1
1.. W hW hiicch bh beesst t ddeessccrriibbe te thhe se soouunnd wd waavvee?? a
a.. IIt t mmaay y bbe e lloonnggiittuuddiinnaall b
b.. IIt t iis s aallwwaayys s ttrraannssvveerrssee c.
c. It is always longitudinalIt is always longitudinal d
d.. AAlll l oof f tthhe e aabboovvee 2.
2. WhWhicich h oof f tthe he fofollllowowining cg can an nonot t ttraravevel tl thrhrououggh ah a vacuum?
vacuum? a
a.. EElleeccttrroommaaggnneettiic c wwaavvee b b.. RRaaddiio o wwaavvee c. c. SoundwaveSoundwave d d.. LLiigghht t wwaavvee 3.
3. ThThrorougugh wh whihicch mh meedidium um dodoes es sosounund td traravevel fl faaststesestt?? a a.. AAiir r b b.. WWaatteer r c. c. SteelSteel d d.. MMeerrccuurryy 4
4.. SSppeeeed d tthhaat t iis s ffaasstteer r tthhaan n tthhaat t oof f ssoouun dn d.. a
a.. UUllttrraassoonniicc b. b. SupersonicSupersonic c c.. SSuubbssoonniicc d d.. TTrraannssoonniicc 5 5.. W hW haat t iis s tthhe se sppeee d e d oof sf soouunnd id in n aaiir r aat t 2200°°CC?? a. a. 1087 ft/s1087 ft/s b b.. 1111000 0 fftt//ss c c.. 1111226 6 fftt//ss d d.. 22000 0 fftt//ss 6.
6. CaCalclcululatate a e a hhalalf f wwavavelelenengtgth h ssouound nd fofor r ssouound nd of of 16000 Hz 16000 Hz a a.. 335 5 fftt b b.. 110 0 fftt c. c. 0.035 ft0.035 ft d d.. 11000 0 fftt 7.
7. ThThe e lolowewesst t frfreqequeuencncy y ththat at a ha humuman an eear ar ccan an hheaear r is is a a.. 5 5 HHzz b b.. 220 0 HHzz c c.. 330 0 HHzz d d.. 220 0 HHzz 8.
8. SSouound nd ththat at vivibrbraattes es at at ffrereqqueuencncy ty too oo hihiggh fh for or tthehe human ear to hear (over 20 kHz)
human ear to hear (over 20 kHz) a a.. SSuubbssoonniicc b. b. UltrasonicUltrasonic c c.. TTrraannssoonniicc d d.. SStteerreeoo 9.
9. ThThe fe frreqequuenenccy iy intnterervaval bl betetwweeeen tn twwo so sououndnds ws whohossee frequency ratio is 10 frequency ratio is 10 a. a. OctaveOctave b b.. HHaallf f ooccttaavvee c
c.. TThhiirrdd--ooccttaavvee d
d.. DDeeccaaddee 10
10.. A 16 A 16 KHKHz z sosounund id is s hohow w mmanany y ococtataveves s hihighgher er ththanan a 500 Hz sound a 500 Hz sound a. a. 22 b. b. 55 c. c. 44 d. d. 88 11
11.. SounSound d wawaveves s cocompmpososed ed of of bubut t onone fe frereququenency cy isis a/an
a/an a
a.. IInnffrra a ssoouunndd b.
b. Pure tonePure tone c
c.. SSttrruuccttuurre e bboorrnnee d
d.. RReessiidduuaal l ssoouunndd 12
12.. SounSound wd wavave he has as twtwo mo maiain cn chahararactctererisistitics cs whwhicichh are
are a
a.. HHiigghhnneesss s aannd d lloouuddnneessss b
b.. TToonne e aannd d lloouuddnneessss c.
c. Pitch and loudnessPitch and loudness d
d.. RRaarreeffaaccttiioonns s aannd d ccoommpprreessssiioonnss 13
13.. WheWhen wn wavaves es bebend nd awaway ay ffrorom sm sttrraiaigght ht llinines es of of travel, it is called
travel, it is called a
a.. RReefflleeccttiioonn b
b.. DDiiffffrraaccttiioonn c
c.. RRaarreeffaaccttiioonn d.
d. RefractionRefraction
14
14.. ThThe ae ampmplilitutude de of of sosounund wd wavaveses, , ththe me maxaximimum um didispsplalacecemement nt of of each air particle, is the property which perceive as _____ of a sound each air particle, is the property which perceive as _____ of a sound a
a.. PPiittcchh b
b.. IInntteennssiittyy c
c.. LLoouuddnneessss d
d.. HHaarrmmoonniiccss 15
15.. It It is is ththe we weaeakekest st sosounund td thahat at aveverarage ge huhumaman hn heaeariring ng cacan den detetectct.. a
a.. SSPPL L = = 0 0 ddBB b
b.. TThhrreesshhoolld d oof f hheeaarriinngg c
c.. RReeffeerreenncce e pprreessssuurre e = = 2 2 x x 1100--55NN//mm22 d.
d. A, b, cA, b, c 16
16.. WhaWhat it is a s a dedevivice ce ththat at is is usused ed to to memeasasurure te the he heheararing ing sesensnsititivivitity oy of f a person? a person? a. a. Audiometer Audiometer b b.. OOTTDDRR c c.. SSLLMM d d.. SSppeeccttrruum m aannaallyyzzeer r 17
17.. WhaWhat t is is ththe de devevicice ue usesed id in mn meaeasusuriring ng sosounund pd preressssurure le levevelelss incorporating a microphone, amplification, filtering and a display. incorporating a microphone, amplification, filtering and a display. a
a.. AAuuddiioommeetteer r b b.. OOTTDDRR c. c. SLMSLM d d.. SSppeeccttrruum m aannaallyyzzeer r 18
18.. WhaWhat wt weigeighthted sed scacale ile in a n a sosounund led levevel ml meteter ger givives es a ra reaeadiding ng ththat at isis most closely to the response of
most closely to the response of the human ear?the human ear? a.
a. Weighted scale AWeighted scale A b
b.. WWeeiigghhtteed d ssccaalle e BB c
c.. WWeeiigghhtteed d ssccaalle e CC d
d.. WWeeiigghhtteed d ssccaalle e DD 19
19.. FoFor air aircrcraraft nft noioise mse meaeasusureremementnts, ts, the whe weieighghtiting sng scacale tle that hat is uis usesedd is _____.
is _____. a
a.. WWeeiigghhtteed d ssccaalle e AA b
b.. WWeeiigghhtteed d ssccaalle e BB c
c.. WWeeiigghhtteed d ssccaalle e CC d.
d. Weighted scale DWeighted scale D 20
20.. IIt it is ts thhe de devevicice ue usesed td to co calalibibrratate ae an Sn SLMLM?? a
a.. MMiiccrroopphhoonnee b. b. PistonphonePistonphone c c.. TTeelleepphhoonnee d d.. FFiilltteer r 21
21.. _________ i_ is ts the he sosounund pd powower er memeasasurured ed ovover er ththe ae arerea ua upopon wn whihich ch isis received.
received. a
a.. SSoouunnd d pprreessssuurree b
b.. SSoouunnd d eenneerrggyy c
c.. SSoouunnd d iinntteennssiittyy d
d.. SSoouunnd d pprreessssuurre e lleevveell 22
22.. A mA meaeasusure re of of ththe ie intntenensisity ty of of sosounund id in cn comompaparirisoson tn to ao anonothther er sound intensity sound intensity a a.. PPhhoonn b. b. DecibelDecibel c c.. PPaassccaall d d.. WWaattttss 23
23.. CaCalclcululatate te the he sosounund id intntenensisity ty lelevevel l in in dB dB of of a sa souound nd whwhososee intensity is 0.007 W/m2. intensity is 0.007 W/m2. a a.. 995 5 ddBB b b.. 991 1 ddBB c. c. 98 dB98 dB d d.. 11001 1 ddBB 24
24.. WhaWhat it is ts the he sosounund pd preressssurure le levevel el fofor a r a gigiveven sn souound nd whwhosose Re RMSMS pressure is 200/m2? pressure is 200/m2? a a.. 22000 0 ddBB b b.. 220 0 ddBB c. c. 140 dB140 dB d d.. 114 4 ddBB 25
25.. WhaWhat it is ts the he sosounund id intntenensisity ty fofor ar an Rn RMS MS prpresessusure re of of 20200 P0 Pasascacal?l? a a.. 990 0 WW//mm22 b. b. 98 W/m298 W/m2 c c.. 11008 8 WW//mm22 d d.. 888 8 WW//mm22 26
26.. ThThe se souound pnd preressssurure le levevel el is is inincrcreaseased bed by _y _______ d__ dB iB if tf the he prpresessusurere is doubled. is doubled. a. a. 33 b. b. 44 c. c. 55 d. d. 66
27. The sound pressure level is increased by _____ dB if the intensity is doubled.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
28. If four identical sounds are added what is the increase in level in dB?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
29. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or ceilings. a. Flanking transmission
b. Reflection c. Refraction d. Reverberation
30. _____ is the continuing presence of an audible sound after the sound source has stop.
a. Flutter echo
b. Sound concentration c. Sound shadow d. Reverberation
31. Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB a. Echo time
b. Reverberation time c. Delay time
d. Transient time
32. A room containing relatively little sound absorption a. Dead room
b. Anechoic room c. Live room d. Free-field
33. A room in which the walls offer essentially 100% absorption, therefore simulating free field conditions. a. Dead room
b. Anechoic room c. Live room d. Closed room
34. Calculate the reverberation time of the room, which has a volume of 8700 ft3 and total sound absorption 140 sabins.
a. 0.3 sec b. 3.5 sec c. 3 sec d. 0.53 sec
35. It is an audio transducer that converts acoustic pressure in air into its equivalent electrical impulses a. Loudspeaker
b. Amplifier c. Baffle d. Microphone
36. _____ is a pressure type microphone with permanent coil as a transducing element.
a. Dynamic b. Condenser c. Magnetic d. Carbon
37. A microphone which has an internal impedance of 25 kΩ is _____ type.
a. High impedance b. Low impedance c. Dynamic d. Magnetic
38. A microphone that uses the piezoelectric effect a. Dynamic
b. Condenser c. Crystal d. Carbon
39. _____ is a type of loudspeaker driver with an effective diameter of 5 inches used at midrange audio frequency.
a. Tweeter b. Woofer c. Mid-range d. A or C
40. _____ is measure of how much sound is produced from the electrical signal.
a. Sensitivity b. Distortion c. Efficiency
d. Frequency response
41. It describes the output of a microphone over a range of frequencies.
a. Directivity b. Sensitivity
c. Frequency response d. All of the above
42. A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1 mW if the electrical input is 10 W. What is its rated efficiency?
a. -10 dB b. -20 dB c. -30 dB d. -40 dB
43. An amplifier can deliver 100 W to a loudspeaker. If the rated efficiency of the loudspeaker is -60 dB. What is the maximum intensity 300 ft from it?
a. 10 dB b. 20 dB c. 30 dB d. 40 dB
44. Speaker is a device that
a. Converts sound waves into current and voltage b. Converts current variations into sound waves c. Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy d. Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic energy
45. The impedance of most drivers is about _____ ohms at their resonant frequency.
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
46. It is a transducer used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.
a. Microphone b. Baffle
c. Magnetic assemble d. Driver
47. It is an enclosure used to prevent front and back wave cancellation.
a. Loudspeaker b. Driver c. Baffle d. Frame
48. A circuit that divides the frequency components into separate bands in order to have individual feeds to the different drivers.
a. Suspension system b. Dividing network c. Magnet assembly d. Panel board
49. _____ is early reflection of sound. a. Echo
b. Pure sound c. Reverberation d. Intelligible sound
50. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. a. Dolby
b. DBx c. dBa d. dBk
51. Using a microphone at less than the recommended working distance will create a _____ which greatly increases the low frequency signals.
a. Roll-off
b. Proximity effect c. Drop out
d. None of the choices
52. What is the unit of loudness? a. Sone
b. Phon c. Decibel d. Mel
53. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level a. Noy b. dB c. Sone d. Phon
54. What is the loudness level of a 1KHz tone if its intensity is 1 x 10-5W/cm2?
a. 100 phons b. 105 phons c. 110 phons d. 100 phons
55. What is the process of sending voice, speech, music or image intended for reception by the general public? a. Navigation
b. Telephony c. Broadcasting d. Mixing
56. What is the frequency tolerance for the RF carrier in the standard AM radio broadcast band?
a. Zero b. 20 Hz c. 10 Hz d. 20 KHz
57. The transmitting antenna for an AM broadcast station should have a _____ polarization.
a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Circular d. Elliptical
58. The part of a broadcast day from 6 PM to 6 AM local time
a. Daytime b. Nighttime c. Bed time
d. Experimental period
59. The service area where the signal is not subject to fading and co-channel interference.
a. Primary Service Area b. Secondary Service Area c. Intermittent Service Area d. Quarternary Service Area
60. It is a resistive load used in place of an antenna to test a transmitter under normal loaded condition without actually radiating the transmitter’s output signal. a. Auxiliary Tx
b. Main Tx c. Secondary Tx d. Artificial Antenna
61. The operating power of the auxiliary transmitter shall not be less than _____% or never greater than the authorized operating power of the main transmitter. a. 5
b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
62. What are the frequency limits of the MF BC band? a. 300-3000 kHz
b. 3-30 MHz c. 535-1605 kHz d. 88-108 MHz
63. The center to center spacing between two adjacent stations in the Phil. AM BC band is ____. a. 9 kHz
b. 200 kHz c. 36 kHz d. 800 kHz
64. How many AM stations can be accommodated in a 150-kHz bandwidth if the highest modulating frequency is 10 kHz?
a. 10 b. 15 c. 7 d. 14
65. Short wave broadcasting operates in what band? a. MF
b. HF c. VHF d. VLF
66. What does the acronym STL stand for? a. Station-to-link
b. Signal-to-loss-ratio c. Shout-to-live
d. Studio-to-transmitter-link
67. One of the main considerations in the selection of antenna site is (AM)
a. Conductivity of the soil b. Height of the terrain c. Elevation of the site d. Accessibility
68. One of the broadcast transmission auxiliary services is: a. Remote pick-up
b. STL
c. Commun ication, Coordination an d Con trol d. All of the above
69. What is the spacing between any two adjacent channels in the FM broadcast band?
a. 20 KHz b. 36 KHz c. 200 KHz d. 800 KHz
70. The first channel in the FM BC band has a center frequency of a. 88 MHz
b. 88.1 MHz c. 88.3 MHz d. 108 MHz
71. What is the radio transmission of two separate signals, left, and right, used to create a multidimensional effect on the receiver?
a. SCA
b. Stereo system c. Pilot transmission
d. Monophonic transmission
72. The carrier frequency tolerance for FM broadcasting is _____. a. 25 kHz
b. 2 kHz c. 20 kHz d. 30 kHz
73. What is the modulation used by the stereophonic subcarrier? a. FM
b. PM c. ISB d. DSB
74. What is the pilot signal for stereo FM? a. 4.25 MHz
b. 10 kHz c. 19 KHz d. 38 KHz
75. With stereo FM transmission, does a monaural receiver produce all the sounds that a stereo d oes?
a. Yes b. No
c. Either a or b d. Neither a or b
76. Where is de-emphasis added in a stereo FM system? a. Before the matrix at the TX
b. Before the matrix at the RX c. After the matrix at the TX d. After the matrix at the RX
77. Where is the pre-emphasis added in a stereo FM system? a. Before the matrix at the TX
b. Before the matrix at the RX c. After the matrix at the TX d. After the matrix at the RX
78. The normal frequency for an SCA subcarrier is _____ KHz. a. 67
b. 76 c. 38 d. 19
79. A monaural FM receiver receives only the _____ signal of a stereo multiplex transmission.
a. L + R b. L – R c. Both a & b
d. 67 KHz
80. When fed to the stereo FM modulator, in what form are the L – R signals?
a. AF b. DSBSC c. 19 kHz d. 38 kHz
81. An additional channel of multiplex information that is authorized by the FCC for stereo FM radio stations to feed services such as commercial-free programming to selected customers.
a. STL b. EBS c. EIA d. SCA
82. The class of FM station, which has an authorized radiated power not exceeding 125 KW:
a. Class C b. Class A c. Class D d. Class B
83. An FM broadcast station, which has an authorized transmitter power not exceeding 10 KW and ERP not exceeding 30 KW:
a. Class D b. Class C c. Class A d. Class B
84. A class of FM station which is limited in antenna height of 500 ft. above average terrain
a. Class D b. Class C c. Class A d. Class B
85. What type of broadcast service might have their antennas on top of hills?
a. FM b. AM c. TV d. A & C
86. How are guardbands allocated in commercial FM stations?
a. 25 kHz on either sides of the transmitting signal
b. 50 kHz on each side of the carrier c. 75 kHz deviation
d. 15 kHz modulation
87. How many commercial FM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a commercial TV station?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
88. How many international commercial AM broadcast channels can fit into the bandwidth occupied by a
commercial TV station? a. 100
b. 200 c. 125 d. 600
89. What kind of modulation is used for the sound portion of a commercial broadcast TV transmission? a. PM
b. FM c. C3F d. AM
90. Estimate the bandwidth occupied by the sound portion of a TV transmission in US.
a. 25 kHz b. 800 kHz c. 80 kHz d. 200 kHz
91. What is the main reason why television picture signal uses amplitude modulation, while voice is frequency modulated?
a. Better efficiency
b. Eliminate attenuation of both video and audio
c. Maintain synchronized scanning between transmit and received video
d. To minimize interference between signals at received end
92. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver are _____ respectively.
a. 41.25 MHz, 45.75 MHz b. 45.25 MHz, 41.75 MHz c. 41.75 MHz, 45.25 MHz d. 45.75 MHz, 41.25 MHz
93. What is the separation between visual and aural carrier in TV broadcasting?
a. 1.25 MHz b. 4.5 MHz c. 5.75 MHz d. 0.25 MHz
94. What is the separation between the lower limit of a channel and the aural carrier?
a. 1.25 MHz b. 4.5 MHz c. 5.75 MHz d. 0.25 MHz
95. What is the visual carrier for channel 12? a. 205.25 MHz
b. 55.25 MHz c. 65.75 MHz d. 59.75 MHz
96. What is the aural carrier for channel 3? a. 61.25 MHz
b. 55.25 MHz c. 65.75 MHz d. 59.75 MHz
97. What is color subcarrier for channel 2? a. 68.83 MHz
b. 211.25 MHz c. 58.83 MHz d. 214.83 MHz
98. If the sound carrier for UHF channel 23 is 529.75 MHz, what is the frequency of the tuner’s local oscillator, when turned to this channel? a. 571 MHz
b. 511 MHz c. 498 MHz d. 500 MHz
99. What is the frequency tolerance in the color carrier of TV broadcasting?
a. 2 kHz b. 20 Hz c. 10 Hz d. 1 kHz
100. What is the exact picture carrier frequency for frequency for channel 7 offset by – 10 KHz?
a 175.25 MHz b 175.26 MHz c 174 MHz d 175.24 MHz
101. TV channels 7, 11 and 13 are known as _____. a. Mid band UHF
b. Low band UHF c. High band VHF d. low band UHF
102. What is eliminated by using interlaced scanning? a. Noise
b. Excessive BW c. Frame d. Flicker
103. What percentage of the primary colors used in color TV are needed to produce the brightest white?
a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue b. 33% red, 33% green, 33% blue c. 50% red, 28% green, 22% blue d. 58% red, 20% green, 22% blue 104. The color with the most luminance is
Red Yellow
d. Blue
105. Suppose the signal from a color camera has R=0.8, G=0.4 and B=0.2, where 1 represents the maximum signal possible. Determine the value at the luminance signal a. 0.498
b. 0.254 c. 0.1325 d. 1.4
106. In the previous problem, calculate the chrominance signal
a. 0.305 b. 0.304 c. 0.498 d. 0.022
107. The three complementary colors are: a. White, yellow, cyan
b. Black, white, gray c. Yellow, magenta, cyan d. Violet, indigo, fushcia
108. When the colors Magenta and Yellow are mixed the resultant color is:
a. Red b. White c. Blue d. Green
109. Which of the following consist of two of the three primary colors in television signal? a) red, b) violet, c) yellow, and d) blue
a. A and B b. B and C c. C and D d. A and D
110. The studio camera produces a luminance signal that contains information about
a. The musical content b. The speech content
c. The brightness of the scene d. The color content of the scene
111. Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal?
a. I b. Q c. Y d. Z
112. Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz C signal with bandwidth of 0 to 1.3 MHz?
a. I signal b. Q signal c. Y signal d. X signal
113. Which of the following is the color video signal transmitted as amplitude modulation of the 3.58 MHz C signal in quadrature with bandwidth of 0 to 0.5 MHz? a. I signal
b. Q signal c. Y signal d. Z signal
114. The _____ affects the difference between black and white on the picture tube and controls the gain of the video amplifier
a. Brightness control b. Volume control c. Power control d. Contrast control
115. Which of the following is not a requirement for a color TV signal?
a. compatibility with b lack and white receivers b. Within 6 MHz bandwidth
c. Simulate a wide variety of colors d. Functional with baron super antenna 116. How many electron beams actually leave the electron gun of a single-gun color CRT?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1/3
117. What is the difference between the sound carrier and color subcarrier frequencies?
a. 1.25 MHz b. 3.58 MHz c. 4.5 MHz d. 0.92 MHz
118. What does aspect ratio mean?
a. Ratio of the screen width to its height b. Ratio of the screen hei ght to i ts wid th c. Ratio of the screen dia gonal to its wid th d. Ratio of the screen dia gonal to its heigh t 119. What is the aspect ratio for HDTV system? a. 4/3
b. 9/7 c. 19/6 d. 16/9
120. The signal that will give the exact color wavelength is _____. a. Hue
b. Saturation c. Carrier d. Monochrome
121. Which of the following represents the intensity of a given color? a. Hue
b. Saturation c. Carrier d. Monochrome
122. The _____ ensures that the electron beam will strike the correct phosphor dot on the TV screen.
a. Coating
b. Aperture Mask c. Diplexer d. Duplexer
123. In a TV receiver, what is the horizontal signal frequency? a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz c. 15750 Hz d. 157625 Hz
124. In a TV receiver, what is the vertical signal frequency? a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz c. 15750 Hz d. 157625 Hz
125. What scheme is employed to cause the electron beam in the TV receiver and the electron beam in the studio camera to track identically? a. Interlacing
b. NTSC c. Interleaving
d. Transmission of sync pulses
126. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during a. Horizontal blanking
b. Vertical blanking c. The serrations d. Equalizing intervals
127. What is the return of the electron beam in a CRT from right to left or from bottom to top?
a. Relay b. Flyback c. Utilization d. Resolution
128. What is the North American TV standard video? a. PAL
b. SECAM c. NTSC d. FCC
129. What is the maximum allowable frequency deviation in the audio section of a TV signal for PAL/SECAM?
a. 25 kHz b. 50 kHz c. 75 kHz d. 100 kHz
130. What is the frame frequency in the US TV system? a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz c. 15750 Hz d. 157625 Hz
131. What is the highest video frequency set by the FCC for commercial TV? a. 4.2 MHz b. 15 MHz c. 6 MHz d. 5.5 MHz
132. What determines the maximum number of vertical picture elements?
a. Number of frames per second b. Number of lines on the screen c. Number of pixels
d. Number of fields per second
133. How many horizontal lines are used to develop a TV raster?
a. 615 b. 525 c. 750 d. 15750
134. The channel width in the U.S. TV system is : a. 2 MHz
b. 6 MHz c. 7 MHz d. 8 MHz
135. It is the popular TV camera designed with much smaller package and lower cost than its earlier designs a. Image orthicon
b. Iconoscope c. Vidicon d. Plumbicon
136. In a composite video signal, what is the relationship between the amplitude of the signal and the intensity of the electron beam in the receiver picture tube? a. The greater the amplitude the darker the picture
b. The lower the amplitude the darker the picture c. The greater the amplitude the lighter the picture d. No effect
137. If there are 625 lines per TV picture then the number of lines per field are:
a. 1250 b. 312.5 c. 625 d. 2500
138. What is the process of placing the chrominance signal in the band space between portions of the luminance signal?
a. Interlacing b. Fitting c. Sneaking d. Interleaving
139. How much time elapses between the start of one horizontal sync pulse and the next?
a. 10.2 μs b. 63.5 μs c. 16.67 μs d. 100 μs
140. Which of the following frequencies is wrong? a. 15 ,750 Hz for ho rizonta l syn c an d scanning b. 60 Hz for vertical sync and scanning
c. 31,500 Hz for the equalizing pulses and serrations in the vertical sync pulse
d. 31,500 Hz for the vertical scanning frequency 141. The camera tube that uses selenium, arsenic and tellurium
a. Plumbicon b. Vidicon c. Saticon d. Silicon Vidicon
142. The components of composite video signal are: a. Chroma signal
b. Blanking pulse c. Synchronizing pulse d. All of these
143. What is the smallest amount of information that can be displayed on a television screen?
a. Blip b. Burst
c. Pixel d. Bits
144. It is the quality of the TV picture after imperfections a. Aspect ratio
b. Utilization ratio c. A1
d. Monochrome
145. What section of a TV receiver determines the bandwidth and produces the most signal gain?
a. RF amplifier b. Audio amplifier c. IF amplifier d. Tuned circuit
