Aircraft general knowledge ATPL

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Question: Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. In structural design, fail safe implies parallel structural parts. II. In structural design, safe life implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles.

Question: Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. In structural design, fail safe implies the structure will never fail. II. In structural design, safe life implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles.

Question: Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. The damage tolerance principle assumes cracks in the structure will never occur. II. The safe life principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or time

period.

Question: The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:

1. directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator. 2. drive the generator at a constant speed.

3. vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads. 4. vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

Question: The de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is:

1. Pneumatic boots. 2. Electrical heating. 3. Fluid de-icing. 4. Thermal anti-icing.

Question: The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the 1. Pneumatic system with expandable boots.

2. Liquid de-icing system. 3. Hot air system.

4. Electrical de-icing system.

Question: Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude and air conditioning system setting are maintained:

1. the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.

2. the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure. 3. the mass air flow through the cabin is constant.

4. the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.

Question: One function of a rib is:

1. to be the primary structural member to carry wings loads. 2. to stabilise the fuselage skin against buckling.

3. to maintain the aerodynamic shape of the wing. 4. to carry tensile load of the fuselage pressure hull.

Question: Static dischargers: 1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential. 2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge. 3. are used to reset the electrostatic

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potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts. 4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a minimum. 5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified clouds. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

Question: In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in :

1. obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.

2. accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.

3. breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current which is distributed to the spark plugs.

4. creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at the appropriate time.

Question: A propeller blade is twisted, so as to: 1. avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.

2. decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip. 3. allow a higher mechanical stress.

4. keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.

Question: When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:

1. stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM. 2. increases.

3. stays constant. 4. reduces.

Question: Hydraulic fluids should have the following characteristics: 1. thermal stability 2. anti-corrosive 3. high flash-point 4. high compressibility 5. high volatility The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

Question: Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics: 1. thermal stability 2. low emulsifying characteristics 3. corrosion resistance 4. good resistance to combustion 5. high compressibility 6. high volatility 7. high viscosity The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

Question: Assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting, increasing the aerodrome pressure altitude:

1. Will cause the maximum permitted take-off mass to decrease. 2. Will cause the maximum permitted take-off mass to increase. 3. Has no effect on the maximum permitted take-off mass.

4. Has no effect on the maximum permitted take-off mass up to 5,000 ft pressure altitude above which it increases.

Question: The engine failure during take-off run results in: 1. A longer ground roll.

2. An increased acceleration. 3. A higher V₁.

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4. A shorter take-off run.

Question: The function of a hydraulic selector valve is to: 1. automatically activate the hydraulic system.

2. select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure. 3. discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high. 4. direct system pressure to either side of the piston of an actuator.

Question: The hydraulic device, which functionality is comparable to an electronic diode, is a: 1. distribution valve.

2. check valve. 3. shutoff valve. 4. flow control valve.

Question: Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause: 1. an increased fluid temperature.

2. fluid loss.

3. an increased fluid pressure. 4. a decreased fluid temperature. Question: A hydraulic shuttle valve:

1. allows two units to be operated by one pressure source. 2. enables an alternate supply to operate an actuator. 3. regulates pump delivery pressure.

4. is a non-return valve.

Question: To protect against excessive system pressure, a hydraulic system usually incorporates: 1. a high pressure relief valve.

2. auxiliary hydraulic motors. 3. an accumulator.

4. a standby hydraulic pump.

Question: A hydraulic low pressure alert is the first indication of: 1. a leak in the reservoir return line.

2. the hydraulic system accumulator becoming deflated. 3. the reservoir level being at a minimum acceptable level. 4. the pump output pressure being insufficient.

Question: The reservoirs of a hydraulic system can be pressurized: 1. in flight only.

2. by bleed air from the engine. 3. by an auxiliary system.

4. by the air conditioning system.

Question: The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid should be: 1. The lowest to provide excellent lubrication properties. 2. The highest to provide excellent lubrication properties.

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3. The lowest to minimize power consumption and resistance to flow. 4. The highest to minimize power consumption and resistance to flow. Question: The hydraulic systems which works correctly is shown in the figure:

1.

B

Question: By-pass ratio in a turbine engine is the ratio of the: 1. tertiary air mass flow to the primary air mass flow. 2. intake air pressure to the turbine delivery air pressure. 3. cold air mass flow to the hot air mass flow.

4. speed of the combusted air to the speed of the by-pass air.

Question: Purposes of an accumulator in an hydraulic system are: 1. to damp pressure

fluctuations. 2. to cool the hydraulic fluid. 3. to serve as a limited alternate source of pressure. 4. to serve as a main pressure source for normal operation. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

Question: A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by: 1. airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor. 2. the high pressure turbine.

3. the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing. 4. the low pressure turbine.

Question: The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of the gas flow is to: 1. ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded. 2. prevent damage to the combustion chamber from overheating.

3. prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.

4. ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not exceeded. Question: The use of igniters is necessary or recommended on a turbo-jet:1. throughout the operating range of the engine,2. for accelerations,3. for ground starts, 4. for in-flight relights, 5. during turbulence in flight, 6. under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions. The

combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

Question: For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the lowest rpm range at which the engine:

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2. will continue to run without any further starter assistance. 3. will enable the generators to supply bus bar voltage.

4. is designed to idle after starting.

Question: On a normally aspirated engine, the manifold pressure gauge always indicates: 1. zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.

2. a value equal to the atmospheric pressure when the engine is at full power on the ground. 3. a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

4. a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

Question: In a commercial transport aeroplane the landing gear normal operating system is usually: 1. mechanically driven.

2. hydraulically driven. 3. electrically driven. 4. pneumatically driven.

Question: The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircrafts is: 1. Oxygen.

2. Nitrogen. 3. Springs. 4. Oil.

Question: Shimmy occurs on the nose wheel landing gear during taxiing when: 1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground 2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions. This effect is overcome by means of: 3. the torque link 4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder. The combination of correct statements is:

Question: On a 13653 a fire detection system includes:

1. both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine 2. a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine 3. a single warning light and a single alarm bell

4. a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines Question: A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by

1. heating up the sensor with test power connection. 2. checking the sensor with pressurized gas.

3. checking the continuity of the system with a test switch. 4. checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.

Question: On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from:

1. pressure to the rudder pedals. 2. the brake actuators.

3. the master cylinders.

4. the aeroplane's hydraulic system.

Question: The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is: 1. to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.

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2. to supply a limited amount of brake energy in the event of failure of the hydraulic system normally supplying the brakes.

3. to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti-skid system preventing wheel locking. 4. to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system.

Question: The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: 1. idle wheel speed (measured) 2. braked wheel speed (measured) 3. brake temperature (measured) 4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate 5. tire pressure The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

Question: The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they: 1. prevent the brakes from overheating.

2. release air from the tyre in the event of overheating. 3. prevent tyre burst after excessive brake application. 4. prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.

Question: A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 1. which requires solid or branched wheels 2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations 3. whose mounting rim must be flawless 4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device 5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture 6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Question: Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics: 1 - high heating 2 - valve fragility 3 - lower risk of bursting 4 - better adjustment to wheels The combination containing all the correct statements is:

Question: An under-inflated tyre will:

1. experience reduced wear at the shoulders 2. be more subject to viscous aquaplaning. 3. have an increased hydroplaning speed.

4. experience increased wear at the shoulders.

Question: The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they: 1. prevent the brakes from overheating.

2. release air from the tyre in the event of overpressure due to over-inflation. 3. prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.

4. release air from the tyre in the event of overheating. Question: To avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating there is:

1. a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.

2. water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature. 3. the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system that adapts braking to the tyre

temperature.

4. a thermal plug that deflates the tyre at a specific temperature.

Question: An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than :

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2. 120 minutes at cruising speed. 3. 90 minutes at cruising speed. 4. 30 minutes at cruising speed.

Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of liferafts to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:

1. in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity. 2. plus 10 %.

3. plus 30 %.

4. in the case of a loss of two rafts.

Question: An aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls: 1. must have a mechanical back-up control system.

2. may be equipped with simple spring type feel units on all flight controls. 3. need not be equipped with a separate gust lock system.

4. does not require an artificial feel system.

Question: Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged. II. Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock.

Question: Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? I. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.

Question: Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? I. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.

Question: The function of the rudder limiter system is:

1. to restrict rudder deflection during flight at high IAS.

2. to restrict the rudder deflection during flight with at Mach numbers. 3. to reduce pilot's workload during engine failure.

4. to limit pedal movement in heavy turbulence.

Question: Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. Irreversible flight controls should have a gust lock. II. There is no need for a gust lock on manual flight controls.

Question: Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. There is no need for a gust lock on irreversible flight controls. II. There is no need for a gust lock on manual flight controls.

Question: Trimming of aileron and rudder in an irreversible flight control system: 1. is not possible.

2. is achieved by adjusting the neutral point of the flight control actuator. 3. is not necessary.

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4. is achieved by adjusting the "zero force point" of the feel system.

Question: Given a conventional transport aeroplane with irreversible flight controls on the ground with engines running. Which of these statements about rudder trim actuation is correct?

1. The rudder moves, the rudder pedals move in the corresponding direction. 2. The rudder moves, the rudder pedals do not move.

3. The "zero force point" of the artificial feel system changes, the rudder does not move. 4. The rudder trim tab moves and the rudder pedals do not move.

Question: Which of these statements about trimming in a irreversible flight control system of a conventional aeroplane are correct or incorrect? I. The zero force position of the control

column does not change when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel does not change when using the aileron trim.

Question: Which of these statements about trimming in a irreversible flight control system of a conventional aeroplane are correct or incorrect? I. The zero force position of the control column changes when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel changes when using the aileron trim.

Question: On a large transport aeroplane, the auto-slat system: 1. assist the ailerons.

2. provides for automatic slat retraction after take-off.

3. ensures that the (part of) slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the "ground" position.

4. extends (part of) the slats automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded.

Question: Given an aeroplane with irreversible primary flight controls, how is control maintained if one hydraulic system is lost due to a hydraulic leak?

1. By switching to manual back-up mode.

2. The remaining systems will take over control.

3. Sufficient reserve hydraulic fluid is available to compensate the effects of the leak. 4. By switching the flight control system to the reversible mode.

Question: Which of these statements regarding most gust lock systems is correct? 1. On reversible flight controls, there is no need for a gust lock.

2. When the gust lock is ON there is protection to prevent take-off. 3. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effect of turbulence. 4. A gust lock is only fitted on the elevator and the rudder.

Question: Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of turbulence. II. There is no need for a gust lock on reversible flight controls.

Question: Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? I. A rudder ratio changer system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.

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Question: Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged. II. There is no need for a gust lock on reversible flight controls.

Question: Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? I. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases.

Question: Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? I. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases. II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.

Question: The trim tab:

1. increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.

2. increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency. 3. reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency. 4. reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency. Question: The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:

1. trim the aeroplane at low airspeed. 2. trim the aeroplane during normal flight. 3. lower manoeuvring control forces. 4. reduce or to cancel control forces.

Question: The advantages of fly-by-wire control are: 1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces 2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike 3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems 4. immunity to different interfering signals 5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Question: Overcentre mechanisms in landing gear systems are used to: 1. Ensure the nose-wheel is positioned fore and aft prior to retraction. 2. Lock the landing gear in the up position only.

3. Ensure that the nose-wheel does not exceed the maximum steering arc. 4. Lock the landing gear in the up and/or down positions.

Question: A pressure regulator is used in a hydraulic system:

1. To ensure that an equal pressure flow is delivered to critical components such as servo actuators.

2. In conjunction with a constant delivery type pump.

3. As an interface between the system and the cockpit indicators. 4. In conjunction with a variable delivery type pump.

Question: Axial piston pumps are often used in hydraulic systems due to:

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2. Their ability to produce high pressure when required but can be off loaded to reduce power consumption.

3. The safety feature of the quill drive shearing due to pump seizure and the ease of repair by replacement of pump and shaft only.

4. Their low cost, simplicity and durability.

Question: Filters in hydraulic systems often incorporate pop out indicators to: 1. Indicate that the filter is due maintenance.

2. Indicate that the filter is clogged and unfiltered oil is passing around the system. 3. Warn of a hydraulic system overheat.

4. Warn of an impending by-pass situation. Question: Cabin pressure is controlled by:

1. the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).

2. delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.

3. controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow. 4. the cabin air re-circulation system.

Question: In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the:

1. compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet. 2. turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.

3. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit. 4. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.

Question: In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to: 1. maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.

2. ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine. 3. increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.

4. ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger. Question: A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) will:

1. increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.

2. decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger. 3. not affect the charge air pressure.

4. cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air. Question: Cabin heating in a large jet transport aeroplane is obtained from:

1. a fuel heater system. 2. an electrical heater system.

3. hot air bled from the compressors. 4. hot air bled from the turbines.

Question: The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to:

1. Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin pressure surges.

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2. regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.

3. discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude. 4. regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.

Question: In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the main water separation unit is:

1. after the cooling turbine. 2. just after the heat exchangers. 3. before the cooling turbine. 4. before the heat exchangers.

Question: The main function of an air cycle machine is to: 1. remove the water from the bleed air.

2. pump the conditioned air into the cabin. 3. decrease the pressure of the bleed air. 4. cool the bleed air.

Question: Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that:

1. the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure 2. the pressure differential would go to the maximum value

3. the skin of the cabin would be overstressed 4. the air supply would automatically be stopped

Question: In an air cycle machine (bootstrap system) the:

1. Turbine drives the compressor, which provides pressurisation.

2. Temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the air cycle machine.

3. Turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.

4. Turbine drives the compressor, which makes the second heat exchanger more effective.

Question: In a large transport aeroplane the main temperature reduction of the conditioned air is achieved in:

1. The heat exchangers. 2. A condenser.

3. An evaporator.

4. An expansion turbine.

Question: Cabin air for a large aeroplane during flight:

1. has a constant oxygen ratio regulated to a preset value. 2. is temperature controlled.

3. has a reduced oxygen ratio. 4. has an increased oxygen ratio.

Question: Whilst in level cruising flight, an aeroplane with a pressurised cabin experiences a malfunction of the pressure controller. If the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min:

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1. the differential pressure will rise to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.

2. the crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero cabin altitude.

3. the aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce the cabin altitude to its initial value.

4. a descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when the cabin altitude reaches 14000ft.

Question: An air cycle machine (air conditioning pack) :

1. causes a pressure and temperaure drop in the bleed air.

2. decreases bleed air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger. 3. increases outlet pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger. 4. does not affect the bleed air.

Question: Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is: 1. on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is

very often used for large surfaces de-icing.

2. on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...).

3. on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.

4. on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they only need little energy.

Question: The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:

1. Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the components.

2. Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation. 3. Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.

4. Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.

Question: The wing ice protection system currently used for most large turboprop transport aeroplanes is a(n):

1. pneumatic system with inflatable boots. 2. liquid de-icing system.

3. electrical de-icing system. 4. hot air system.

Question: Electrically powered ice protection devices on aircraft are: 1. used primarily because they are very efficient.

2. used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.

3. used as anti-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield. 4. used for large surfaces only.

Question: The sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices: 1 - prevent ice formation. 2 - can be triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3 - will inflate each pneumatic boot for a few seconds. 4 - will repeat more than ten times per second. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

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Question: The use of a hot air wing anti-icing system:

1. does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum thrust.

2. does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust.

3. reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust. 4. reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum

thrust.

Question: A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned: 1. downstream of the discharge nozzle.

2. between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle. 3. between the needle valve and the metering jet. 4. upstream of the needle valve.

Question: The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to 1. trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank 2. distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling 3. ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure 4. increase the fuel level at the boost pump location

Question: The operating pressure of a booster pump in the fuel supply system of a gas turbine aircraft is within the following range:

1. 5 to 10 psi 2. 3000 to 5000 psi 3. 300 to 500 psi 4. 20 to 100 psi

Question: On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through: 1. The return lines of the fuel pumps.

2. Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing. 3. Bleed air from the engines.

4. A pressure regulator in the wing tip. Question: The automatic fuelling shut off valve:

1. stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank. 2. stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.

3. stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the vent line. 4. cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.

Question: In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the amount of:

1. air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of bleed valves. 2. fuel supplied.

3. air entering the compressor.

4. air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers. Question: The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is:

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1. 400 Hz. 2. 50 Hz. 3. 60 Hz. 4. 200 Hz.

Question: A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the: 1. voltage coil and the series winding turn.

2. shunt exciter and the series winding turn. 3. voltage coil and the series winding. 4. generator and the series winding turn. Question: A relay is:

1. An electrical security switch.

2. A switch specially designed for AC circuits. 3. An electrical energy conversion unit.

4. An electromagnetically operated switch. Question: Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be:

1. used only in AC circuits. 2. used in AC and DC circuits. 3. reset at any time.

4. used only in DC circuits.

Question: A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which : 1. can be reset at any time.

2. will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit. 3. is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.

4. will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit.

Question: Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about resetting are correct or incorrect? I. A fuse is resettable II. A circuit breaker is not resettable.

Question: When carrying out a battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter: 1. no load should be applied to the battery because it would reduce the voltage. 2. the load condition is unimportant.

3. a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition.

4. the battery should be isolated.

Question: When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the: 1. current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.

2. electrolyte to "boil".

3. voltage to increase due to the current available. 4. voltage to decrease under load.

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1. number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration of its cells.

2. no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current. 3. intensity withstood by the battery during charging.

4. amount of Ampere hours that a fully charged battery can supply. Question: The capacity of an accumulator is:

1. The quantity of electricity that the battery can supply during discharge. 2. The no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current. 3. The intensity withstood by the battery during charging.

4. The number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration of its cells.

Question: The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are: 1. shunt wound.

2. series shunt wound. 3. compound wound. 4. series wound.

Question: The power output of a generator is controlled by: 1. varying the field strength.

2. varying the speed of the engine.

3. the reverse current relay circuit breaker.

4. varying the length of wire in the armature windings. Question: In an alternator rotor coil you can find :

1. DC.

2. Only induced current. 3. AC.

4. Three-phase AC.

Question: The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the: 1. batteries at varying loads.

2. TRU.

3. generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads. 4. generator at varying loads and speeds.

Question: The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the: 1. battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true 2. alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true 3. battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true 4. generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true Question: Direct current generators are connected:

1. in parallel to provide maximum power. 2. in series to provide maximum voltage. 3. in parallel to provide maximum voltage. 4. in series to provide maximum power.

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Question: In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:

1. 8 2. 24 3. 4 4. 12

Question: "Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator: 1. voltage regulator is out of adjustment.

2. output frequency is too high. 3. output frequency is too low.

4. output frequency varies with engine speed.

Question: The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the: 1. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part. 2. field strength and the speed of the moving part.

3. number of individual poles only.

4. number of individual poles and the field strength.

Question: In an AC power generation system, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD): 1- can be disconnected from the engine shaft. 2- can be disconnected from the generator. 3- is a hydro-mechanical system. 4- is an electronic system. 5- can not be disconnected in flight. 6- can be disconnected in flight. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

Question: In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the: 1. pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.

2. pilot has to throttle back.

3. pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator. 4. pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again. Question: An AC generator driven by a CSD unit:

1. does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage. 2. requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.

3. requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.

4. does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load. Question: Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected :

1. on the ground only. 2. at flight idle engine rpm.

3. when the AC generator voltage is outside limits. 4. provided the engine is running.

Question: The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to: 1. Directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator. 2. Vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

3. Drive the generator at a constant speed.

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Question: The reasons for disconnecting a constant speed drive (CSD) of an AC generator in flight are: 1 - low oil pressure in the CSD. 2 - slight variation about the normal operating

frequency. 3 - high oil temperature in the CSD. 4 - excessive variation of voltage and kVAR. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

Question: The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) :

1. an INVERT or NOT gate. 2. a NAND gate.

3. an EXCLUSIVE gate. 4. a NOR gate.

Question: The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to:

1. invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state. 2. ensure the input signal is DC only.

3. ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal. 4. ensure the input signal is AC only.

Question: In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from:

1. a rectifier. 2. a TRU. 3. a contactor. 4. an inverter.

Question: A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is: 1. an AC generator.

2. a thermistor.

3. a transformer rectifier unit. 4. an inverter.

Question: The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are: 1. Weight saving 2. Easy fault detection 3. Increase of short-circuit risk 4. Reduction of short-circuit risk 5. Circuits are not single-wired lines The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : Question: Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to: 1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects. 2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt 3. reduce radio interference on radio communication systems 4. set the aircraft to a single potential The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Question: One indication of inadequate bonding of aircraft components may be: 1. there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.

2. a circuit breaker pops out.

3. there is interference on the VOR receiver. 4. static noises can be heard on the radio.

Question: The diagram shown in annex represents a twin engine aeroplane electrical system. Batteries are located positions:

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1. 1 and 2 2. 1 and 3 3. 5 and 6 4. 3 and 4

Question: The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are: 1. presence of a permanent field 2. closed electrical circuit 3. generator terminals short-circuited 4. minimum rotation speed The combination of correct statements is:

Question: In an aircraft electrical system where AC

generators are not paralleled mounted, the changeover relay allows:

1. connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.

2. connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.

3. connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar. 4. power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.

Question: The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are: 1. simple connection 2. high starting torque 3. flexibility in use 4. lighter weight of equipment 5. easy to convert into direct current 6. easy maintenance of machines The combination of correct statements is: Question: Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the:

1. exciter control relay and the generator breaker open. 2. exciter control relay opens.

3. exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open. 4. generator breaker opens.

Question: When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens:

1. the tie breaker.

2. the exciter breaker and the generator breaker. 3. the generator breaker.

4. the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

Question: If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field: 1. the current will increase.

2. a force will be exerted on the conductor. 3. the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease. 4. there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.

Question: On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type: 1. AC generator over-voltage 2. AC generator under-voltage 3. over-current 4. over-speed 5. under-frequency 6. undue vibration of AC generators The combination of correct statements is :

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Question: The purpose of a battery control unit is generally to isolate the battery: 1 - from the bus when the battery charge has been completed 2 - when there is a battery overheat condition 3 - in case of an internal short circuit 4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:

Question: When a conductor cuts the field lines of a magnetic field: 1. The field will collapse.

2. There will be no effect on the conductor. 3. The current will stop.

4. An lorentz force is induced in the conductor.

Question: When a persistent underexcitation fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft mains with another AC generator, the protection device opens:

1. the generator control relay and the generator breaker.

2. the exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker. 3. the tie breaker.

4. the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

Question: On detection of a persistent phase imbalance between an AC generator connected to the main bus bars and other AC generators, the protection device that opens is/are the:

1. generator breaker and the tie breaker(s). 2. exciter control relay and the generator breaker. 3. generator breaker.

4. tie breaker(s).

Question: The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the: 1. camshaft.

2. propeller blades. 3. accessory gear box.

4. gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.

Question: On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the:

1. engine RPM 2. overall efficiency 3. compression ratio 4. piston displacement

Question: The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change lines

1. 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.

2. 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines. 3. 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.

4. 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.

Question: Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the: 1. slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced 2. faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced

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3. faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.

4. faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs Question: The camshaft of a piston engine rotates at:

1. Twice the speed of the crankshaft. 2. Four times the speed of the crankshaft. 3. The same speed as the crankshaft. 4. Half the speed of the crankshaft.

Question: The crankshaft of a piston engine rotates at: 1. Four times the speed of the cam shaft.

2. Half the speed of the camshaft. 3. The same speed as the camshaft. 4. Twice the speed of the camshaft.

Question: On a four stroke reciprocating engine, the ignition in one cylinder will occur: 1. Twice each crankshaft revolution.

2. Once every two crankshaft revolutions. 3. Four times each crankshaft revolution. 4. Once each crankshaft revolution.

Question: During the compression stroke of a piston engine during the practicle cycle, valves are open as follows:

1. Both valves are open in the last part of the stroke. 2. Both valves are closed during the complete stroke.

3. The intake valve is open in last part of the stroke, the exhaust valve is open in the first part of the stroke.

4. The intake valve is open in the first part of the stroke, then both valves are closed. Question: Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust phases. Which of these statements about a piston engine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a piston engine is continuous. II. Theoretically the combustion occurs at constant pressure.

Question: Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust phases. Which of these statements about a piston engine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a piston engine is continuous. II. Theoretically the combustion occurs at constant volume.

Question: Assuming the same swept volume and no turbo charger, diesel engines compared to petrol engines:

1. operate at higher exhaust gas temperatures. 2. produce a higher maximum power output. 3. produce less maximum power output.

4. show a higher fuel flow at the same power output.

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1. the air mass flow through the engine is higher. 2. the compression ratio is much higher. 3. the EGT is higher.

4. the calorific value of the fuel is higher.

Question: Given the following statements about diesel engines. 1 power is regulated by the

throttle valve. 2 there is no throttle valve. 3 power is set by the fuel flow. 4 thermal efficiency is lower than that for a petrol engine. 5 diesel fuel is less inflammable than petrol. The

combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

Question: Diesel engines always produce a certain amount of soot, because: 1. the fuel droplets are too small.

2. the mixture is always too rich. 3. the intake air is too cold.

4. the fuel droplets coming from the atomiser do not burn completely. Question: The octane rating of a fuel characterises the :

1. quantity of heat generated by its combustion 2. the anti-knock capability

3. fuel volatility

4. fuel electrical conductivity Question: Vapour lock is:

1. vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor 2. the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor 3. the formation of water vapour in a fuel system 4. vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor

Question: A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended: 1. provided that the grade is lower

2. provided that it is an aeronautical petrol 3. never

4. provided that the grade is higher

Question: The cylinder head and oil temperatures may exceed their normal operating ranges if: 1. a lower octane rating than specified for the engine is used.

2. a higher octane rating than specified for the engine is used. 3. the engine is operated at a too rich mixture.

4. the engine is operated at a higher than normal oil pressure.

Question: Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are: 1. low pressure variable swash plate pumps.

2. high pressure variable swash plate pumps. 3. centrifugal high pressure pumps.

4. centrifugal low pressure type pumps.

Question: Variations in mixture ratios for carburettors are achieved by the adjustment of: 1. fuel flow, air flow and temperature.

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2. fuel flow.

3. fuel flow and air flow. 4. air flow.

Question: In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to:

1. weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude. 2. enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.

3. correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude. 4. prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.

Question: With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller?

1. Fuel Flow indicator.

2. Cylinder head temperature indicator. 3. RPM and MAP indicator.

4. RPM indicator.

Question: The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:

1. ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the injection system.

2. create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system. 3. prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.

4. create the suction necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor main jets. Question: The safest method of priming a piston engine for starting is:

1. Injection of fuel through spark plug holes.

2. By turning the propeller sever times with the throttle wide open. 3. Pumping the throttle.

4. Injection of fuel in the cylinder intake ports.

Question: To enable proper functioning of a piston engine during throttle advance a carburettor fitted with:

1. An accelerator pump. 2. A mixture control. 3. A power jet.

4. A diffuser (compensating jet).

Question: When applying precautionary carburettor heating on a reciprocating engine with a fixed pitch propeller:

1. The RPM decreases.

2. The mixture becomes leaner. 3. The mixture does not change. 4. The RPM increases.

Question: When applying precautionary carburettor heating on a reciprocating engine with a constant speed propeller:

1. The RPM increases.

2. The RPM remains constant. 3. The RPM decreases.

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4. The mixture becomes leaner.

Question: The function of the primer pump in a reciprocating engine is to: 1. provide additional fuel for an engine start.

2. to serve as main supply pump in a fuel injection system. 3. inject additional fuel during engine acceleration.

4. serve as an alternate pump in case of an engine driven pump failure. Question: The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by:

1. altering the depression on the main discharge tube. 2. varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube. 3. varying the air supply to the main discharge tube.

4. moves the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control.

Question: In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of:

1. compression of air at the carburettor venturi 2. low volatility of aviation fuel

3. vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor 4. freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor

Question: With respect to a piston engine aircraft, ice in the carburettor: 1. will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.

2. may form at OAT's higher than +10°C. 3. will only form at OAT's below +10°C.

4. will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.

Question: Which of these statements is correct regarding piston engine induction system icing? 1. Ice accretion affects both fuel systems and engines equipped with carburettors. 2. Ice on the throttle valve is usually formed in the induction system of fuel injection systems. 3. Induction system icing affects only engines equipped with carburettors.

4. Fuel ice is normally formed in the induction system of fuel injection systems.

Question: Excessive priming of a piston engine should be avoided because: 1. it drains the

carburettor float chamber 2. the risk of engine fire. 3. the risk of flooding the engine. 4. it fouls the spark plugs. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

Question: The main reason for opening the cowl flaps is to control the: 1. E.G.T (exhaust gas temperature)

2. oil temperature 3. cabin temperature

4. C.H.T. (cylinder head temperature)

Question: For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the: 1. oil pressure.

2. quantity of oil. 3. oil temperature. 4. outside pressure.

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Question: Viscosity is

1. the flow velocity inside the oil lines.

2. the tendency of a liquid or gas to resist flow. 3. the pressure resistance of an oil.

4. the temperature dependence of an oil.

Question: The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: 1. pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump. 2. pressure in the oil tank reservoir.

3. difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure. 4. pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.

Question: The purpose of the contact breaker is to: 1. control the primary circuit of the magneto 2. connect the secondary coil to the distributor

3. connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil 4. connect the battery to the magneto

Question: The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux changes) in the primary coil of a magneto are accomplished by the:

1. contact breaker points opening.

2. rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature. 3. distributor arm aligning with one of the high voltage segments. 4. contact breaker points closing.

Question: An aircraft magneto is switched off by: 1. grounding the primary circuit. 2. opening the primary circuit. 3. opening the secondary circuit. 4. grounding the secondary circuit. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

Question: If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be: 1. excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.

2. fouled spark plugs 3. switch wire grounded 4. defective condenser

Question: Once the engine has started, ignition systems of piston engines are: 1. dependent on the AC-Generator.

2. dependent on the battery.

3. dependent on the DC-Generator.

4. independent of the electrical system of the aircraft.

Question: The operating principle of magnetos in a piston engine ignition system consists of: 1. creating a brief high intensity magnetic field that will be sent through the distributor at the

appropriate time.

2. breaking the primary circuit in order to induce a low amperage, high voltage current, which is distributed to the spark plugs.

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4. accumulating in a capacitor a low voltage current from the battery and inducing it as a high voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.

Question: The ignition system of a running piston engine receives electrical energy from: 1. generators.

2. batteries. 3. capacitors.

4. rotating permanent magnets.

Question: As altitude increases, the mixture ratio of a piston engine should be adjusted to : 1. increase the mixture ratio.

2. reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.

3. increase the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density. 4. reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the increasing air density.

Question: When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the: 1. volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.

2. volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.

3. amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced. 4. amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.

Question: Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively: 1. high barometric pressure.

2. low barometric pressure. 3. weak mixture.

4. rich mixture.

Question: An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to: 1. control the carburettor inlet air flow.

2. assist the pilot to set the correct mixture. 3. control the fuel temperature.

4. control the cylinder head temperature.

Question: Which one of the following factors would be most likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring within a piston engine?

1. The use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating.

2. Slightly retarding the ignition timing. 3. High cylinder head temperature.

4. Using an engine with a low compression ratio.

Question: From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should:

1. increase or decrease, depending on the engine type 2. remain the same

3. decrease 4. increase

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Question: Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if: 1. the aircraft cruises at low speed with the correct mixture. 2. the engine runs at maximum continuous power for too long. 3. the aircraft descends continuously at idle power.

4. power is increased too abruptly.

Question: At constant RPM with a normally aspirated engine and a fixed pitch propeller, as altitude increases, if the mixture is not leaned:

1. the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the fuel flow increases.

2. the volume of air entering the carburettor remains constant and the fuel flow increases. 3. both the density of air entering the carburettor and the fuel flow decrease.

4. the mixture remains constant and the fuel flow decreases.

Question: A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments. This results in a

1. lower cylinder head temperature. 2. higher torque.

3. higher efficiency. 4. increase of power.

Question: When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause:

1. high engine RPM

2. high cylinder head temperature 3. high manifold pressure

4. low cylinder head temperature

Question: On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, theoretical best economy is shown at:

1. point 1. 2. point 4. 3. point 2. 4. point 3.

Question: Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop. During deceleration:

1. with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power. 2. when feathered, the propeller produces

thrust and absorbs no engine power. 3. when braking, the propeller supplies

negative thrust and absorbs engine power.

4. at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil.

Question: When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided by:

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1. increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM. 2. adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.

3. reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.

4. increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.

Question: If the manifold pressure is increased, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller : 1. will increase and after a short time will reduce.

2. will reduce so that the engine RPM can increase

3. will remain the same 4. It will increase

Question: Excessive pressure in the cylinders of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, can be caused by the combination of:

1. high manifold pressure and high RPM. 2. low manifold pressure and low RPM. 3. low manifold pressure and high RPM. 4. high manifold pressure and low RPM.

Question: The mechanism to change the propeller blade angle of a small piston engine aeroplane in flight is operated:

1. hydraulically by hydraulic fluid. 2. hydraulically by engine oil. 3. manually by the pilot.

4. by aerodynamic forces.

Question: Concerning a constant speed propeller of a twin engine aeroplane controlled by a single-acting pitch control unit:

1. oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.

2. oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle. 3. spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle. 4. aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle. Question: The blade angle of a constant-speed propeller

1. is independent of the true air speed. 2. decreases with increasing true air speed. 3. increases with increasing true air speed. 4. only varies with engine RPM.

Question: When TAS increases, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller will (RPM and throttle levers are not moved):

1. remain constant. 2. decrease.

3. first decrease and after a short time increase to its previous value. 4. increase.

Question: On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller: 1. the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.

2. in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant. 3. manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting.

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4. in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening the throttle.

Question: On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge always indicates...

1. a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground. 2. zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.

3. a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running. 4. a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

Question: When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected because of a :

1. an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high. 2. a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low. 3. a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high. 4. an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.

Question: In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by: 1. both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.

2. a manifold pressure gauge only.

3. both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.

4. a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm readings.

Question: The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is: 1. a piston compressor.

2. an axial compressor. 3. a hybrid compressor. 4. a radial compressor.

Question: The conditions which can cause detonation are: 1. Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.

2. High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute. 3. Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute. 4. High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute. Question: The By-pass ratio of an engine is the ratio of:

1. Exhaust gas pressure to air intake pressure. 2. Primary to secondary air.

3. Cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine. 4. Primary to tertiary air.

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1. 2 and 2.5. 2. 5 and 6. 3. 2.5 and 3. 4. 3 and 4.

Question: Specific fuel

consumption for a turbo-prop engine can be expressed in kg per: 1. hour per unit of shaft power.

2. hour per nm. 3. hour per km.

4. per unit of shaft power.

Question: Given the following information about an aeroplane with a turbojet engine: - mass air flow 50 kg/s - TAS 90 m/s - exhaust nozzle gas velocity 150 m/s - exhaust nozzle static pressure 1050 hPa - ambiant static pressure 1000 hPa - cross-sectional area of the nozzle 0.10 m2 Net engine thrust equals:

1. 2500 N. 2. 3500 N. 3. 3000 N. 4. 4000 N.

Question: Assuming the jet pipe is not choked, the equation to calculate jet engine thrust T (with mass flow m, airspeed Vv and jet velocity Vj ) is:

1. T = m(Vv + Vj) 2. T = mVj

3. T = m(Vj - Vv) 4. T = m(Vv - Vj)

Question: Given: p0 = static ambient pressure t0 = static ambient temperature m = air mass flow Vv = True Air Speed Vj = jet efflux (exhaust) velocity pj = jet efflux (exhaust) static pressure tj = jet efflux (exhaust) static temperature A = exhaust cross-sectional area The thrust T of a jet engine is:

1. T = m(Vj -Vv ) + A(pj - p0). 2. T = m(Vj - Vv ) + A(tj - t0). 3. T = m(Vv -Vj ) + A(t j- t0). 4. T = m(Vv -Vj ) + A(pj - p0).

Question: The engine type represented in the annex is: 1. twin spool turbofan.

2. single spool turbofan. 3. triple spool turbofan. 4. twin spool turbojet.

Question: The engine type represented in the drawing is a:

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1. twin-spool turbojet. 2. single spool turbofan. 3. twin-spool turbofan. 4. triple-spool turbofan.

Question: Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust phases. Which of these statements about a gas turbine are correct or incorrect? I.

The process in a gas turbine engine is continuous. II. Theoretically the combustion occurs at constant volume.

Question: One of the advantages of multiple-spool jet engine designs is that: 1. if one spool seizes, the remaining spool(s) will continue to operate normally. 2. engine length can be reduced.

3. a smaller air starter driving only a single spool can be used. 4. a compressor stall cannot occur under any condition.

Question: A booster or LP compressor in a twin spool turbofan:

1. rotates at a rotor speed different from both fan, HP compressor and HP turbine. 2. rotates at the same rotor speed as the HP compressor.

3. rotates at the same rotor speed as the fan. 4. rotates at the same rotor speed as the HP turbine.

Question: The by-pass air in a turbo fan engine has the effect of a lower specific fuel consumption by causing an overall:

1. decrease in combustion chamber temperature and higher thermal efficiency. 2. decrease in average exhaust gas flow velocity and a higher mass flow. 3. increase in the mean jet temperature and increase in thermal efficiency.

4. increase in average exhaust gas flow velocity thus increasing engine pressure ratio. Question: For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:

1. external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass 2. internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass 3. fuel flow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

4. internal airflow mass divided by the fuel flow mass

Question: The static thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power: 1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity 2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air 3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving 4 - is independant of the outside air temperature The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

Question: A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 220 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 220 kg/s has a bypass ratio of: 0

Question: A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 500 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 250 kg/s has a bypass ratio of: 1

Figure

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