# a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD
100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to a) assist with localiser tracking
b) assist with glide slope tracking
# c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down
101. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that
a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected
c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of signal failure 102. The effective gain of the glide path receiver
a) is increased as the aircraft descends b) remains constant as the aircraft descends
# c) is decreased as the aircraft descends
103. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by a) pitch rate gyros
# b) radio altimeters c) vertical accelerometers
104. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is a) fail passive
# b) fail operational c) fail redundant Page 12 - Mod 13
105. on touchdown, auto pilot
# a) remains engaged ready for G/A b) drives the throttles forward c) disconnects after a short time
106. When will the decision height aural warning sound a) at D.H.
# b) before D.H.
c) after D.H.
107. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by a) the area navigation system
# b)the runway localiser c) the airfield marker beacon
108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from
# a) radio altimeter b) the glide slope receiver c) the localiser receiver
109. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,
a) fail passive
# b) fail operational c) fail redundant
110. A fail passive system in the event of failure will a) produce a significant out of trim condition
# b) produce no significant out of trim condition c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically
111. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a a) simplex system
# b) duplex system c) dual-dual system
112. The two parameters used for category classification are a) radio height/runway visual range
b) localiser and glideslope
# c) decision height and runway visual range
113. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?
a) Decision height
# b) Radio altimeter c) Glideslope signal Page 13 - Mod 13 114. CAT-3b allows
a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR
# b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters
115. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim
# b) continue to control after any first fault c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim
116. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?
# a) Nose down bias
b) Nose up bias c) No signal
117. What controls are used in response to the PVD displays?
a) Ailerons b) Throttles
# c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals 118. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents a) distance to go
# b) ground speed and distance to go c) take off speed and distance to go
119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
# b) Longitudinal c) Normal
120. Versine is used in which channel?
# a) Pitch b) Roll c) Yaw
121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means your speed has
a) increased
# b) decreased c) is the same
122. A Master Warning is issued when
# a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs c) engine fire and generator trip occurs Page 14 - Mod 13
123. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is
# a) 50 milliohms
b) 1 ohms
c) 1M - 100,000 ohms
124. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors
# b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead
125. Sparking in a generator would be caused by
# a) low spring tension b) bedding of brushes
c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis
126. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?
# a) Visual inspections b) Insulation testing c) CMC fault indications
127. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit?
a) Short the terminals together
b) Put a set resistance across the terminals
# c) Leave the terminals open circuit
128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right
129. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a
a) Triplex system b) Duplex system
# c) Simplex system
130. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences would be
# a) painted in a conductive paint
b) painted in a non-conductive paint c) bonded to the primary structure
131. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
# a) 50 ohms b) 20 ohms
c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively Page 15 - Mod 13
132. TAS uses which inputs a) Pitot and Static
b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature
# c) Mach and Temp
133. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?
a) On the wing
b) Under the Fuselage
# c) Either side of the Fuselage
134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle of attack?
# a) Tend to increase b) Tend to decrease c) Stay the same
135. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim c) remains in the previous position
136. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause a) poor channel selectivity
b) poor audio output c) poor volume output
137. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning?
a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter
# b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft c) A low range altimeter and GPS
138. Alert Height is when
a) a decision of whether to land is made
# b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made c) an alert of the ground proximity is made
139. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?
a) Placards in the cockpit
# b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding c) Crew retraining
140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water
b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found c) a leak test is never required
Page 16 - Mod 13
141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of
# a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively c) 1090 MHz
142. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus
a) 1 degree
# b) 3 degree c) 5 degree
143. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of a) 000
# b) 045 c) 090
144. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced a) DC generators
# b) AC generators
c) AC & DC generators
145. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the
# a) spoiler
b) leading edge flaps c) trailing edge flaps
146. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of a) 10 degree
b) 110 degree
# c) 50 degree
147. Stall warning will be given at speeds
# a) that are higher than stall speed b) that are lower than stall speed c) at the actual stall speed
148. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft?
a) Turning on and off the NAV lights
# b) Turning off the anti-collision lights c) Flashing the landing light
149. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at
# a) 1500 ft b) 2500 ft c) 3500 ft
Page 17 - Mod 13
150. FADEC system gets its power supply from
a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator
# b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator c) emergency Batt bus
151. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to
# a) excessive charging current b) insufficient charging current c) excessive charging voltage
152. An autopilot interlock circuit is to
a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists b) disconnect the system if a fault appears
# c) both a & b
153. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a a) green colour
# b) amber c) red colour
154. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is a) 131.55
# b) 121.5 c) 118.00
155. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out a) on the ground only
b) continuously when the systems are working c) only in the air
156. The electrical A/H has a movement of a) 85 degree in pitch and roll
b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch
# c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch
157. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to
# a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power b) remove/disconnect electrical power c) pull the appropriate CB
158. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in a) CAAIPs
b) Maintenance Manual
# c) JAR OPS Page 18 - Mod 13
159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that VHF Com cover?
a) 100 nm
# b) 120 nm c) 140 nm
160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the a) 180 degree radial
# b) 090 degree radial c) 275 degree radial
161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is
# a) an accelerometer b) a gyroscope
c) a tachogenerator
162. The units of vibration are measured in a) phons
b) decibels
# c) relative amplitude
163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for a) maximum flow rate
b) minimum flow rate c) cannot be adjusted
164. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between
# a) true north and magnetic north b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading c) the compass north and magnetic north 165. GPWS mode 1 is excessive
a) terrain closure b) rate of ascent
# c) rate of descent
166. How many bits make up the mode "S" address a) 12
b) 24 c) 36
167. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the
# a) square of the speed b) square root of the speed c) cube root of the speed Page 19 - Mod 13
168. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of
# a) capsule elasticity b) capsule shape
c) non linear pressure/height relationship
169. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause a) aircraft to underbank
# b) aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
170. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal
# a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency 171. During flare mode autothrottle will
# a) retard throttles to idle b) disconnect autothrottle c) select reverse thrust 172. A CSD is monitored for a) low temp and high oil pressure
# b) high temp and low oil pressure c)
173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades pitch angle?
# a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change
174. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected
a) it is centralized by a spring
b) its control is maintained by electric trim c)
175. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes?
a) 115v ac b) 200v ac
# c) High voltage stepped up
176. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is
# a) zero
b) full scale deflection c) centre scale
Page 20 - Mod 13
177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would a) increase capacitive reactance
# b) increase capacitance c) decrease capacitance 178. Float fuel gauge system is a) adjusted when tanks are full b) adjusted when tanks are empty c) cannot be adjusted
179. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are
# a) bulkheads b) longerons c) frame
180. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by
# a) excessive electrical loading b) high charge current
c) low charge current
181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1.
a) This is normal
b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted c) You would adjust the Tx
182. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out a) damping and periodicity checks
# b) damping and pivot friction check c) damping and alignment checks
183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging shows substantially lower value.
a) Cell is defective
b) You top up the cell with distilled water c) You replace the cell
184. Suppressor line is required for a) ATC and DME only
b) TCAs only
# c) all L band equipments including TCAS 185. Differential GPS requires
a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters Page 21 - Mod 13
186. GPS has
a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits
187. When the captain calls attendant a) a high low chine and pink light comes on b) a low chine and blue light comes on c) a high chine and pink light comes on
188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is received a) a designated light comes on
b) a selcall light along with chine comes on
c) a chime sounds in the cockpit
189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail a) the authority of elevators not effected
# b) the up movement authority is effected c) the down movement authority is effected 190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost
a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift
# b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway c) aircraft moves in a circle
191. IDG output voltage
a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.
# b) voltage is regulated by GCU c) voltage is regulated by IDG
192. The over-station sensor is activated by a) radio deviation signal
# b) rate of radio deviation signal c) deviation and course error
193. When moving the control column
# a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal
c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal
---194. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown
a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force b) there is an increases tail plane up-force
# c) there is an increased tailplane down-force Page 22 - Mod 13
195. Equivalent airspeed is
a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility
# c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility 196. in an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged
# a) after reverse thrust is applied
b) after affixed period of the time after landing c) manually after landing
197. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon?
# a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll
c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll 198. Acceleration error produces
a) a false indication of left bank
# b) a false indication of right bank c) a false indication of climb
199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through a) the centre of rotor disc
b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis c) a line parallel to rotor axis
200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 a) Door
# b) Left wing c) Right wing 201. Shock stall a) is a flap down stall
# b) occurs at high speeds c) occurs at low speeds
202. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by a) flapping
b) dragging
# c) centrifugal force 203. During a turn a) left rudder to be used b) right rudder to be used
# c) rudder to be maintained in centre position
Page 23 - Mod 13
204. Align light flashes during alignment
# a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off b) It is attracting operators attention
c) It is indicating progress of alignment
205. During decent with power on in a helicopter a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter
# b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter
206. to transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wire system
# a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll
c) Synchros are used
207. The compensator in a fuel tank measures a) specific gravity of fuel
# b) K value of fuel c) fuel quantity
208. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrifugal force
a) Heading and Deviation
# b) Course error and Deviation
c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation
209. in modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled by
# a) BPCU
b) PCDU (power control distribution unit) c) SPCU
210. As you approach supersonic
# a) total drag is increased b) lift is reduced
c) thrust is reduced
211. Range resolution is obtained by a) High PRF
# b) Shorter pulse width c) Shorter beam width
212. in weather radar, short range targets are missed by
# a) Larger pulse width b) Larger beam width c) Larger frequency Page 24 - Mod 13
213. When the trailing edge flap is
a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change
# c) CP move rearward
214. During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails a) Auto throttle disengages
# b) Throttle hold is annunciated c) Fail light illuminates
215. Flight director command bars indicate
# a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred b) Direction in which aircraft is flying
c) Direction in which the beacon is 216. Mode S has
a) 12 address bits
# b) 24 address bits c) 36 address bits
217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are a) In phase
b) Opposite phase
# c) Phase quadrature
218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is a) 80 ft
b) 300 ft c) 500 ft
219. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is
a) 3 inch b) 6 inch
# c) 9 inch
220. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester a) tester reads zero
# b) tester reads full scale c) tester would be zero centred
221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by a) a thick metallic bonding strip
# b) a corrugated bonding jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends Page 25 - Mod 13
222. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system
a) 0.5 ohm b) 1 ohm
# c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less 223. Mach trim in some aircraft assists
# a) longitudinal stability b) lateral stability
c) vertical stability
224. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed
# a) it must be installed on LH side b) it must be installed on RH side
c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side 225. Main electric trim is controlled by a) a switch on control wheel
b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel c)
226. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be a) higher mach number
# b) lower mach number c) not effected
227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective a) one CDU blanks
b) both CDU blanks
# c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place
228. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would
a) indicate climb
# b) indicate decent c) not be affected
229. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure?
a) ASI b) VSI c) Altimeter Page 26 - Mod 13
230. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass a) is to rotate clockwise
b) is to rotate anticlockwise
c) It may be rotated either direction
231. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by a) Having filters in power supply lines
b) Separating the affected and affecting cables c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit
232. during compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is
a) 1 degree
b) 5 degree c) 10 degree
233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes the decision?
a) The one with the higher address b) The one with the smaller address c) Neither changes the decision
234. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot?
# a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 100%
235. in helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is prevented by
a) synchros attached to the control
# b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control c) a lock on the cockpit control
236. Helicopter blades are a) highly cambered
b) reverse cambered
# c) Symmetrical 237. GPS antenna is a) vertically polarized b) horizontally polarized c) lincomp polarization
238. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is a) to the left
b) to the right
# c) in the centre Page 27 - Mod 13
239. An autopilot computer
# a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR