Human Anatomy, 7E Marieb Test Bank

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Human Anatomy, 7e (Marieb/Mitchell/Smith) Chapter 1 The Human Body: An Orientation 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Use the diagram below to answer the following questions.

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2) Which letter indicates the umbilical region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

3) Which letter indicates the hallux? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

4) Which letter indicates the inguinal region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

5) Which letter indicates the femoral region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D

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Figure 1.2

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Which letter indicates the lumbar region?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

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7) Which letter indicates the acromial region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7

8) Which letter indicates the scapular region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

9) Which letter indicates the popliteal region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

10) Which letter indicates the occipital region? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7

11) The chest is ________ to the abdomen. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: A

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12) The sternal region is ________ to the scapular region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7-8

13) The knee is ________ to the foot. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: D

14) The brain is ________ to the skull. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: E

15) The thumb is ________ to the index finger. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: B

16) Muscles are ________ to the skin. A) superior

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17) The axillary region is ________ to the sternum. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: B

18) The lip is ________ to the chin. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: A

19) The eye is ________ to the occipital region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: C

20) The acromial region is ________ to the scapular region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: A

21) The gluteal region is ________ to the popliteal region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: A

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22) The femoral region is ________ to the plantar region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: D

23) The heart is ________ to the sternum. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: E

24) The pubic area is ________ to the gluteal region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: C

25) The umbilical region is ________ to the lumbar region. A) superior B) lateral C) anterior D) proximal E) deep Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7-8 26) The smallest living unit is A) a cell.

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27) Which branch of anatomy studies the structural changes that occur as one ages? A) developmental anatomy B) pathological anatomy C) regional anatomy D) surface anatomy Answer: A

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2

28) Which organ system includes the pancreas, thymus, testes, and pituitary gland? A) integumentary

B) endocrine C) reproductive D) lymphatic Answer: B

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 &5

29) A coronal section through the human body can A) pass through both the nose and the occipital region. B) pass through both ears.

C) provide mirror right and left images. D) lie in a horizontal plane.

Answer: B

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7, 9

30) During the process of ________, noncellular artifacts can be introduced into histology samples. A) time B) observation C) staining D) photography Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14 31) The cervical region is the A) thigh.

B) calf. C) neck. D) head. Answer: C

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32) The "CT" in "CT scanning" stands for A) cut transversely.

B) Charles Thorgaard, the inventor's name. C) correlated thickness.

D) computed tomography. Answer: D

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16

33) What is the function of serous membranes?

A) They act like wrapping paper to hold visceral organs together. B) They contain gland cells that secrete mucus.

C) They halt the spread of infection.

D) They reduce friction so that viscera move freely. Answer: D

34) The dorsal hollow nerve cord

A) develops into the brain and spinal cord. B) is a primitive supporting rod.

C) contains the notochord.

D) is the same as the human backbone. Answer: A

35) The main purpose of fixation is A) to preserve the tissue.

B) to mend breaks in tissue sections. C) to make an organ easier to section. D) to stick tissue sections to a glass slide. Answer: A

36) A histologist examines a specimen that has an epithelium overlying some smooth muscle. This specimen is part of

A) a molecule. B) a cell. C) a tissue. D) an organ. Answer: D

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37) An example of a tissue in the body is A) the stomach. B) a muscle cell. C) epithelium. D) a macromolecule. Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4

38) An example of an organ is A) a fat cell.

B) the intestine. C) epithelium.

D) the cardiovascular system (but not the circulatory system). Answer: B

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39) Which organ system consists of vessels that do not carry blood, but pick up fluids (and some cells) that are leaked from the blood?

A) urinary B) endocrine C) integumentary D) lymphatic Answer: D

40) Large molecules such as proteins are called A) cells.

B) macromolecules. C) multi-atom units. D) cellular organelles. Answer: B

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4

41) Which organ system covers the external surface of the body, but not the internal surface of the mouth? A) lymphatic B) digestive C) integumentary D) cutaneous Answer: C

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42) Which organ system includes the spinal cord? A) skeletal B) muscular C) nervous D) integumentary Answer: C

43) The height of an average person's trunk, from neck to perineum, is about A) 5 meters.

B) 10 centimeters. C) 1000 µm. D) 1 meter. Answer: D

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3

44) Which statement concerning the anatomical position is FALSE? A) The palms face anteriorly.

B) The toes point anteriorly, but the fingers point inferiorly. C) The knees, elbow, and neck are straight (not bent). D) The person is lying down, as straight as possible. Answer: D

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6

45) Bilateral symmetry can apply to objects as well as to animal bodies. Which of the following capital letters of the alphabet is not bilaterally symmetrical?

A) A B) M C) L D) O Answer: C

46) Which structure is not covered by visceral serosa? A) lungs

B) ribs C) stomach D) uterus Answer: B

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47) The femoral region is the A) buttocks. B) hip. C) thigh. D) toes. Answer: C

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 48) The inguinal region lies A) anterior to the elbow joint. B) on the anterior neck.

C) where the thigh joins the trunk. D) on the external genitals.

Answer: C

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49) The perineal region is the A) side of the leg.

B) region between the external genitals and the anus. C) point of the shoulder.

D) superior part of the gluteal region. Answer: B

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

50) Which structure is not present in the mediastinum? A) esophagus

B) heart C) lung D) trachea Answer: C

51) A frontal plane is the same as a ________ plane. A) midsagittal

B) transverse C) coronal D) sagittal Answer: C

52) Another name for the midsagittal plane is A) parasagittal.

B) oblique. C) coronal. D) median. Answer: D

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53) What point or structure in the body is located farthest laterally? (Hint: Questions always refer to the body in the anatomical position.)

A) the coxal region B) ear

C) little toe D) tip of thumb Answer: D

54) Although transmission electron microscopy is usually used for high-magnification viewing, it is certainly possible to use it at low magnification as well. That is, one can produce similar micrographs of tissues taken by light microscopy and electron microscopy at the same magnification. Even at the same magnification, however, you can easily tell the two kinds of micrographs apart. How?

A) The image in the electron micrograph is still sharper.

B) Tissue viewed by electron microscopy is colored, whereas light micrographs are always black and white (and shades of gray).

C) Tissue for light microscopy cannot be fixed (no fixation). D) Tissue for electron microscopy cannot be sectioned. Answer: A

55) What is the main advantage of MRI as a medical imaging technique? A) It is safe.

B) The patient feels less pain during the procedure than with any other imaging technique. C) It is very inexpensive.

D) It shows soft tissues very clearly. Answer: D

56) The extremities are the same as A) the ears.

B) the fingers and toes. C) the limbs.

D) all structures in the head. Answer: C

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58) A physician viewing an injury to the back would look at the patient's ________ side. A) lateral B) posterior C) cranial D) ventral Answer: B

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8

59) The ________ body cavity contains the brain. A) dorsal

B) ventral C) serous D) lateral Answer: A

60) The roots of anatomical terminology lie mainly in A) German and French.

B) Latin and Greek. C) Esperanto.

D) Russian and Old English. Answer: B

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6

61) The ________ cavity contains the heart and lungs. A) abdominopelvic

B) dorsal C) thoracic D) lateral Answer: C

62) Hormones are regulatory proteins that are secreted by the ________ system. A) urinary

B) endocrine C) integumentary D) lymphatic Answer: B

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63) Which organ system keeps blood constantly supplied with oxygen, removes carbon dioxide, and contains many air tubes?

A) urinary B) endocrine C) circulatory D) respiratory Answer: D

64) The elimination of nitrogenous wastes from body fluids is regulated by the ________ system. A) urinary B) endocrine C) integumentary D) lymphatic Answer: A

65) Which structures are evidence of the vertebrate characteristic of segmentation? A) branches of the blood vessels

B) multiple joints of fingers

C) subdivisions of the gastrointestinal tract D) vertebral column

Answer: D

66) Which statement about visceral serosa is false? A) It clings to the surface of organs.

B) It is continuous with the membrane that covers the outer body wall. C) It is deep to the parietal serosa.

D) It lines the internal surface of hollow organs. Answer: D

67) How many centimeters are there in a meter? A) 10

B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 1,000,000

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68) Which organ is not found in the ventral body cavity? A) heart B) liver C) spinal cord D) urinary bladder Answer: C

69) The ankle lies ________ to the thigh. A) distal

B) proximal C) lateral D) inferior Answer: A

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8

70) The axillary artery is found in the region of the A) posterior surface of the knee.

B) vertebral column. C) armpit.

D) long axis of any limb. Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

71) As an anatomical region, lumbar refers to A) the infero-medial aspect of the back. B) part of the lower limb.

C) the wrist. D) the breast. Answer: A

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 72) The buccal region is the A) cheeks.

B) waist.

C) calf of the leg.

D) underside of the foot. Answer: A

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 73) The popliteal region is A) the side of the leg. B) in the cervical region.

C) the posterior surface of the knee. D) the inferior part of the gluteal region. Answer: C

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74) The coxal region is

A) the same as the inguinal region. B) the skin over the "tailbone." C) the hip.

D) the posterior surface of the wrist. Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

75) Which structure is located entirely within the right upper quadrant? A) appendix

B) gallbladder C) spleen D) stomach Answer: B

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13 1.2 True/False Questions

1) Serous cavities include the pleural cavity. Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12 2) Serous cavities contain air. Answer: FALSE

3) The peritoneal cavity is a serous cavity. Answer: TRUE

4) EM has much greater resolution than LM. Answer: TRUE

5) The dorsal body cavity is subdivided into a cranial cavity and a vertebral cavity. Answer: TRUE

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8) MRI techniques can show only images that are hard and deflect the X-rays. Answer: FALSE

9) Ultrasound techniques are used to image a fetus because they are less damaging than other techniques.

Answer: TRUE

10) Angiography imaging is used primarily in the study of blood supply to the heart wall and brain.

Answer: TRUE

11) Most adults are between 1.5 and 2 meters tall. Answer: TRUE

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6

12) All vertebrate embryos have a dorsal hollow nerve cord. Answer: TRUE

13) A transverse plane could cut the head off the body! Answer: TRUE

14) In anatomical position, the palms of the hands face medially toward the thighs. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6

15) The mediastinum contains the trachea and lungs. Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 1.3 Short Answer Questions

1) Describe the terms proximal and distal.

Answer: Proximal means closer to the point of attachment to the main part of the body; distal is farther from the point of attachment.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8

2) Describe the location of the femoral region in relation to the crural region. Answer: The femoral region is proximal to the crural region.

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3) Describe the location of the brachial region in relation to the pollex. Answer: The brachial region is proximal to the pollex.

4) In humans, what term is synonymous with posterior? Answer: dorsal

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8

5) Clinicians refer to ________ anatomy when locating blood vessels to draw blood, feeling pulses, and avoiding nerves while giving injections.

Answer: surface Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2

6) In humans, the region between the anus and the external genitals is the ________ region. Answer: perineal

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

7) The olecranal region is posterior to what region? Answer: antecubital

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

8) The head, neck, and trunk comprise the ________ region. Answer: axial

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

9) What is the anatomical term for the thumb? Answer: pollex

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7

10) One could say that the forearm is ________ to the brachial region. Answer: distal

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8

11) Cutting the body along the median plane produces a ________ section Answer: midsagittal

12) One could describe the scalp as being ________ to the skull. Answer: superficial

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14) The measurement typically used for structures within a cell is the ________. Answer: micrometer

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6

15) The ________ system is involved in immunity. Answer: lymphatic

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 4-5 1.4 Essay Questions

1) Identify each of the systems that are found in the arm.

Answer: The arm contains elements of the skeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, muscular, lymphatic, and integumentary systems.

2) Which of the organ systems found in the arm are not found in the leg? Answer: None

3) List the six unique features found in all vertebrates at some stage of their life.

Answer: Tube-within-a-tube body plan, bilateral symmetry, dorsal hollow nerve cord, notochord and vertebrae, segmentation, and pharyngeal pouches.

4) In adult humans, what remnants of segmentation remain?

Answer: The ribs and the vertebrae, with their segmental spinal nerves, are remnants of segmentation.

5) Select from the following techniques the best method for assessing brain function in a stroke patient: X-ray imaging, sonography, MRI. Explain why the other choices are not the best choice. Answer: MRI is the best method of assessing brain function. X-rays do not image soft tissues well or with high resolution. They also produce only two-dimensional images of a structure. Sonography cannot be used to study the brain because sound waves cannot pass through the body skull.

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Human Anatomy, 7e (Marieb/Mitchell/Smith) Chapter 2 The Living Units

2.1 Multiple Choice Questions

Figure 2.1

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Which letter indicates the rough endoplasmic reticulum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D

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3) Which letter indicates the microvilli? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C

4) Which letter indicates the mitochondrion? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B

5) Which letter indicates the Golgi apparatus? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E

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Figure 2.2

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 6) Which letter indicates the DNA molecule?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A

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8) Which letter indicates a nucleosome? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C

9) Which letter indicates histones? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B

10) Which letter indicates the metaphase chromosome? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E

11) This organelle is involved in production of cellular energy. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria

E) peroxisome Answer: D

12) This organelle is characterized by folded membranes called cristae. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

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13) When a phagocytic white blood cell ingests a foreign bacterial cell, the vesicle fuses with this organelle.

A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome

E) peroxisome Answer: B

14) This membranous organelle is the site of protein synthesis for proteins that are secreted by the cell.

E) peroxisome Answer: C

15) This organelle detoxifies a number of toxic substances. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

E) peroxisome Answer: E

16) Cisternae of this organelle are continuous with the nuclear envelope. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

E) peroxisome Answer: C

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18) This membranous organelle contains oxidase and catalase enzymes. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

19) These organelles are often called the "demolition crew" of the cell. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

20) This organelle primarily modifies products from the rough ER, and it resembles a stack of hollow saucers, one cupped inside the next.

E) peroxisome Answer: A

21) This organelle is primarily a sac of powerful digestive enzymes called acid hydrolases. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

22) This organelle is defective in the inherited disorder Tay-Sachs disease. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

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23) This organelle is numerous in liver and kidney cells. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

24) This organelle produces ATP molecules. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

25) This organelle contains a single DNA molecule and is capable of self-replication. A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome

26) Mitosis refers only to nuclear division. Separation of the entire cell following mitosis is A) meiosis.

B) karyokinesis. C) cytokinesis. D) telophase. Answer: C

27) Phospholipids of the plasma membrane are arranged A) around a central layer of cholesterol.

B) in a single layer with polar heads facing outwards.

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28) Which of the following cytoskeleton elements are the largest in diameter? A) microtubules B) microfilaments C) intermediate filaments D) centrioles Answer: A

29) Which of the following statements about integral proteins in the plasma membrane is false? A) Most extend all the way through the membrane.

B) Some attach to the glycocalyx.

C) They determine which molecules are transported through the membrane. D) They are more abundant by volume than the membrane phospholipids. Answer: D

30) Which type of endocytosis ingests the most specific type of molecule? A) fluid-phase endocytosis

B) phagocytosis C) pinocytosis

D) receptor-mediated endocytosis Answer: D

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 27 31) Hormones are secreted by A) phagocytosis.

B) pinocytosis. C) exocytosis. D) osmosis. Answer: C

32) Of the following, the only organelle that has a double membrane structure is the A) centriole.

B) Golgi apparatus. C) endoplasmic reticulum. D) mitochondrion.

Answer: D

33) Functions of the Golgi apparatus include all of the following except A) synthesis of lysosomes.

B) DNA replication.

C) plasma membrane formation. D) production of secretory granules. Answer: B

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34) Which of the following statements about the rough endoplasmic reticulum is false? A) It consists of stacked envelopes called cisternae.

B) It makes the digestive enzymes contained in the lysosomes. C) It stores lipids as inclusions.

D) It makes the integral proteins of the cell membrane. Answer: C

35) Which of the following is not a cytoskeleton element? A) microtubule

B) microfilament

C) intermediate filament D) centriole

Answer: D

36) Which type of proteins are required for exocytosis? A) caveolin

B) coatomer proteins C) clathrin

D) SNARE proteins Answer: D

37) In chromatin, the DNA molecule wraps around proteins called A) nucleotides.

B) codons.

C) integral protein. D) histones.

Answer: D

38) In the cell life cycle, DNA is replicated during A) interphase G1.

B) interphase S. C) prophase I. D) prophase II. Answer: B

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39) The longest arrays of microtubules that assemble from each centrosome during prophase form filaments called

A) mitotic spindle fibers. B) kinetochores.

C) asters.

D) the nuclear envelope. Answer: A

40) During anaphase, motor proteins attached to mitotic spindle fibers serve to A) pull the chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.

B) pull together the replicated chromosomal strands. C) re-form the nuclear envelope.

D) form the aster. Answer: A

41) The ________ face of the Golgi apparatus is ________ to receive spherical vesicles from the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

A) cis; convex B) trans; concave C) cis; flattened D) trans; convex Answer: A

42) Which membranous organelle stores calcium and is a primary site of lipid metabolism? A) Golgi apparatus

B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) mitochondrion

D) peroxisome Answer: B

43) Which organelle is important in neutralizing free radicals? A) Golgi apparatus

B) lysosome C) mitochondrion D) peroxisome Answer: D

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44) Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of the nuclear envelope? A) separation of nucleoplasm and cytoplasm

B) regulation of passage of substances into and out of the cell membrane C) transcription of DNA

D) protein synthesis Answer: A

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 34 45) Peroxisomes function to

A) synthesize and degrade hydrogen peroxide. B) store cellular free radicals.

C) produce pigments.

D) regulate membrane permeability. Answer: A

46) Dyneins and kinesins are motor proteins that ________.

A) enable a cell to send out and retract extensions called pseudopods. B) move organelles along microtubules through the cytoplasm. C) are molecular components of telomeres

D) resist pulling forces that are placed on cells. Answer: B

47) Cell division is analogous to

A) two buildings duplicating their parts and fusing.

B) a building duplicating its blueprint and then forming a new building by splitting in two. C) a building forming another building by random accumulation of materials.

D) a building forming another building through a loss of some of its parts. Answer: B

48) The plasma membrane is important for all the following reasons except A) it determines what substances enter and exit the cell.

B) it separates the ECF from the ICF.

C) it acts as a site for cell-to-cell interaction and recognition. D) it is an important site for DNA transcription.

Answer: D

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50) Materials that are to be exocytosed by cells are enclosed in vesicles synthesized by the A) nucleosome. B) ribosome. C) Golgi apparatus. D) mitochondrion. Answer: C

51) Which of the following does not pass through nuclear pores? A) chromatin

B) messenger RNA C) proteins

D) ribosomal RNA Answer: A

52) Which of the following is associated with protein synthesis? A) mitochondria

B) ribosomes C) chloroplasts

D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B

53) Ribosomes may be either free within the cytoplasm or bound to a membrane system known as the

A) Golgi apparatus.

B) microtubule organizing center. C) cytoskeleton.

D) rough endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: D

54) Which is not part of interphase? A) G1

B) G2 C) M D) S Answer: C

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55) Embedded in the plasma membrane of cells, cholesterol molecules act to A) stabilize the membrane.

B) make the membrane more resistant to freezing. C) destabilize the membrane, leading to heart attacks. D) participate in pinocytosis.

Answer: A

56) The endocytotic process in which small vesicles of fluid are brought into the cell is called A) phagocytosis.

B) pinocytosis. C) exocytosis. D) xenocytosis. Answer: B

57) The double membrane structure is unique to the A) lysosome.

B) peroxisome. C) mitochondrion. D) nucleolus. Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 32 58) Peroxisomes

A) are the toxic waste removal system of the cell. B) are involved in the production of ATP.

C) contain some of the code necessary for their own duplication. D) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell.

Answer: A

59) The stiffest elements of the cytoskeleton, analogous to the bones of the human body, are A) microtubules.

B) microfilaments.

C) intermediate filaments. D) the cytosol.

Answer: A

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61) The nuclear envelope is continuous with the rough ER, but it differs from the rough ER in that it

A) is not associated with ribosomes. B) has unique pores.

C) consists of two membranes separated by a space. D) consists of tubes, like the smooth ER.

Answer: B

62) Membrane-bound organelles have the same type of membrane as the plasma membrane except

A) for the absence of a glycocalyx. B) for the absence of cholesterol. C) the nonpolar tails face outward. D) they are all covered with ribosomes. Answer: A

63) In the process of phagocytosis, the organelles whose enzymes break down ingested foreign cells are the

A) nucleoli.

B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum. C) peroxisomes.

D) lysosomes. Answer: D

64) During mitosis, the kinetochore microtubules of the mitotic spindle A) attach to chromatids and align them at the metaphase plate.

B) push on the chromatids.

C) anchor the centriole to the cell membrane. D) push the two poles of the cell apart. Answer: A

65) The theory proposing that aging results from the effects of free radicals is primarily a theory of

A) wear and tear.

B) genetically programmed aging. C) progressive disorder of immunity. D) cross-linking of glucose.

Answer: A

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66) The cytoskeletal elements that are analogous to the muscles of the body which generate pseudopodia and contractile forces in conjunction with myosin are

A) microtubules. B) microfilaments.

C) intermediate filaments. D) integral proteins. Answer: B

67) Transcription of DNA requires the presence of A) centrosomes.

B) extended chromatin. C) histones.

D) nucleosomes. Answer: B

68) The process of cellular aging may involve all of the following except A) accumulated damage by free radicals.

B) decreased production of lysosomes. C) excessive metabolic rate.

D) progressive shortening of telomeres. Answer: B

69) During what phase of mitosis does the mitotic spindle break down and disappear? A) metaphase

B) anaphase C) telophase D) late prophase Answer: C

70) The cytoskeletal elements that form a ring to "squeeze" the two daughter cells apart during cytokinesis are

A) microtubules. B) microfilaments.

C) intermediate filaments. D) the microtrabecular lattice.

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71) During what phase of the cell cycle is the DNA duplicated? A) metaphase B) anaphase C) interphase D) prophase Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 37 72) The plasma membrane is

A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell. B) a single-layered membrane enclosing the plasma.

C) the membrane surrounding the cell.

D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae. Answer: C

73) The cell that gathers information and controls body functions is a A) macrophage.

B) fat cell. C) sperm cell. D) neuron. Answer: D

74) The temporary structures in the cytoplasm include all of the following except A) pigments.

B) glycosomes. C) lipid droplets. D) the Golgi apparatus. Answer: D

75) Which of the following is an inclusion, not an organelle? A) lysosome

B) microtubule C) mitochondrion D) glycosome Answer: D

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 2.2 True/False Questions

1) The smooth ER contains its own molecules of DNA. Answer: FALSE

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2) Hypercholesterolemia is an inherited disease in which the body's cells lack the protein receptors that bind to cholesterol-delivering LDLs.

Answer: TRUE

3) Ribosomes consist of two subunits, each surrounded by a membrane. Answer: FALSE

4) Peroxisomes are important in detoxification of a number of toxic substances, for instance, hydrogen peroxide.

Answer: TRUE

5) The nucleolus serves as the cell's ribosome-producing machine. Answer: TRUE

6) Microtubules are composed of actin. Answer: FALSE

7) Chromatin is composed of DNA wound around proteins known as actin. Answer: FALSE

8) An example of a type of cell with high rates of mitosis is a cell of the skin. Answer: TRUE

9) During the S phase, cells are characterized by rapid growth. Answer: FALSE

10) During the G1 phase, DNA is replicated in the cytoplasm. Answer: FALSE

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13) A mitotic spindle develops during early telophase of mitosis. Answer: FALSE

14) During anaphase, the chromosomes are moved to the center of the cell. Answer: FALSE

15) Cytokinesis is the physical division of the cytoplasm between the two newly formed cells that result from mitosis.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 2.3 Short Answer Questions

1) This phase is the physical division of the cytoplasm between the two newly formed cells that result from mitosis.

Answer: cytokinesis Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40

2) What is the transport mechanism by which substances move from the cytoplasm to the outside of the cell?

Answer: exocytosis Diff: 3 Page Ref: 28

3) Cell aging may be related to production of what charged molecules produced by the mitochondria?

Answer: radicals (free radicals) Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41

4) Identify the two different types of membrane-associated molecules that comprise the glycocalyx.

Answer: glycolipids and glycoproteins Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26

5) What would extended chromatin wrapped around a group of eight histones be called? Answer: a nucleosome

6) This is the phase in which a cell grows and carries on all its usual metabolic activities. Answer: G1 phase of interphase

7) These are the smallest living units in the body. Answer: cells

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8) This is the outermost continuous boundary of a human cell. Answer: plasma membrane (plasmalemma)

9) This is the name for the currently held theory describing the plasma membrane structure. Answer: fluid mosaic model

10) The phospholipid molecules of the plasma membrane are primarily composed of ________. Answer: a non-polar tail comprised of 2 fatty acid chains attached to a polar head

11) This network of rods running throughout the cytosol acts as a cell's "bones," "muscles," and "ligaments."

Answer: cytoskeleton Diff: 2 Page Ref: 32-33

12) This is the mechanism by which large particles and macromolecules enter a cell. Answer: endocytosis

13) This is the diffusion of water molecules across a membrane. Answer: osmosis

14) This is the type of protein involved in transport mechanisms across the plasma membrane. Answer: integral proteins (transmembrane proteins)

15) This is an inherited disease that leads to an accumulation of undigested glycolipids especially in the lysosomes of neurons.

Answer: Tay-Sachs disease Diff: 2 Page Ref: 31 2.4 Essay Questions

1) Differentiate phagocytosis from receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Answer: In phagocytosis, the cell extends pseudopods and engulfs the foreign protein/foreign cell, which is often degraded after the phagocytic vesicle fuses with a lysosome. In

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receptor-2) Describe how cellular differentiation results in structural variation among cells in the human body.

Answer: Cellular differentiation is the result of highly regulated gene activation/inactivation in the developing embryo. The products of gene activation are proteins. As the embryo develops, certain cells will begin to produce proteins that neighboring cells do not produce. As

development progresses, these unique protein "signatures" lead to differences in cellular function. For example, in muscle cells actin and myosin proteins predominate which results in their unique contractile properties.

3) Describe the two checkpoints that occur during interphase.

Answer: The G1 checkpoint ensures that the cell has reached a maximum size and has replicated the necessary organelles and enzymes to synthesize DNA. The G2 checkpoint, checks to see whether replication errors or DNA damage has occurred during DNA synthesis.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 37 4) Describe the mitochondria.

Answer: These are long, thin organelles, that have their own DNA molecule which allows for self-replication. They produce ATP molecules, which are the equivalent of cellular energy. They are bound by two membranes. The inner one is highly folded into cristae, where many of the critical molecules involved in ATP production are imbedded.

5) Describe the three major types of cytoskeletal elements.

Answer: Microtubules are the largest in diameter and are formed by the protein tubulin. They are stiff, but bendable. Microtubules are important in the trafficking of organelles within the cytoplasm. Microfilaments are the smallest in diameter. They are strands of the protein actin, are contractile proteins, which are typically very labile. Intermediate filaments are of intermediate diameter. They are very stabile and permanent, functioning to resist shearing forces within and between adjacent cells.

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Human Anatomy, 7e (Marieb/Mitchell/Smith) Chapter 3 Basic Embryology

Figure 3.1

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Which letter indicates the blastocyst?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D

2) Which letter indicates the uterus? A) A

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3) Which letter indicates the oocyte? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A

4) Which letter indicates the zygote? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B

5) Which letter indicates the morula? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C

6) Quickening occurs (mother feels fetus moving). A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period)

B) 9-12 weeks (month 3) C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: D

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 7) Limbs are complete.

A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period) B) 9-12 weeks (month 3)

C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: A

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8) Sex can be determined from the genitals. A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period) B) 9-12 weeks (month 3)

C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: B

9) Eyes open and lungs develop. A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period) B) 9-12 weeks (month 3)

C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: E

10) All major organs are present in rudimentary form. A) 8 weeks (end of embryonic period)

B) 9-12 weeks (month 3) C) 13-16 weeks (month 4) D) 17-20 weeks (month 5) E) 21-30 weeks (months 6 and 7) Answer: A

11) This develops into the brain and spinal cord. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: B

12) This develops into the lining of the gastrointestinal tract. A) endoderm

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13) This develops into the epidermis of the skin. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: B

14) The epiblast develops a primitive streak during days 14-15, the initial cells that ingress through the primitive streak become this germ layer.

A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: A

15) Mucus-producing glands of the respiratory tract arise from this layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: A

16) What embryonic epiblast cells that remain on the surface of the trilaminar disc are ultimately called. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: B

17) The neural tube develops from this layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: B

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18) The mesoderm located deep to the neural tube forms the kidneys and the gonads is the ________. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: E

19) The ribs and vertebrae form from this primary germ layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: C

20) The ectoderm develops into the epithelium of the skin, whereas this layer gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gut tube.

A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: A

21) This layer will give rise to the bones, ligaments and joints of the embryonic limbs. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: D

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23) The dermis of the dorsal body region is derived from somites. However, the dermis of the ventral body region is derived from

A) endoderm. B) ectoderm. C) mesoderm—somites. D) mesoderm—lateral plate. E) intermediate mesoderm. Answer: D

24) Blood vessels and the heart arise from this primary germ layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: D

25) The splanchnic mesoderm forms next to this layer. A) endoderm B) ectoderm C) mesoderm—somites D) mesoderm—lateral plate E) intermediate mesoderm Answer: A

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 57 26) Conception occurs in the A) lateral third of the uterine tube. B) ovary.

C) peritoneal cavity. D) uterine cavity. Answer: A

27) The middlemost embryonic germ layer to develop is A) ectoderm.

B) endoderm. C) mesoderm. D) protoderm. Answer: C

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28) The embryonic notochord will eventually be replaced by the developing ________, leaving only remnants that persist as the nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs.

A) spinal cord B) pharynx C) lateral muscle D) vertebral column Answer: D

29) Which of the following is the proper sequence for neurulation? A) neural tube, neural plate, neural groove

B) neural groove, neural plate, neural tube C) neural plate, neural groove, neural tube D) neural groove, brain, neural tube Answer: C

30) Limb buds emerge in the human embryo about A) day 9.

B) day 15. C) day 28. D) day 60. Answer: C

31) Based on the proportions of the adult body, the 3-month fetus still shows disproportionately large A) hands. B) stomach. C) head. D) heart. Answer: C

32) Division of cells in a zygote is called A) blastulation.

B) cleavage. C) gastrulation. D) induction.

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33) The gonads arise from what embryonic structure? A) notochord B) endoderm C) splanchnic mesoderm D) intermediate mesoderm Answer: D

34) Which of the following is endodermal in origin? A) liver

B) spleen C) blood vessels D) skin

Answer: A

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55 35) Somites differentiate into A) the epidermis.

B) myotomes.

C) the gastrointestinal lining. D) muscles.

Answer: B

36) The sclerotome will develop into the A) peritoneum.

B) visceral serosa. C) vertebrae. D) heart. Answer: C

37) Splanchnic mesoderm forms the A) heart.

B) notochord. C) brain. D) skin. Answer: A

38) Approximately ________ percent of all children have some birth defect. A) 0.01

B) 1 C) 3 D) 20 Answer: C

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39) A transverse section through the 24-day embryo, dorsal to ventral, would first contact the A) neural tube. B) notochord. C) somites. D) myotomes. Answer: A

40) The embryonic layer that invades the lining of the uterus and forms the placenta is the A) trophoblast.

B) embryoblast. C) inner cell mass. D) endometrium. Answer: A

41) The expression "breaking water" during birthing refers to the A) amnion.

B) allantois. C) chorion. D) yolk sac. Answer: A

42) Which characteristic is not true of a blastocyst? A) It contains a fluid-filled cavity.

B) It develops 24-36 hours after conception.

C) It has an inner cell mass and an outer trophoblast. D) It implants into the uterus.

Answer: B

43) The solid mass of cells that results from cleavage of the zygote is the A) trophoblast.

B) blastocyst. C) morula. D) gastrula. Answer: C

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44) Which of the following does not distinguish mesoderm from either endoderm or ectoderm? A) It is a mesenchyme tissue.

B) It is derived from the epiblast.

C) It is the last of the three germ layers to develop. D) Its cells can migrate widely within the embryo. Answer: B

45) The term bilaminar disc refers to the embryonic ________ and ________. A) epidermis; dermis

B) ectoderm; mesoderm C) epiblast; hypoblast

D) inner cell mass; trophoblast Answer: C

46) Mesenchyme would refer to ________ but not ________. A) mesoderm; ectoderm

B) ectoderm; mesoderm C) endoderm; ectoderm D) ectoderm; endoderm Answer: A

47) Male and female fetuses can first be distinguished by their genitalia at A) 1 week.

B) 3 weeks. C) 3 months. D) 7 months. Answer: C

48) Thalidomide, once used to alleviate morning sickness in pregnant women, resulted in A) severe limb abnormalities.

B) heart defects. C) mental retardation. D) multiple births. Answer: A

49) Chemical, physical, or biological agents that can induce birth defects are called A) mutagens.

B) teratogens. C) free radicals. D) carcinogens. Answer: B

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50) The most common cause of mental retardation in the United States is A) anencephaly.

B) spina bifida.

C) fetal alcohol syndrome. D) thalidomide.

Answer: C

51) Implantation of the blastocyst on the uterine lining takes about A) 1 week.

B) 2 weeks. C) 3 weeks. D) 4 weeks. Answer: A

52) Fertilization is to zygote as A) egg is to sperm. B) oocyte is to ovary. C) cleavage is to morula. D) birth is to parturition. Answer: C

53) In human embryos, the yolk sac is important because it A) stores yolk.

B) gives rise to earliest blood cells and blood vessels. C) stores nitrogenous wastes.

D) allows for gas exchange through the placenta. Answer: B

54) The body's axis of development is determined by the A) blastomeres.

B) epiblast. C) notochord. D) primitive streak. Answer: C

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55) Most organ systems are fully formed and ready to function in the fetus by the sixth month. Which of the following systems is the exception to this generalization because it takes longer to finish development?

A) the circulatory system B) the respiratory system C) the urinary system

D) the integumentary system Answer: B

56) The urinary bladder is derived from which embryonic layer? A) ectoderm

B) mesoderm C) endoderm D) neural crest Answer: C

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 57 57) A teratogen is A) a deformed baby.

B) a specific sedative used in the 1950s in Europe.

C) a chemical agent, infectious agent or environmental factor that causes birth defects. D) a stage of development in the mid-fetal period.

Answer: C

58) The primary germ layer that ultimately produces the hair, fingernails, and toenails is A) ectoderm.

B) mesoderm. C) endoderm. D) neural crest. Answer: A

59) The primary germ layer that ultimately forms the serous membranes of the peritoneum is A) ectoderm.

B) mesoderm. C) endoderm. D) neural crest. Answer: B

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60) The neural tube of the embryo develops into the A) spinal cord. B) neural crest. C) sensory neurons. D) dorsal skin. Answer: A

61) Somatic mesoderm gives rise to all of the following except A) some bones.

B) some serous membranes. C) dermis of the skin of the belly. D) epidermis of the upper limb. Answer: D

62) Production of surfactant begins during week 22-26 of the gestational period. Premature infants born after week 26 will

A) not survive.

B) will not need medical assistance for breathing. C) will need medical assistance for breathing.

D) will be at increased risk for visual disorders and mental impairment. Answer: B

63) Another name for birth defect is A) birth illness.

B) teratogenesis.

C) congenital abnormality. D) prenatal pathology. Answer: C

64) Which of the following adult structures derives from neural crest? A) all the nerve cells in the brain

B) all the nerve cells in the spinal cord

C) all the pigment-producing cells in the body D) all bones

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65) As a result of folding, the embryo acquires a tadpole shape by A) day 9. B) day 12. C) day 15. D) day 24. Answer: D

66) The amniotic sac is derived from the epiblast, while the placenta develops from the A) bilaminar disc.

B) hypoblast. C) neural crest. D) trophoblast. Answer: D

67) Identical (monozygotic) twins are

A) formed from splitting of the inner cell mass. B) formed from splitting of the zygote.

C) formed from the release of two eggs. D) formed from two sperm fertilizing one egg. Answer: A

68) If a mutation occurs in the hypoblast cells of a bilaminar embryo, one might expect birth defects to be present in the

A) blood cells or vessels. B) brain and spinal cord. C) hair and skin.

D) musculoskeletal system. Answer: A

69) Which of the following is not a property of mesenchyme? A) It is present before birth.

B) Its cells migrate.

C) Its cells are star-shaped.

D) Its cells attach closely to one another and form sheets. Answer: D

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70) The ability of one cell to influence the development of its neighboring cells is called A) blastulation. B) cleavage. C) gastrulation. D) induction. Answer: D

71) Which of the following appears latest in human development? A) limb buds

B) somites C) heart

D) separate fingers Answer: D

72) Conjoined twins occur as a result of

A) complete separation of cells in the early morula. B) failure of the blastocyst to implant in the uterine lining. C) incomplete division of the inner cell mass.

D) fertilization of the ovum by two different sperm Answer: C

73) The cavity in the mesoderm that ultimately develops into the peritoneal, pericardial, and pleural cavities is called:

A) an antrum. B) a blastocoel. C) a coelom. D) a dermatome. Answer: C

74) Which of the following is not a germ layer? A) ectoderm

B) mesoderm C) epidermis D) endoderm Answer: C

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75) The correct sequence for embryonic development is A) zygote, blastocyst, morula.

B) zygote, morula, blastocyst. C) blastocyst, morula, zygote. D) zygote, fetus, embryo. Answer: B

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48-49 3.2 True/False Questions

1) Spina bifida results when the neural tube fails to close in the head. Answer: FALSE

2) The fetal period is the longer and later of the prenatal growth periods. Answer: TRUE

3) The inner cell mass will form the embryo, and the trophoblast will form the placenta. Answer: TRUE

4) The outer membrane of the amniotic sac is called the amnion. Answer: TRUE

5) The epiblast gives rise to the three primary germ layers. Answer: TRUE

6) The developing embryo, about 72 hours after fertilization, is called the zygote. Answer: FALSE

7) During the blastocyst stage, there are three cell layers evident. Answer: FALSE

8) It is easy to remember that in humans, 3 weeks after fertilization, there are three germ layers. Answer: TRUE

9) The three primary germ layers are the endoderm, myotome, and exoderm. Answer: FALSE

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10) The yolk sac, formed from the hypoblast, has little yolk in the human embryo. Answer: TRUE

11) Premature birth is one that occurs 38 weeks after conception. Answer: FALSE

12) Endoderm forms many glands, such as those associated with the gastrointestinal tract. Answer: TRUE

13) The embryonic notochord gives rise to part of the intervertebral discs in the adult human. Answer: TRUE

14) Identical twins arise from the splitting of a three-layered embryo. Answer: FALSE

15) The ability of one group of cells to influence development of neighboring cells is called gastrulation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53 3.3 Short Answer Questions

1) The embryonic ________ ultimately form the arms and legs of the adult. Answer: limb buds

2) By the end of week 3, the mesoderm has divided into the somites, intermediate mesoderm, and ________.

Answer: lateral plate Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54

3) Splanchnic mesoderm gives rise to components of the cardiovascular system, including ________.

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5) The sex of the fetus can be determined externally by approximately month ________. Answer: 3

6) The hand develops with ________ between the fingers. Answer: webs (webbing)

7) This is the most common preventable cause of mental retardation in the United States. Answer: fetal alcohol syndrome

8) Defects in the development of the neural tube may be linked to inadequate dietary intake of ________.

Answer: folic acid

9) ________ is a clinical procedure that provides a genetic profile for a fetus. Answer: Amniocentesis

10) A ________ abortion is one in which the fetus dies and is naturally aborted. Answer: spontaneous

11) The wall and lining of the gut develop from the mesoderm and ________, respectively. Answer: endoderm

12) Name three primary germ layers in the embryo. Answer: endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51-52

13) The ________ is the embryonic stage that implants in the uterus. Answer: blastocyst

14) A primitive characteristic that an adult human retains only in part, but is important in determining bilateral symmetry is the ________.

Answer: notochord Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51

15) The intermediate mesoderm forms the ________. Answer: kidneys and gonads

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3.4 Essay Questions

1) Explain how conjoined twins may occur.

Answer: Conjoined twins result with the incomplete division of the inner cell mass during the twinning process. The twins may be joined at any/multiple body regions and often share organs. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49

2) Briefly describe the two cellular layers that comprise the bilaminar embryonic disc and explain their importance in embryonic development.

Answer: Cells within the inner cell mass of the blastocyst begin to differentiate into two separate layers approximately nine days after fertilization occurs. These two layers will give rise to all of the cell types of the body. The epiblast will give rise to the three primary germ layers; ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. The hypoblast gives rise to the yolk sac, which will develop into part of the digestive tube and tissue around the yolk sac gives rise to the earliest blood cells and blood vessels.

3) Describe the types of tissues that make up the endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm, and explain how these tissues relate to their developmental processes.

Answer: Both endoderm and ectoderm are epithelial tissues. These cells are joined together in sheets that form external or internal linings of the body. The mesoderm consists of mesenchyme tissue whose cells don't stick together. Instead, the cells and groups of cells are free to migrate within the embryo to eventually give rise to muscles, bones, and viscera.

4) Define the term teratogen, and explain why exposure to teratogens during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy is particularly dangerous.

Answer: A teratogen is any chemical, biological, or physical factor that disrupts normal embryo development. Exposure to teratogenic agents is most dangerous during the first 8 weeks of embryo development because it is during this time that most of the major organ systems initially develop. Disruption to these early cell lines may either be inconsistent with life and cause spontaneous abortion or may cause significant malformations that will persist throughout the fetal period.

5) Briefly describe the formation of the nervous system.

Answer: The nervous system develops by an infolding of ectodermal cells from the neural plate. These cells continue to fold toward each other, forming initially the neural groove, which then becomes the completed neural tube. The cranial region of the neural tube becomes the brain, the

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Human Anatomy, 7e (Marieb/Mitchell/Smith) Chapter 4 Tissues

Figure 4.1

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions. 1) Which letter indicates microvilli?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E

2) Which letter indicates the connective tissue layer? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C

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3) Which letter indicates the epithelium? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B

4) Which letter indicates the basement membrane? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D

5) Which letter on the diagram indicates motile structural elements of the epithelial membrane? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A

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Figure 4.2

Use the diagram above to answer the following questions.

6) Which letter indicates a cellular junction that prevents molecules from passing between epithelial cells? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A

7) Which letter indicates the acellular layer that acts as a selective filter and a scaffold for regenerating epithelial cells?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C

8) Which letter indicates tunnel-like junctions in the lateral membranes of adjacent epithelial cells? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D

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9) Which letter indicates junctions commonly associated with tissues under mechanical stress? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B

10) Which letter indicates the cytoplasmic protein fiber that connects desmosomes? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E

11) Which category of tissue is characterized by cells that have adhesion proteins and specialized cell-to-cell junctions? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: D

12) Which major category of tissues has the most diverse and most numerous types of tissue? A) muscle

B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: C

13) Histologists consider blood to be an example of what primary tissue category? A) muscle

B) nervous C) connective

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14) Cells lining the digestive tube are characteristic of this tissue category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: D

15) Pseudostratified columnar is one of the tissues of this category. A) muscle

B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: D

16) Which major tissue category includes tissues that function in secretion, absorption, and filtration? A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: D

17) Bone and cartilage are examples of tissues in this category. A) muscle

18) Which tissue category contains tissues comprised of cells containing myofilaments? A) muscle

B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: A

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19) The primary contractile tissue of the heart characterizes tissues in this category. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: A

20) This tissue type, in addition to certain muscle tissues, is capable of generating electrical impulses. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: B

21) Ligaments are examples of tissues in this category. A) muscle

22) The brain and spinal cord are composed primarily of this tissue type. A) muscle

B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: B

23) This type of tissue includes smooth and cardiac. A) muscle

B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: A

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24) Tissues in this category are characterized by an extracellular matrix that holds some amount of fluid. A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: C

25) Adipocytes are found in tissues belonging to this category. A) muscle

26) Which of the following is not associated with connective tissue? A) areolar

B) collagen C) goblet cells D) chondrocytes Answer: C

27) The major function of stratified squamous epithelium is A) diffusion.

B) absorption. C) filtration.

D) protection from abrasion. Answer: D

28) Simple squamous epithelia would not provide A) protection from abrasion.

B) diffusion. C) filtration. D) secretion. Answer: A

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29) What do goblet cells secrete? A) enzymes B) histamine C) mucin D) antibodies Answer: C

30) A structure that secretes hormones into the blood is A) a plasma cell.

B) a goblet cell. C) an endocrine gland. D) an exocrine gland. Answer: C

31) Of the types of lining and covering membranes, the only one that is drier than the others is A) cutaneous.

B) serous. C) mucous. D) parietal. Answer: A

32) The difference between a basal lamina and a basement membrane is that A) the basal lamina is thicker.

B) they lie on opposite surfaces of the epithelium.

C) a basal lamina plus a layer of reticular fibers equals a basement membrane. D) only the basal lamina can be seen by light microscopy.

Answer: C

33) Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelia? A) highly cellular with little extracellular matrix

B) innervated

C) specialized cell-cell junctions D) vascular

Answer: D