using cold fluid c) using air blast
a) spur gears
b)gears in a gearbox c) gerotor type gears
9. When countersinking rivet holes in a material a) a plain countersinking bit should be used
b)the rivet head should stand 1/32" proud of the surface
c) a special countersinking bit with a pad to prevent drilling too deep should be used
10. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the dye penetrant should be applied
a) on the inside, with developer on the outside b)on the outside with developer on the outside c) on the inside with the developer on the inside
This is exam number 29. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C C A C C A C A A
1. The international marking for a fire protection pipe line is a series of
a) diamonds b)circles c) squares
2. Hi-loks are installed with the a) shank lubricated when fitting b)thread lubricated when fitting c) thread and shank not lubricated
a) 12 inches b)3 feet c) 500 mm
4. A fire resistant cable is proof tested by exposure to a standard fire for
a) 5 minutes b)15 minutes c) 30 minutes
5. Zinc Chromate applied between faying surfaces will a) improve bonding between them
b)improve adhesion thus relieving the amount of riveting necessary c) inhibit dissimilar metal (electrolytic) corrosion
6. In order for dye penetrant inspection to be effective, the material being checked must
a) be magnetic b)be non-magnetic c) have surface cracks
7. Which of the following metals can be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method?
a) Iron alloys
b)Aluminium alloys c) Magnesium alloys
8. Which of the following shafts would you use to obtain a clearance fit in a bush 0.750 inch diameter?
a) 750 inch b)0.752 inch c) 0.748 inch
9. To prevent corrosion where aluminium alloy pipelines are supported by rubber cleats, the pipe should be treated over the area of contact with
a) varnish
b)petroleum jelly c) french chalk
10. Which of the following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge? a) Tolerance
b)Clearance c) Allowance
This is exam number 30. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B A C C A C B A C
1. The international marking for an instrument air pipe line is a a) zig zag line
b)wavy band c) series of dots
2. The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length should be
a) 51 inches b)51½ inches c) 3 inches
3. The length of a hose assembly with elbowed end fittings is taken from a) the centre of the bore at the nipple extremity
b)the extreme overall length
c) the maximum length of the straight portion of hose
4. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipe line is a series of
a) diamonds b)dots
c) rectangles
5. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by chemical test turns black when caustic soda is applied to the surface, the metal is
a) aluminium b)alclad
c) duralumin
6. Which of the following is a 'Bilateral Tolerance? a) 2 inches ± 0.002
b)2 inches - 0.002 c) 2 inches + 0.002
7. The term "dry joint'” is usually applied to a) a water tight joint
b)a metal being lightly heated
c) a defect associated with a soldered joint 8. A tolerance is
a) a required difference in dimension between mating parts to obtain a certain class of fit
b)a permitted variation on a dimension to allow for inaccuracy of equipment
c) a permitted difference between new and worn dimensions
9. When an aircraft is pulled out of soft ground, the equipment should be attached to
a) the main gear b)the nose gear c) the tail cone
a) larger than the hole b)smaller than the hole
c) the same size as the hole
This is exam number 31. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C C C B B C B A B
1. Cross cut files
a) cut on the forward stroke only b)cut on the backward stroke only c) cut in both directions
2. When making a small soldered electrical connection, using flux-cored solder
a) the soldering iron should be loaded with solder and then applied to the connection
b)the connection should be heated first and then solder applied
c) the soldering iron and solder should be applied simultaneously to the connection
3. In a torque wrench of handle length, L = 12 in. and an extension E = 3 in, the desired torque value is 300 lbs.in. the dial should read
a) 280 lb.ins. b)375 lb.ins. c) 240 lb.ins.
4. The correct size spanner for use on a unified 5/16 in. threaded hexagon headed bolt is
a) 5/16 in A/F b)1/4 in A/F c) 1/2 in A/F
on an undrilled new bolt
a) the bolt should be pre-drilled and the torque increased if necessaryto allow the split pin to be fitted
b)the torque should be applied and the bolt suitably drilled for thesplit pin
c) the bolt should be pre-drilled, the torque applied and the nut eased back, if necessary, to allow the split pin to be fitted
6. The length of the Vernier Scale in a 24/25 Vernier Caliper is a) 1.2 in
b)0.6 in c) 2.45 in
7. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must be
a) allowed to cool to room temperature as slowly as possible
b)allowed to lose any residual magnetism over as long a period possible c) de-magnetised before returning to service
8. Which of the following N.D.T. techniques cannot be used on a component manufactured from austenitic stainless steel
a) penetrant dye b)magnetic - particle c) hot oil and chalk
9. A reamer with spiral flutes is removed a) clockwise
b)anticlockwise c) straight
10. To aid marking out on Fe metals use a) graphite grease
b)copper sulphate solution c) engineer's blue
This is exam number 32. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C A B A C B B A C
1. What is used on Magnesium to reprotect it? a) Selenious Acid
b)Deoxidine
c) Chromic Acid
2. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked
a) one-half radius from either bend tangent line b)one radius from either bend tangent line
c) one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake
3. Fluorescent penetrant processes for the detection of cracks or material defects are used with
a) an ultra-violet radiation source b)a tungsten light source
c) an infra-red light source 4. A jury strut is one giving
a) additional support to a stressed area b)a temporary support
c) a part of the structure that takes only tensile loads 5. What is an isotope the power source of?
a) Gamma Rays b)Ultra Violet Rays c) X-Rays
6. The fluid used in the 'Oil and Chalk' method of non-destructive testing is a mixture of
a) lubricating oil and petrol b)lubricating oil and lard oil c) lubricating oil and paraffin
7. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for inspecting for delamination in Redux bonded structure of light aluminium alloys is a) magnetic flow
b)ultrasonic c) eddycurrent
8. Vital point inspections are carried out a) on an "A" Check
b)after an area is disturbed c) on a "C" check
9. The difference between high and low limits of a size for a dimension is known as the
a) tolerance b)deviation c) fit
10. Rubber components should be stored a) in warm and humid conditions
b)in a well lit room c) in a cool dark area
This is exam number 33. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C B C A C A C A A
1. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either primary or secondary, what action should you adopt?
b)Upgrade it to ‘primary’
c) Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary'
2. Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which condition?
a) The discontinuity pattern is straight
b)The discontinuity is found in a non-stressed area of the part c) The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part
3. When inspecting a component which is being subjected to the hot fluid chalk process, the examination for defects should be carried out
a) immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet b)when the item is quite cool
c) whilst the item is still quite hot
4. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which defects a) defects parallel to the long axis of the part
b)defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part
c) defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetisation 5. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing is carried out
a) with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate b)by washing with distilled water
c) by applying a coating of Vaseline
6. Which type of repair has to be used where the damage is large and lost strength of the area has to be restored?
a) Filling plate and patch b)Insert and butt strap
c) Patch repair to the punctured skin
7. An indication of porosity when using a penetrant dye crack detection method is
a) an area of scattered dots of dye
b)closely spaced dots of dye formed in a line c) areas where dye is not showing
8. In a test for adequate demagnetization of a component after a magnetic particle test, the test compass should not deflect
a) more than 1o when standing due south of the component b)more than 1o when standing north-east of the component c) more than 1o when standing due east of the component 9. If copper sulphate is used on magnesium alloy it will a) effervesce to a black colour
b)effervesce to a copper colour c) have no effect
10. If on application of developer it all turns to a pinkish hue, what has happened?
a) Incorrect cleaning b)The hue has pinked c) Thin porosity
This is exam number 34. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B C C A B C B C B
1. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part
a) was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied b)is not damaged
c) was not thoroughly cleaned before developer was applied
2. When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminium alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a
a) higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill b)lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill c) lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill
3. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend allowance tables are not available, the neutral axis of the bend can be a) represented by the actual length of the required material for the bend
b)found by subtracting the stock thickness from the bend radius c) found by adding approximately one-half of the stock thickness to the bend radius
4. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of
a) 90 degrees and turn at a low speed b)118 degrees and turn at a high speed c) 140 degrees and turn at a low speed
5. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle build-up forming a) a fernlike pattern
b)a single line c) parallel lines
6. Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be polished with mechanical buffing wheels as this
a) will cause large static charges to build up b)may remove the aluminium coating
c) may remove the alloy coating
7. When carrying out a penetrant dye crack test, before the dye is applied the surface being tested should be
a) etch primed
b)painted with developer fluid c) thoroughly degreased
8. What colour is used to indicate a tertiary structure on a diagram or drawing?
a) Yellow b)Green c) Red
9. When stop drilling a crack, what is the typical drill size used? a) 0.250"
b)0.025" c) 0.125"
10. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures? a) Lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc
b)Highly stressed parts but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
c) Highly stressed parts and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life
This is exam number 35. Answer
1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B A B C C B A B B
1. When degreasing aluminium alloys, and no trichloroethylene is available, a suitable alternative is
a) M.E.K.
b)white spirit and naphtha c) dilute sulphuric acid
2. When mixing acid and water
a) the water should always be added to the acid b)the acid should always be added to the water c) it does not matter which way the two are mixed
3. What is used to measure the depth of a blend after a corrosion repair?
a) Dial Test Indicator
b)Straight edge and slip gauges c) Vernier caliper
4. Vacu-blast beads re-used on a steel component, after being used on an aluminium component will
a) be ineffective in abrasion
b)cause corrosion to the steel component c) cause clogging of the vacu-blast machine
5. What colour is used to identify a 'primary structure' when using the aircraft Maintenance Manual?
a) Yellow b)Green c) Red
6. A grinding wheel is normally refaced by
a) holding a hard wood scraper against the rotating wheel b)grinding through using another grinding wheel
c) dressing with a special tool
7. The main scale on a 49/50 Vernier caliper is divided into a) inches, tenths and fortieths
b)inches, tenths and twentieths c) inches, tenths and thousandths 8. Centre punches are made of
a) high carbon steel hardened and tempered b)case hardened mild steel
