331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has
a) full authority b) 50% authority # c) 10% authority
332. Stall warning will be given # a) before stall
b) after stall c) at stall
333. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF) is to
# a) log relevant maintenance data b) transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect action
334. How are spoilers normally operated? # a) Hydraulic actuator
b) Air pistons c) Electrical motors
335. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the # a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces
b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered
336. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
b) one generator always comes on line before the other
# c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled Page 38 - Mod 13
337. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery a) in the aircraft
b) when the battery is fully charged # c) in the charging room only
338. When removing the load from a current transformer # a) short the terminals
b) place a resistor across each terminal c) leave the terminals open
339. Wing steady light must be visible through a) 70 degrees
# b) 110 degrees c) 180 degrees
340. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins a) a and b
b) c and d # c) e and f
341. When paralleling two AC generators
# a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC
b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA c) they do not need to be in phase
342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that
# a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator 343. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw b) prevents slip and skid in yaw
# c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn 344. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signals
b) integrating deviation signals # c) integrating course error signals Page 39 - Mod 13
345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause
a) the pointer to read zero b) the pointer to read mid scale # c) the pointer to read full scale
346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to
# a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent
c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g
347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will a) increase with a higher rotor speed
# b) decrease with a higher rotor speed c) decrease with a lower rotor speed
348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
# b) longitudinal axis c) vertical axis
349. The glideslope equipment operates in the a) HF band
# b) UHF band c) VHF band
350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank
b) aircraft to overbank
# c) aircraft to remain in level flight
351. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are
# a) DC b) AC
c) pulsed DC
a) resistance decade b) capacitance bridge c) inductance decade
353. EICAS provides the following a) engine parameters
# b) engine parameters and system warnings c) engine warnings and engine parameters Page 40 - Mod 13
354. The stabiliser is set to high setting when # a) the flaps are moving down
b) the flap are moving up
c) the flap are moving up or down
355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system a) operational
b) passive # c) simplex
356. DSR TK (desired track) means # a) the bearing to capture the track
b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points c) distance left or right from desired track
357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from # a) the barometric alt capsule
b) a rad alt output
c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height 358. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is a) FM Modulated
# b) AM Modulated
c) modulated with a 9960Hz
359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will # a) retard the throttle
c) control throttle for a IAS
360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to the
a) amplitude b) frequency
# c) rate of frequency change
361. The normal axis on a helicopter is # a) straight down the rotor head b) at 90o to the C of G
c) at 90o to the rotor head
362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used
# a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX b) make the audio signal clearer
c) an Americanisum for volume Page 41 - Mod 13
363. A GPS aerial is polarised a) vertically
b) horizontally
# c) right hand circular
364. Mach trim threshold are set by the a) pilot
b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual # c) manufacture
365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to a) correct the VSWR
b) stop arcing between the wave guide # c) stop moisture entering the wave guide 366. An RMI requires the following inputs: # a) Heading and radio deviation
b) Course and radio deviation c) Radio deviation only
367. The versine signal is used in the # a) pitch channel only
b) roll channel only c) pitch and roll channel
368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called # a) transient droop b) static droop c) under swing 369. Loran C Uses a) 16 KHz b) 20 Mhz # c) 100 Khz
370. The amount of travel of a series actuator is # a) 50% of control movement
b) 10% of control movement c) full control movement 371. GPS Telemetry consists of a) week number and time label b) satellite position information
c) 8 bits of preamble and position information Page 42 - Mod 13
372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at # a) 90o
b) 180o c) 0o
373. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual
# b) JAR (OPS) M c) BCAR A4-8
374. The rotor disc is
b) the rotor head hub c) the ground cushion
375. A DME is in auto stand by when a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
# b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second c) the TCAS is transmitting
376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What is a RMI display?
a) 90o b) 0o # c) 180o
377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft would
a) continue on flying on the localizer # b) fly parallel to the localizer
c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading 378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are
# a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft. c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft. 379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are
a) not less than 100 ft. # b) not less than 200 ft.
c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft. 380. When GA is initiated?
a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles # c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust
Page 43 - Mod 13
381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are # a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude. c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation
382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by
a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering b) visual indication and nosewheel steering
c) visual indication and rudder control
283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.
# b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system. c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.
384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will a) disconnect all channels
# b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach 285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will
# a) retard throttle to idle. b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust. 386. Roll out mode occurs # a) after flare
b) before flare c) at alert height
287. High and low signal to voter are a) average
b) removed c) added
388. Basic monitoring is function of a) voting
# b) signal comparison c) signal summing
a) the pilot cannot input to the system # b) the pilot can input to the system
c) yaw damping is only possible signal input Page 44 - Mod 13
390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that a) the indicator is not serviceable
b) the control system is out of trim c) the system is trimmed
391. in parallel rudder system,
a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals
# b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement c) The rudder pedals are disconnected
292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is
a) AC b) DC
# c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input 393. An increase in mach number will cause the
# a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane 394. If one FMS fails in a duel system
a) system operation will not be affected b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
# c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer 395. To carry out FMS database update on FMS
# a) use database loader b) insert new EPROM c) insert new data on CDU
396. To know the valid database on FMS a) perform bite check
# b) call up relevant page on CDU c) call up relevant current status 397. Magnetic heading errors will be # a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly c) negative if northerly
398. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading # b) Move as the aircraft moves
c) Stay fixed on magnetic north Page 45 - Mod 13
399. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored? a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1 b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1
400. A helicopter autopilot uses
# a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam? a) Height Deviation
b) Radio deviation # c) Course deviation
402. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence? a) Flare, attitude, rollout
# b) Attitude, flare, rollout c) Rollout, attitude, flare
403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft # b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available? a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam c) All are continuously available
405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis # b) Right of the longitudinal axis c) Left of the longitudinal axis
406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are # a) lift, drag thrust, weight
b) lift, drag, thrust c) weight, drag, lift Page 46 - Mod 13
407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm?
# a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter
c) Provide directional control
408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
# a) 21 micro seconds b) 8 micro seconds c) 17 micro seconds
409. What does the Radar contour button do? # a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power c) Alter the video amplifier
410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the target? a) 12 miles
c) 40 miles
411. With a spring balance control system you can a) move the control surface on the ground
b) move the control surface only by moving the tab c) not move the control surface on the ground
412. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is # a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively 413. Alert Height is when
a) a decision of whether to land is made
# b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made 414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position
415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral b) Longitudinal c) Normal Page 47 - Mod 13
416. Versine is used in which channel? # a) Pitch
b) Roll c) Yaw
417. A Master Warning is issued when # a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & generator trip occurs
418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?
# a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications
419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right
420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating?
a) 030 b) 060 c) 090
421. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve? a) 12,000ft
b) 5,000ft # c) 18,000ft
422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
# a) Left Rudder b) Right Rudder c) No Rudder
423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab?
a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface # c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface Page 48 - Mod 13
424. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured? # a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe
c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber
425. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get? # a) Stick Shaker
b) Stick Nudger c) EICAS warning
426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to a) nose up
b) go one wing down c) nose down
427. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal?
# a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift b) It will fly in circles
c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on 428. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount # b) it will fly in circles
c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on
429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments with excess deviation?
a) Red b) Amber c) White
430. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear? # a) FM
b) Pulse
c) FM and Pulse
431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn? a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about? # a) Normal
b) Longitudinal c) Lateral
Page 49 - Mod 13
433. The neutral shift system augments control of the a) stabiliser
# b) elevator c) spoilers
434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes # a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up b) all the elevators on each wing to move up
c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up 435. What are ground spoilers used for? # a) To dump lift
b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop c) To slow the aircraft
436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this command?
# a) Control Wheel b) Control Column c) Rudder Pedals
437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure? # a) 3000 psi
b) 1000 psi c) 300 psi
438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must # a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger
b) defer the defect until correct spares are available c) splice the broken lead
439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary structure?
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable c) No smaller than 18AWG
440. What is the bonding value between secondary structure? a) 0.5
# b) 1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000
441. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called? # a) Drag Strut
b) Drag Wire c) Shock Absorber Page 50 - Mod 13
442. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing? # a) Increasing in lift
b) Going to the highest point c) Increasing in drag
443. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have? # a) 10% approximately
b) 100% c) 50%
444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver? a) Polarity sensitive AC
# b) Polarity sensitive DC c) Either
445. What does an INS calculate on power up? a) Last Known Longitude
# b) Last Known Latitude
446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have?
a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input # b) The cyclic lever will not move
c) The flight director bars only will move
447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages? # a) Through the ground test function
b) Through the Existing faults function c) Through the Present Leg faults function
448. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication? # a) The voltage activity in the servo amp
b) Trim tab position
c) Control surface position
449. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-? a) 62
# b) 42 c) 20
450. When using a bonding tester you
# a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points c) use either leads for the testing
Page 51 - Mod 13
451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for? # a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades
b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades
452. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect? a) Disturbances
b) Velocity
453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is moved?
a) It remains in the neutral position
b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
454. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces? # a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off
b) Pull & tag circuit breakers c) Wear ear protection
455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by # a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer
b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer 456. What is the glide slope frequency range?
a) 108 - 112 Mhz b) 108 - 112 Ghz # c) 329 - 335 Mhz
457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery? a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
# b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage 458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in a) increase in lift without an increase in power b) decrease in lift
c) decrease in speed
459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed? a) Bell sound
# b) Clacking sound c) Horn sound Page 52 - Mod 13
# a) To reinforce the boundary layer
b) Increased angle of attack during approach c) Increase the speed of the airflow
461. ADF is a) Rho b) Theta c) Rho-Theta
462. A Boost Gauge reads
a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure # b) absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
463. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and # a) relative air flow
b) tip path plane c) horizontal axis
464. If cyclic is moved to the right
a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another b) the rotor blades on the right flap down
c) the rotor blades on the left flap down
465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b) 2 - 6 GHz # c) 100 KHz
466. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack had an aileron going down?
a) Decrease stall speed b) Increase stall speed
c) Have no effect on the stall speed 467. A high lift device is used for # a) take off and landing
c) landing only
468. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?
a) Frame b) Bulkhead c) Stringer Page 53 - Mod 13
469. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?
# a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area
470. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon? a) 100
b) 50 c) 20
471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer? a) Material of the coil
b) Material of the sensing element c) Material of the indicator needle
472. after a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would a) roll back to the horizontal
b) continue to roll further
c) remain at the position that it had rolled to
473. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems? a) Spoiler to aileron
b) Spoiler to flap c) Spoiler to elevator
474. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication? a) To enable vowels to be heard better
b) To enable consonants to be heard better c) To enable numbers to be heard better
475. The difference between transient droop and static droop is # a) underswing
b) overswing c) a hole in one
476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then
a) it will not need resetting and will read zero b) it will display the airfield height above sea level c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero 477. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected a) by replacing capacitance probes
b) in parallel with capacitance probes c) in series with capacitance probes Page 54 - Mod 13
478. What is aileron droop?
a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow b) One aileron lowered
c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on
479. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled? a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor
b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive c) By a swashplate
480. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight? a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation
b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation
c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation 481. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is
# a) semi rigid b) rigid
c) fully articulating
a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen 483. A thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added b) cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened
484. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass? a) Bellows and diaphragm
b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature c) Press relief valve
485. When installing an aerial ,added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by
a) webs b) outer plate c) inner plate
486. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency? a) 60
b) 63 c) 1000
Page 55 - Mod 13
487. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade a) increases at the tip
b) increases at the root
c) is unaffected by blade position 488. TCAS II is
a) 10 aircraft per square mile b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square
489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a a) servomotor
b) loop voltage c) Chinaman
490. FMC changes movement via a) A/P actuator
b) flight control computer c) straight to the actuator
491. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors a) certain parameters
b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC 492. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere a) increase with the frequency
b) decrease with frequency c) is not affected by frequency 493. What is lapse rate?
a) Pressure changes with altitude # b) Temperature changes with altitude c) Density changes with altitude
494. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when a) the flaps are lowered
b) at higher speeds
c) the landing gear is extended
495. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery? a) The outside temperature
b) Electrolyte temperature c) Charge state of the battery Page 56 - Mod 13
496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left? a) Elevator up, left aileron down
b) Elevator down, right aileron down c) Elevator up, right aileron down
497. Where is the placement of a mercury switch? a) Outer gimbal
b) Gyro case c) Instrument case
498. DC power into the GCU comes from a) main battery bus
b) main battery bus and ground service c) ground service
499. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains a) 1 capsule
# b) 2 capsules c) 3 capsules
500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will
a) move up b) move down
c) remain at the same place 501. Spring tabs
a) cannot be adjusted in flight b) can be adjusted in the flight deck c) cannot be adjusted
502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will a) increase
b) decrease c) remain
503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the a) normal axis
b) lateral axis
# c) longitudinal axis
504. LOC signal modulation is a) 50 %
# b) 20 % c) 10 %
Page 57 - Mod 13
505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter would a) continue to roll
b) increases roll
c) come back to level flight
506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure? a) ASI
b) Machmeter c) VSI
507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will a) decrease
# b) increase c) remain the same
508. A Master Warning is issued when a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire & trip occurs
509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis? a) Elevator s
# b) Elevons c) Ailerons
510. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give? # a) Up Elevator
b) Left rudder c) Down elevator
511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have? a) Increases lift & reduces drag
# b) Increases lift and drag c) Increase lift only
512. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have? # a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds
b) Reduces takeoff speeds only c) Reduces landing speeds only
513. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline? a) Heading error
b) Course error c) Radio deviation Page 58 - Mod 13
514. What does a vibration type sensor measure? a) Maximum deflection
# b) Frequency of deflections c) Direction of flexing
515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock circuit? a) A and B
b) B and C c) E and F
516. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation? a) Bellows or diaphragm
b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient c) Piston and oil
517. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as # a) Coefficient B
b) Coefficient A c) Coefficient C
518. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession?
a) Increase
b) Remain unaffected c) Decrease
a) aerodynamic damping
b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed c) control movement effort relief
520. ADF operates within which frequencies? # a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz
521. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used? a) Roll out
# b) Flare c) Touchdown
522. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is a) DME Freq b) LNAV # c) CRZ Page 59 - Mod 13 523. Mode C response is a) 21microseconds b) 12 microseconds c) 8 microseconds
524. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system? # a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel
b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table 525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by
a) climb b) descent c) roll
526. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites
c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites 527. The term `circling current' refers to a) AC generators
b) AC and DC Generators c) DC generators
528. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you only have one to dispatch the aircraft.
Where do you fit it? a) LH side
b) RH side
c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)
529. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line
b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line # c) aircraft flies in circles
530. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the a) IDG
b) CSD
c) swash plate
531. WX radar display the time base is # a) saw tooth wave form
b) trapezoidal wave form c) rectangular wave form Page 60 - Mod 13
532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost, following the FD commands. Aircraft will
a) stay on centre of course b) stay parallel to course
c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing
533. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is a) to increase GS signal
b) to decrease GS signal c) to maintain GS signal
534. A helicopter needs to re-trim # a) indication is shown on the API
b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator 535. API Trim pointers are fed by
a) a synchro b) an RVDT c) an LVDT
536. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is
a) 50 ohms b) 25 to 75 ohms c) 129 ohms
537. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure
b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure 538. In audio clipping
a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels 539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses # a) attenuation first then amplification
b) amplification first then attenuation c) no attenuation but amplification
540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid? a) Decoder
b) Blocking oscillator c) Integrator
Page 61 - Mod 13
541. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohm meter the reading will be
a) 80 ohms b) 200 ohms
c) more than 20 mega ohms
542. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect a) ADI
b) Flight director computer c) both of the above
543. A HUMS in a helicopter is a) a vibration analysis system
b) a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure
c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade 544. When the flaps are lowered
a) the lift vector moves forward b) the lift vector moves rearward c) there is no effect on the lift vector
545. at take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a # a) large increase in lift and drag
b) small increase in lift and drag
c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag
546. In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected
a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end) b) between the aerial and ATU
c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end)
547. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate
a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning
c) the trim system is out of datum
548. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually a) dependent on aircraft altitude
b) 100%
c) chosen as a compromise
549. With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only
b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive # c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive Page 62 - Mod 13
550. MLS azimuth range is a) +/- 30
b) +/- 42 c) +/- 62
551. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates a) 90
# b) 180 c) 0
552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when # a) flaps are retracted
b) landing gear up and locked c) flaps extended
553. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station?
# a) 96 nautical miles b) 100 nautical miles c) 104 nautical miles
554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the aircraft? # a) 10
b) 5 c) 2.5
555. What frequency range does ACARS operate in? a) 2-30 MHz
# b) 118-136 MHz c) 4-5 GHz
556. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals a) above the carrier signal
b) below the carrier signal # c) No sidebands present
557. on an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning a) would initiate a Go Around
b) audio and Visual warning c) visual warning only Page 63 - Mod 13
558. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions
# a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver b) can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver 559. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying pressure a) to the control wheel
b) to the control column c) to the rudder pedals
560. On a modern aircraft about to stall a) the outboard slats extend automatically b) engine power increases automatically c) the flaps retract automatically
561. Wing can spoilers be used?
a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn b) As ground spoilers on landing
# c) To assist the elevators
562. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb c) set the rad alt to 0 feet
563. Dutch Roll affects
a) pitch and roll simultaneously b) pitch and yaw simultaneously # c) yaw and roll simultaneously
564. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna
a) will move up b) will move down c) will not move
565. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna Page 64 - Mod 13
566. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass
# b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading
c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading only
567. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 degrees # b) 3 degrees c) 5 degrees
568. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called a) apparent error
# b) residual error c) index error
569. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) Parallax error # b) Surface reflection
c) Static to avoid dust attraction 570. Versine signal is governed by a) roll
# b) pitch c) yaw
571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by a) 4%
# b) 7% c) 10.321%
572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying electrical current is
a) 20 inches # b) 24 inches c) 28 inches
573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with
a) an inclinometer b) micrometer c) spirit level Page 65 - Mod 13
574. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by # a) Tachogenerator
b) Feedback from control surface c) Feedback from servo motor
575. When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight control surfaces are
a) down b) neutral
c) droop
576. Radar beamwidth improves a) range resolution
b) range accuracy # c) bearing resolution
577. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output voltage? a) 115V
b) 345V # c) 460V
578. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is the
a) opening dia. of pitot head
b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates c) external dia of pitot head
579. on a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication # a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment
b) it does not have any adjustment
c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments
580. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft,a preset potentiometer is fitted a) in series with the field winding
b) in parallel with the field winding c) in series with the generator output 581. When can wing spoilers be used?
a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn b) As ground spoilers on landing
c) To assist the elevators
582. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb c) set the rad alt to 0 feet
583. Dutch Roll affects
a) pitch and roll simultaneously b) pitch and yaw simultaneously c) yaw and roll simultaneously
584. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna
a) will move up b) will move down c) will not move
585. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna
586. When more than one D.R.Compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R.compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) Only the master compass reading and adjustment carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass.
# b) All reading and adjustments fo reach compass should be made simultaneously on each heading.
c) All reading and adjustment for each compass should be made at any one heading only.
587. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 Degree # b) 3 Degree c) 5 Degree
588. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called a) apparent error
# b) residual error c) index error
589. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
# b) surface reflection.
c) static to avoid dust attraction. 590. Versine signal is governed by a) roll
# b) pitch c) yaw
Page 67 - Mod 13
591. Increasing the real load primarily a) decreases frequency
b) decreases output voltage
# c) increases output voltage and increases frequency 592. Inductive reactive load causes
a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated # c) increase in torque only
593. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of a) apparent power from the generator that does work
b) reactive power from the generator that does work # c) real power from the generator that does work
594. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by
# a) angle of swash plate b) IDG
c) restriction valve
595. Differential protection in an AC system protects against a) A reverse current flowing from the battery
b) short circuits
# c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be # a) stationary
c) rotating at Nsync
597. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to # a) enable generators to be paralleled b) prevent engine overload
c) maintain constant load on the generator
598. in a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is
# a) activation of the time delay circuit b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs c) energise the bus tie relay
599. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the
# a) CSD drives shaft had sheared
b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated c) bus tie interlock is inoperative
Page 68 - Mod 13
600. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will
a) decrease and amperage output increases b) increases and amperage output increases
# c) remain constant and amperage output increases 601. Battery trays are
a) metal for earthing purposes
# b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte
602. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in a) parallel
b) series
# c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option 603. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector? a) Ground or earth
# c) Positive to external power relay
604. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is a) 71 degrees F
# b) 144 Degrees F c) 144 Degrees C
605. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by # a) constant voltage
b) constant current
c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage
606. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA a) Chapter 24 Section 21
# b) Chapter 24 Section 31 c) Chapter 31 Section 21
607. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is
a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length # b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length Page 69 - Mod 13
608. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is # a) stationary
b) fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating
609. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by a) transformers and transistors
b) diodes and transformers # c) zeners and transistors
610. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by a) voltage coil
b) current coil
1. Flaps at landing position
a) decrease take off and landing speed b) decrease take off speed
# c) decrease landing speed 2. Lowering of the flaps # a) increases drag and lift b) increases drag
c) increases lift
3. Pushing the left rudder pedal
# a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing
4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF? a) Check of aircraft structure
b) Bonding and insulation tests
# c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment 5. What do ruddervators do?
# a) Control pitch and yaw b) Control pitch and roll c) Control yaw and roll
6. On a helicopter what is dragging?
a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges # b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground
7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft? a) Elevators
b) Ailerons # c) Elevons
8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add # a) an internal doubler
b) external doubler c) an intercostals
9. What does a trim tab do?
# a) Eases control loading for pilot
b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot Page 1 - Mod 13
10. How does a balance tab move?
a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to b) In the same direction a small amount
# c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to 11. Satellite transmits updates on every
a) 13th orbit b) 9th orbit c) 2nd orbit
12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on a) DC bus
b) AC bus
# c) GND services
13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between a) modulator and power amp
# b) local oscillator and modulator c) local oscillator and demodulator
14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to a) 0
b) 090 # c) 180
15. What is power at pulse? a) Peak power
b) Pulsed power c) Average power
16. What frequency increases radar relative range a) Long
# b) Short
c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change 17. If radar pulse is reduced there is
a) increased relative range b) reduced relative range # c) no effect
18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be
a) 80 ohm b) 160 ohm c) 0 ohm
Page 2 - Mod 13
19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you # a) 3 ft error
b) 6ft error c) 12 foot error
20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the a) widest width
# b) narrowest width
c) number of joints and bends
21. Which side of the pilot is the collective? # a) Left
b) Right
c) In-between legs
22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter? # a) Increases lift
b) No effect
c) Increases thrust
a) Pfifer damper b) Swashplate c) Scissor levers
24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor? # a) Weight of blade
b) Engine and gearbox c) Fineness ratio
25. Relative velocity of rotor
# a) increases at fwd travelling blade b) increases at retreating blade c) is equal for all blades
26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling? a) Increase
# b) Decrease c) No effect
27. How many satellites required for GNS? a) 8
# b) 4
c) 6 90o apart Page 3 - Mod 13
28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs
a) topping up with distilled water b) replacing
# c) recharging
29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight? # a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit
b) No effect
c) Electrical systems shut down
30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway a) 20 degrees
b) 15 degrees c) 10 degrees
31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that
a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected
# c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure 32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?
a) QDH # b) QDM c) QDR
33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros
# b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers
34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from a) roll errors
b) localiser deviation errors # c) heading errors
35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate # c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting 36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated
a) only when autopilot is engaged # b) after glideslope capture c) at any time
Page 4 - Mod 13
37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the
b) intercept height c) alert height
38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference
b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters
# c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters 39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by
a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway # c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway
40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have
a) a decision height of about 50 feet # b) no decision height
c) a decision height depending upon the RVR 41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to
a) assist the aerodynamic response b) produce a co-ordinated turn # c) block the Dutch roll frequency
42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect
a) all channels
# b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach 43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by a) differentiating deviation signal
b) integrating deviation signal # c) integrating course error
44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD
c) V/S and ALT ARM Page 5 - Mod 13
45. Which modes are incompatible a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
# b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD c) HDG + V/S HOLD
46. To carry out an autopilot check first a) switch off all power
# b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed c) switch on NAV receivers
47. FAIL PASSIVE means
a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system # b) system self monitors, failure does affect system c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland
48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would a) fly a circle
b) increase its drift angle # c) fly parallel to the beam
49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in
# a) JAR AWO b) CAIPs c) BCARs
50. VOR capture can be determined by
a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial # b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals
c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial 51. Versine is generated by
# b) synchros resolvers
c) control synchro transformers 52. Automatic trim is used to # a) maintain level flight
b) prevents standing loads on the elevator
c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron Page 6 - Mod 13
53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by a) measured radio deviation
# b) rate of change of radio deviation c) rate of change of course
54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure
a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement
# b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged
55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for # a) maintaining a computed EPR
b) controlling to a maximum thrust c) correction minor speed deviations 56. The GA mode is usually initiated by a) pressing a button on the control wheel # b) pressing a button on thrust levers
c) making a selection on the mode control panel 57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode
a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation
b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced # c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe 58. To know the valid data base on the FMS
a) perform a BITE check
c) call up the relevant current status
59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by # a) yaw rate gyro signals
b) aileron to rudder crossfeed c) aileron to elevator crossfeed
60. A yaw damper system operates on a) all yaw frequencies
b) only mid range frequencies # c) low range frequencies
61. A GCR will trip if what is detected? a) Under frequency and over frequency b) Over frequency and under current c) Over current and over frequency Page 7 - Mod 13
62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables? a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms
b) 25 ohms # c) 50 ohms
63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver) a) scan at a lower rate
b) use shorter bursts c) use longer bursts
64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator # a) the resistor is in series with the field b) parallel with the field
c) in series with the voltage coil
65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft
# a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4 b) JAR OPS
66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed
b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/ shut off # c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed 67. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have?
a) 180 degrees b) 120 degrees # c) 140 degrees
68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can be done
# a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft
b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench c) at the manufacturers only
69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid battery?
# a) The temperature b) The ambient pressure c) The ambient humidity Page 8 - Mod 13
70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided # a) to prevent precipitation static build up
b) to prevent the wire from corroding c) to prevent the wire from chafing
71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by a) the use of special conductive paint
# b) bonding strips
c) special conducting or non-conducting grease 72. An elevator tab moves down
# a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy b) to make the nose go down
73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking # a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed
b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same c) any single cell as all the others will be the same
74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet a) 400ft
b) 160ft c) 80ft
75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces # b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by
a) the central warning computer (CWC) b) the electronic interface units (EIU)
# c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS) 77. What type of memory do CMCs have?
a) Volatile # b) Non-volatile c) Hard
78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters? a) To provide a balance for CofG
# b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor Page 9 - Mod 13
79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed? # a) Higher than its IAS
b) Lower than its IAS c) The same as its IAS