EPIDEMIOLOGY, HEALTH STATISTICS & RESEARCH
1. The 95 percent confidence interval for a sample mean value represents: A. The range in which the true population mean is most likely to exist. B. The author’s belief that the presented data are true.
C. The range in which 95 percent of the sample values fall. D. A test for statistical significance of the mean value.
2. OF the following statements, which best describes the specificity of a clinical test?
A. The proportion of non-diseased individuals who have a negative test
B. The proportion of diseased individuals who have a positive test C. The proportion of diseased and non-diseased individuals who are
correctly categorized by the test
D. The proportion of test-negative individuals who are free of disease Data from clinical studies are reported frequently in the form of “2 by 2” tables.
A 2 by 2 table for a hypothetical test is shown below:
Test Result Disease Present Disease Absent
Positive 50 20
Negative 30 50
3. What is the test sensitivity?
A. 63 percent C. 71 percent B. 29 percent D. 38 percent 4. What is the positive predictive value?
A. 71 percent C. 38 percent B. 47 percent D. 33 percent
5. You have decided to conduct a research project in your office. A number of steps should be taken to assure a successful study. What is the first step you should complete in planning your project?
A. Formulate the study question. B. Consult with a statistician.
C. Design a form for collecting data. D. Determine the necessary sample size.
6. You have conducted a clinical trial in which you measured blood pressure in the same patients during a control period and after 2 weeks of treatment with an experimental antihypertensive medication. Systolic blood pressure was the characteristic you measured. You now want to determine whether there was a significant difference in the average (mean) systolic blood pressure between the control and treatment periods. Which of the following is the most appropriate statistical procedure for this determination?
7.
A. Paired t test C. two sample t test B. Chi-square D. correlation coefficient 8. Experimental studies:
A. Are the most effective studies to assess causal relationships. B. Are synonymous with observational studies.
C. Require that subjects be randomly assigned to exposure and nonexposure groups at all times.
9. Which of the following statements is true regarding prospective cohort studies?
A. They measure the relative risk of developing a disease for an individual with an exposure.
B. Individuals are grouped on the basis of their disease status. C. Subject attrition is not a major potential flaw.
D. They cannot be used to observe multiple exposures and conditions. E. They are poor in elucidating temporal relationships between
exposure and disease.
10.Which of the following statements is true regarding cross-sectional studies?
A. They assess exposure and disease status simultaneously. B. They can yield information regarding disease incidence.
C. They are more time-consuming to perform than case-control or cohort studies.
D. They are an effective design to determine casual relationships. E. They are not an appropriate methodology to draw conclusions from
chart databases or census data.
11. Which of the following is an example of cohort studies?
A. Men are grouped as to whether or not they have had radioactive exposure; then their existing medical records are evaluated for a diagnosis of lung cancer.
B. Women are grouped as to whether or not they have chronic obstructive lung disease; then they are asked about their occupational history.
C. Women are given a questionnaire assessing weight and menstrual symptoms.
D. A group of elderly veterans are followed for adverse reactions to the flu vaccine.
12.A family physician believes that sterile butterfly stripping is just as effective as suturing with regard to the closure of simple lacerations. To test his theory, he uses sterile butterfly strips to close the next 25 lacerations that he sees in his office. He reports that 96 percent of the lacerations had excellent results. Which of the following statements is true regarding this experiment?
A. This is a case-series design.
B. This design is an ineffective one for the initial study of the phenomenon.
C. It can be assumed that all lacerations were equivalent with regard to location, extent, and mechanism of injury.
D. The next phase of study should be a prevalence design. E. Sterile butterfly stripping is at least equivalent to suturing with
regard to its ability to attain adequate wound closure. 13.In double-blind randomized clinical trials:
A. The distribution of characteristics between the exposure and nonexposure groups is determined by chance.
B. The investigator is aware of who is and who is not getting the exposure.
C. The subjects are not aware that they are taking part in a research protocol.
D. The subjects are permitted to choose whether they want to be in the exposure or non-exposure group.
OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH, INDUSTRIAL MEDICINE & MEDICAL SOCIOLOGY
14.The following agent/s causing diffuse mottling of the lungs:
A. Bagasse C. Silica
B. Candida D. TB
15.Substitute/s causing neurological problems:
A. Mercury C. Asbestos
B. Silica D. Bagasse
16.Pneumoconiosis is caused by:
A. Asbestos C. Bagassosis
B. Cotton dust D. Bagasse
17.This mineral dust is incurable and may lead to the development of Tuberculosis:
A. Silica C. Cryptococcus
B. Histoplasma D. Aspergillosis 18.An important component of an occupational history is:
A. temporal relationship of symptoms with work time B. associated symptoms among family members C. family illnesses
D. dietary history
19.The most exposed industry to ergonomic problems: A. Manufacturing C. Fishing
B. Mining D. Agriculture
20.Threshold limit value – is the time weighted average concentration which nearly all workers can be exposed daily without adverse effect for the following number of work hours/workweek:
A. 40-hour workweek C. 48-hour workweek B. 12-hour workday D. 6 hours work shift
SANITATION, ENVIRONMENTAL MEDICINE & HUMAN ECOLOGY 21.Considered most dangerous with regards to possible disease spread:
A. clinical carrier C. non-immunized B. clinical stage patient D. terminally ill patient
22.This allows organic material to undergo bio and photo degradation,
resulting in simple organic molecules that can actually be beneficial to the environment:
A. Composting C. Source reduction B. Reuse and recycling D. All of the above 23.An example of an agent-environment interaction is:
A. Population of a “carrier” making use of an infected water supply both for drinking and food preparation
B. Vitamin C tablets placed in colored bottles C. Fly control program
D. Business’s favorite of eating “sushi” in Japanese restaurants
24.What treatment is needed if the bacteriological quality of water is 5,000-50,000 coliforms/100 ml?
A. Double treatment C. Disinfection B. Look for another source D. Chlorination 25.The most critical step in waste reduction and recycling is:
A. Waste segregation C. collection of solid waste B. incineration D. transfer and transport 26.The main objective of solid waste processing is:
B. to provide livelihood for scavengers C. to discover other sources of income
D. to minimize bulk of waste to be dumped at sea
27.The most important public health issues addressed by correct waste management:
A. Composting of solid waste from laboratories B. Control of vectors of infectious disease C. Eradication of mosquito causing Dengue DC. Improvement of parks and public places FAMILY MEDICINE
28.Biopsychosocial Model focuses on: A. Multifactorial causes of
illness
C. Organ system dysfunction B. Disease oriented D. Biological orientation
29.The most challenging and rewarding stage for the physician in the Family Illness Trajectory:
A. Major therapeutic efforts B. Accuracy of diagnosis
C. Early adjustment to possible outcome D. Adjustment to permanency of outcome
30.It is process which encompasses screening for abnormalities, early detection of disorders that can be alleviated, and likewise the prevention of ill-health:
A. Family Health Care C. Family Illness Trajectory B. Family Life Cycle D. Family Assessment Tools
31.The nature of illness whose characteristics of experience provide little time for physical and psychological adjustment for family members: A. Acute illness C. Terminal illness
B. Chronic illness D. Debilitating illness
32.The most difficult stage of the Family Illness Trajectory for the patient: A. Accuracy of diagnosis
B. Adjustment to permanency of outcome C. Major therapeutic efforts
D. Early adjustment to possible outcome
33.This household is in the typical case-economically independent subsisting in the first instance from the occupational earnings of the husband-father: A. Nuclear family C. Extended family
B. Corporate family D. Blended family
34.An acronym that stands for factors affecting health which can be considered resource and pathology:
A. SCREEM C. Family APGAR
B. Family Circle D. Family Genogram
35.Component of the Family Genogram that projects the dynamism of family relationships:
A. Functional chart C. Family Illness and history B. Family resources D. Pedigree or Family Tree 36.A Genogram using functional symbols:
A. depicts relationships
B. focuses on the most ill family member C. emphasizes the problem of the patient D. therapeutic interventions
37.The “therapeutic Triangle” in Medicine refers to which of the following? A. Patient/family/health care team
C. Patient/family, friends/extended family, health care team D. Patient, health care team, community
38.What stage of the Family Life Cycle is characterized by parents developing adult type relationships between the grown children and themselves?
A. Family with adolescent C. Unattached Young Adult B. Newly married couple D. Family in later life
39.What family process involves ordered sequences of interaction that typify how family functions?
A. Family pattern C. Triangulation B. Disengagement D. Enmeshment
40.Which of the following is characteristic of the hospice program? A. available 24 hours a day
B. designed for marginalized population C. renders only medical care
D. composed of nurse and physician only
41.During the interview process, which of the following will most likely put the patient on the defensive, that is, make the patient feel that his or her problem or behavior must be justified and defended?
A. Beginning the question with “Why?”
C. Laundry-list questions B. Direct question D. Open-ended questions
42.This is a component of the family health care plan which involves health maintenance for each Family member:
A. Preventive C. Therapeutic B. Diagnostic D. Rehabilitative 43.A family meeting should be done in the following situation:
A. 16 y/o old female, first pregnancy B. 12 y/o female with acne
C. 4 y/o old boy with acute nasopharyngitis
D. 30 y/o old male for annual employment physical
HEALTH ADMINISTRATION & MANAGEMENT, PUBLIC HEALTH 44.A characteristic of Primary health care that differentiates it from the
traditional health delivery system:
A. Community participation in the stages of planning B. Assurance of financial backing of the government C. Coverage of the majority of the population
E. Drug provision for all indigent patients 45.Fecal occult blood is a screening test for:
A. colorectal CA C. Inflammatory bowel disease B. cervical cancer D. hemorrhoids
46.Criteria that justifies doing screening test:
A. Can identify patients likely to have the disease at pre-symptomatic stage
B. Can identify patients who have the disease at symptomatic stage C. Can identify patients who will not benefit from treatment
D. Can identify patients who will not benefit from rehabilitation 47.Which of the health maintenance plan is true for adult patients?
A. FBS should be done for obese 40 y/o female with family history of hypertension
B. Fecal occult blood is recommended for 50 years old and above C. VDRL/RPR should be done on all males
48.Which of the following statements about chemoprophylaxis is true? A. Low dose aspirin for men 65 years old and above prevents heart
disease
B. Estrogen with progestin increases the risk of endometrial cancer
C. Estrogen replacement therapy decrease the risk of osteoporosis when started in women 40 years old and below
D. Chemoprophylaxis is warranted only in younger patients 49.A health promotion measure:
A. Utilization of health/medical services B. Use of mosquito repellant
C. Vitamin supplementation to increase body resistance D. Isolating patients with infectious diseases
50.A rehabilitation measure:
A. Organized feeding program
B. Use of iodized salt because of prevalence of goiter
C. Teaching to deaf mute children sign language or/and lip reading D. Prescribing eyeglasses to those with initial stage of nearsightedness
(myopia)
51.The process of isolating patients with Flu falls under: A. Specific protection C. Disability limitation B. Early diagnosis and
treatment D. Health promotion
52.Factors affecting community reaction:
A. Previous exposure C. Virulence of agent B. Chance contact D. Volume of agent 53.An epidemic occurs due to:
A. Absence of an immune barrier B. Inadequacy of therapeutic measures
C. Emergence of a new strain of the disease agent D. Migration of a population group
54.Considered a missed human reservoir of disease:
A. Undiagnosed and therefore unreported case of a disease
B. Patient wrongly diagnosed because of inadequate laboratory work-up C. Seek medical consultation
D. Correctly diagnosed patient but unreported case 55.Increase in life expectancy is mainly due to:
A. Decrease in mortality in the younger age groups B. Improvement in health information dissemination C. Better diagnostic facilities
D. Discovery of effective drugs
56.Preventive measures are most effective when applied to a person: A. unaffected C. affected symptomatic B. affected asymptomatic D. without complications
57.Mila’s father and mother both have diabetes. She consulted because of polyuria. Which determinant of health is explored in the history?
A. Genetic inheritance C. Social factors B. Belief systems D. Nutrition
58.Denotes a non-human carrier of infection’s organisms that can transmit disease directly to humans:
A. Vectors C. Plasmodium Sp.
59.Step in epidemiological method of investigation include: A. Discovering historical occurrence of diseases
B. Formulation of community diagnosis of health and disease C. Estimation of morbidity and mortality rates
D. Making critical appraisal of existing information
60.Which statement is TRUE about the Control of Diarrheal disease program?
A. Emphasizes home therapy by continued feeding and increase fluid intake
B. Aims to eradicate food and water borne diseases C. Targets children under 5 - 7 years old
D. Promotes the use of anti-diarrheal drugs as mainstay of treatment 61.In making objectives for health education, the following is important:
A. They are worded in terms of learner behavior
B. An affective objective requires hands-on experience C. Evaluation clarifies what need to be strengthened
D. Instructor ability is important in planning the learning activity. 62.Partnership approach to community health development is among the:
A. private sector, government sector and the community B. community and its local government leaders
C. international and national agencies D. private and government practitioners
63.The first contact of the community to the health chain, as defined by the PHC system is the:
A. village health workers C. hospital personnel B. intermediate level health workers D. barangay captain
64.The health status of a community may be measured or expressed in terms of:
A. its statistical indices of morbidity and mortality B. availability of health care services
C. availability of public utilities D. utilization of health care services 65.Community planning should start with:
A. formation of objectives
B. identification of roles and their relationships C. educational analysis
D. determination of resources
66.Identifying and prioritizing health problems is part of this planning process:
A. situational analysis C. plan investigation B. plan implementation D. plan formulation
67.Best people to identify and prioritize community health problems: A. community residents C. health workers
B. social workers D. consultants
68.The initial step in planning for the provision of health and medical care services for a community is to:
69.The gross domestic product adjusted with the net factor income from the rest of the world:
A. Gross National Product C. Gross Domestic Product B. Gross Value Added D. Consumer Price Index A. define the health problems C. set the objectives
70.The objectives in the tertiary prevention of non-communicable diseases include the following:
A. help the patient function maximally within the restrictions imposed by the disease
B. removal of the agent from the environment C. screening
D. immunization
71.In computing the cost of illness, the following data are needed: A. Average daily income or wage
B. Average days of non-morbid condition C. Average cost of savings
D. Number of death 72.Health education involves:
A. process of translating knowledge into action B. telling people what to do
C. giving lectures about health
D. issuing rules and regulations to stop a bad habit 73.The primary objective of health education is to:
A. improve health practices
B. transfer technology to lay personnel C. impart knowledge
D. promote health in general
74.Public health services (national and local) must give emphasis on: A. prevention, promotion and maintenance of health
B. treatment of diseases
C. rehabilitation of the disabled
D. provision of emergency and first aid services
75.The role of government agencies in solving community health problems: A. guide, assist and facilitate community efforts in meeting its needs B identify the problem of the community
C. provide funds for the project D. provide comparative statistics
76.In public health, the most frequent problem of scarcity of resources is best met by:
A allocate resources according to needs B. transfer of funds
C. complete for national funds D. increase manpower training
77.The managerial approach to motivation in health development is: A. to develop a shared responsibility for achieving organizational and individual goals by contributing on the basis of his interest and abilities
B. manipulate workers by considerate treatment
C. induce workers to perform by giving them high wages D. motivate workers to do overtime work
78.The most effective change in health behavior occurs when:
A. the individual incorporates the change into his system of values B. the educator is an attractive figure
C. a reward is offered if the change is adopted
D. the individual is threatened with punishment if he does not accept the change
79.Evaluation of a health program is necessary in order to: A. determine if other objectives have been attained B. prematurely stop the program implementation C. allocate available resources to another program D. re-assign health manpower to other worthy programs
80.The basic indicator most often used to reflect the economic health of a country is:
A. infant mortality rate C. migration rate B. infant mortality rate D. population density HEALTH CARE: PHILIPPINE SETTING
81.The most common type of attendant at birth utilized by Filipino women:
A. Hilots C. physicians
B. Midwives D. nurses
82.Maternal health status of the Philippines is still poor because of the following:
A. doctors attend to ¼ of deliveries B. birth rate is relatively low
C. maternal death rate is relatively low D. ¾ deliveries are in hospital
83.In the Philippines, the primary factor to consider in the design of the health care delivery system is:
A. prevalent diseases C. education of the masses B. population growth D. nutritional requirement
84.Republic Act 7875 is also known as “The National Insurance Act of 1995” covers:
A. all Filipino citizens C. government employees only B. private employees only D. unemployed citizens
85.The priority or target group in the National Anti-TB Program as recognized by PHILHEALTH and DOH is:
A. sputum positive cases
B. sputum negative but with history suggestive of TB C. sputum negative cases but with possible X-ray findings D. sputum negative but with clinical findings suggestive of TB
86.This specifically consists of a core list of drugs approved and authorized by the DOH:
A. Essential Drug List C. Positive Drug List B. Generic List D. Prohibited Drug List
87.By tailored procurement of drug by government, it will make available to its own clientele:
A. the best drug at least cost C. bulk buying
B. the expensive drugs at low cost D. the cheapest drug
88.DOH Office that is responsible for handling matters pertaining to drugs, laboratories, facility and professional licensing is:
A. Standards and regulations C. Hospital services B. Management services D. Public Health services 89.DOH’s goal of improving the general health status of the population
require:
A. Reduce infant/child mortality rate C. Increase total fertility rate B. Decrease life expectancy D. Increase growth rate 90.PHILHEALTH Benefits Package includes:
A. Normal Spontaneous Delivery of first two (2) births
B. Outpatient psychotherapy and counseling for mental disorder C. Drugs and alcohol abuse and dependency treatment
91.The primary aim of decentralization is:
A. To increase resource base for primary care, shifting from central to peripheral
B. To decrease health center utilization rate C. To give accountability to political authority
D. To relegate procurement of drugs and supplies to LGUs
92.Prevention of cancer recurrence and complications falls under what level of prevention of the DOH Cancer Control Program:
A. Tertiary C. Primary
B. Secondary D. Primordial
93.True of TB in the Philippines:
A. DOTS aims to improve treatment compliance B. More common in age group 60 and over
C. Three times more common among females than males D. Remains the # 1 leading cause of mortality in the country
94.The most effective control measure for Tuberculosis which is prevalent in the Philippines is:
A. Mass BCG vaccination
B. “Clean Air” Campaign to eliminate pollution C. Massive nutritional correction and support
D. Promotion of chemoprophylaxis for contacts/exposed population 95.Which of following tops the list of major causes of intestinal parasitism in
the Philippines:
A. Ascaris Lumbricoides C. Capillaria Philippinensis B. Hookworms D. Trichuris Trichiura
96.Which of the following has the highest prevalence of all the risk factors to cardiovascular diseases according to the DOH Cardiovascular
Protection Program?
A. hypertension C. obesity
B . smoking D. stress
D. Bereavement must cater to the family members also
97.In 2003, National Nutrition Survey (FNRI) showed that the prevalence of this vitamin and mineral deficiency remains high for:
A. Vitamin A & iodine C. Vitamin A & Zinc B. Vitamin B & iron D. Vitamin D & iodine GOVERNMENT PROGRAMS
97.If both parent are Medicare members, the dependent children may claim benefit from membership of:
A. Mother C. Father
B. Both mother and father D. One can choose 98.Family planning means:
A. Voluntary descisions and positive action of couples to have a desired number of children
C. Legal abortions
B. Intra-uterine device and pills D. Knowledge of the different family planning methods
99.The major activities undertaken in the maternal and child health program does NOT include
A. Immunization of pregnant
mothers against measles C. Promotion of prenatal care B. Proper pneumonia prevention D. Monitoring of growth and health
status of infants and children
100. In the “Under Five” Program, the best screening procedure for tuberculosis:
A. Sputum examination C. Tuberculin testing
B. Surveillance D. Chest x-ray
101. The prerequisite for any rational drug policy is A. Availability C. Quality assurance B. Accessibility D. Affordability
102. Drugs not covered by patent protection and which are labeled solely by their international proprietary name is:
A. Complementary drugs C. Generic drugs B. Essential drugs D. Core drugs
103. PhilHealth gives medical coverage to dependents of members who are:
A. parents over 60, children below
21 C. parents over 60, children below 18
B. parents over 65, children below 21
D. parents over 65, children of any age
104. Philhealth benefits vary according to the following except: A. Relative unit value of surgery C. Type of hospital
B. Actual cost of care D. Type of physician
105. Phil-Health sets standards, guidelines and procedures prior to allowing doctors and hospitals to become part of the NHIP. This process is called:
A. evaluation C. recognition
B. accreditation D. acceleration
106. The Family Planning program consist of the foloowing EXCEPT: A. Promotion of knowledge on the
use of contraceptive devices
C. Encouraging legal abortion B. Helping childless couples to bear
children
D. family planning services
107. The following preventive measures are included in the National TB Control Prgram EXCEPT:
A. Giving chemoprophylaxis for
those not yet infected C. Early treatment of infective TBcases B. BCG vaccination of eligible
population
108. According to the revised Expanded Program of Immunization, the contraindication/s to immunization is/are:
a. Malnourished child c. Diarrhea
b. Temperature of 37.5 – 38o d. Convulsions after DPT
109. A greater measure of success of a TB control program could be expected if activities were centered on:
a. Wider coverage of BCG immunization
b. Development of more effective treatment methods
c. Amelloration of the socio-economic status of the general population d. Identification and treatment of early cases
110. Toxic effects of INH has been reported as:
a. Diarrhea c. Chorioretinitis
b. Hepatitis d. Extrapyramidal symptoms 111. In an “under six” program the best screening procedure for
tuberculosis is:
a. Chest x-ray c. Tuberculin test b. Sputum examination for AFB d. B and C only 112. All are ingredients of Oresol (oral rehydration fluid) EXCEPT:
a. Calcium chloride c. Potassium chloride b. Sodium chloride d. Glucose
113. Routine immunization of children include the following EXCEPT:
a. BCG c. Measles
b. Thyphoid d. Diphtheria
114. The folowing immunizations are recommended for 3-months old children consulting at an “under six clinic”:
a. DPT d. A and B
b. Measles vaccine e. A and C c. BCG
115. Immunization is contraindicated among
a. Malnourished children c. Children with diarrhea
b. Breastfed babies d. Children with prolonged febrile illness
116. Contraindications for administering a live attenuated vaccine include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Acute febrile illness
b. Recent administration of immune globulin host c. Immunosuppressive disorder or compromise d. Administration of another live vaccine
117. BCG vaccination is administered on the right deltoid are a by: a. Intramuscular method c. Intradermal method b. Subcutaneous method d. Scratch method
118. The recommended WHO schedule for measles vaccination is at:
a. Birth c. 3 months
b. 6 weeks d. 9months
119. Maternal antibodies convey passive measles immunity to infants probably until age:
a. 12 to 15 months c. 3 to 6 months
b. 6 to 9 months d. 18 – 24 months
120. The descision to give the rabies vaccine is influenced by any of the following EXCEPT:
a. The severity of the bite
b. The condition of the animal at the time of exposure c. The part of the body that was bitten
121. The following are the statements of Policy of the Generic Act of 1988, EXCEPT:
a. Promote, encourage, and require the use of generic terminology b. Penalize any violation of the Act
c. Emphasize the scientific basis for the use of drugs d. Ensure adequate supply of drugs with generic names
122. The following organizations jointly with the Department of Health are involved in the education drive for the Generics Acts, EXCEPT:
a. Department of Finance b. Philippine Information Agency c. Department of Local Governments
d. Department of Education, Culture & Sports
123. Which of the folowing would be best reflect the inadequancy of maternity care services in the community?
a. Small proprotion of hospital births
b. Small proportion of deliveries attended by physicians c. Large proprotion of maternal deaths due to hemorrhage d. None of the above
124. The leading cause of maternal death in the Philippines is: a. Abortion c. Toxemia of pregnancy
b. Infection d. Hemorrhage
125. High risk in maternal mortality are mothers a. Under 15 years or above 45 years
b. 17 – 20 years c. 20 – 25 years d. 30 – 35 yers
126. The most effective method of contraception is:
a. IUD c. Rhythm method
b. Pills d. Barrier or condoms
127. This is NOT one of the priority needs of a mother a. Nutrition promotion and growth surveillance b. Control of infectious disease including tetanus c. Maternal care
d. Nutrition supplementation
128. The target group for tetanus toxoid immunization is: a. Women 12-59 years c. All persons
b. Women 15-44 years d. All women regardless of age
129. At birth a Filipino baby usually weighs:
a. 2000 gms c. 3000 gms
b. 2500 gms d. 4000 gms
130. Prevention of prematurity can be done by: a. Promotion of preconceptional care
b. Improvement of obstetrical service c. Improvement of maternal nutrition d. Improvement of prenatal care
131. Among the following factors, which has the LEAST influence on the many infants during the first day of life?
a. Poor environmental sanitation b. Incompetent attendance at delivery c. Inadequate prenatal care
d. Maternal malnutrition
a. Juvenile cataract c. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea d. Trachoma
PUBLIC HEALTH
133. Long-standing lack of vitamin A is maifested in the form of this ocular lesion:
a. Keratomalacia c. Nyctalopia b. Corneal xerosis d. Bitot’s spots
134. If a 6-month old baby is suffering from diarrhea, the following should be told to the mother:
a. Stop breast-feeding c. Give “am” and tea only b. Stop the usual food given d. None of these
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
135. The role of governmental agencies in solving community health problems is to:
a. Identify the problem of the community b. Provide funds for the project
c. Provide comparative statistics
d. Guide, assist, and facilitates community efforts in meeting its needs 136. In public health, the most frequent problem is scarcity of resources.
This can be best met by:
a. Transfer of funds c. Allocate resources according to needs
b. Compete for national funds d. Increase manpower training
EPIDEMIOLOGY
137. In writing a research proposal, the formal statement about the most likely outcome of the proposed research falls under:
a. Literature review c. Hypothesis b. Methodology d. Objectives
138. The factors that effect the reliability of an instrument are the following EXCEPT:
a. Observer variation c. Lack of congruency b. Lack of precision d. Lack of validity 139. A control or comparison group is necessary in:
a. Descriptive studies c. Cross-sectional studies b. Prevalence studies d. Prospective studies
140. The importance of reviewing the available literature related to research problem is
a. To prevent duplication of work that has been done before b. It may lead to refine the problem definition
c. To find out the authors of these works
d. To provide good reasons for others to support the proposed research
141. Among the following demographic characteristics, which does not contribute to high fertility in the Philippines?
a. High marriage rate c. Increasing life span
b. Young population d. Low median age on marriage 142. The greatest contributor to population growth in ASIA today is:
a. Increased mortality rate c. Decreased birth rate b. Increased birth rate d. Decreased mortality rate 143. Life expectancy is lower among the
a. Married c. Young professionals
144. In the choice of a problem for research, which of the following criteria is the LEAST important?
a. Availability of technical and logistic support b. Probability of solving the problem by research c. Probability of acceptance for publication
d. Useful applicability of the results
145. Because of its inherent weakness, this method is not utilized in the collection of scientific data:
a. Census c. Registration method
b. Questionnaire method d. Case record method
146. The following epidemiologic approach may be utilized when the disease being investigated has not been studied yet in the past:
a. Descriptive c. Cohort prospective b. Retrospective d. Experimental
147. This type of study can best demonstrate a cause and effect relationship:
a. Experimental study c. Analytic study b. Descriptive study d. Cross-sectional
148. The possibility of cause-effect relationship is difficult to assess in: a. Experimental c. Cohort
b. Cross-sectional d. Case-control
149. To determine if there is any relationship between oral contraceptive use and chlamydia infection, an investigator selected a sample of 100 women attending a social hygiene clinic. He then measured the predictor and outcome variables by talking a history of oral contraceptive use and sending a cervical swab to the lab for chlamydia culture. The design of this study is:
a. Cohort study c. Case control
b. Cross-sectional d. Experimental study 150. What is the first step in the conduct of a clinical trial?
a. Clearly and precisely state the reasons for conducting the trial b. Clearly define the criteria for selecting the participants
c. Clearly precisely state the objective/s of the trial
d. Make a clear staements of facts governing conduct of the trial of the would be participants
151. The observational study in which subjectys are sampled based on the presence or absence of a risk factor interest, these subjects are followed over the time for the development of a disease outcome:
a. Case control study c. Cohort study
b. Ecologic study d. Cross-sectional study
152. An investigator wanted to determine if there is a significant difference in the mean systolic blood pressure 10 women before and after oral contraceptive use for 3 months. The appropriate statistical test for significance for this study is:
a. Analysis of veriance c. Student t-test b. Chi-square analysis d. Palred t-test 153. In chi-square, one would like to demonstrate that
a. There is a definite cause-effect association
b. There is a significant association among categories c. There is a significant correlation
d. The number in the 2 x 2 table are diffecrent from one another 154. The objective of data processing is to facilitate
a. Statistical analysis c. Completion of data b. Termination of research d. Summarizing of data
155. Descriptive statistics include the following EXCEPT:
a. specific rate c. graphical representation b. measures of dispersion d. tabular presentation
156. The measure that tends to be misleading in the presence of erratic value is
a. Mode c. Median
b. Mean d. All of the above
157. When distribution is symmetrical, the manner of tendency what should be chosen is:
a. Mode c. Mean
b. All of these d. Median
158. Randomization is a procedure used for assignments or allocation of subjects to treatment and control groups is experimental studies. Randomization ensures
a. That assignments occurs by chance
b. That treatment and control groups are alike in all respects expect treatment
c. Bias in observation is eliminated d. The placebo effects are eliminated
159. When samples are chosen because they are handy and easy this is:
a. Simple random sampling c. Haphazard sampling b. Systematic sampling d. Cluster sampling
160. One of these is NOT included in the comprehensive maternal and child health program policies:
a. Pregnant women should be given iron tablets during the second and third trimester and throughout the lactation period
b. Abnormal pregnancies may be delivered at home by a professionally-trained health worker
c. Growth and development of infants and children should be monitored by growth charts and developmental screening devices d. The newborn receive immediate care at birth and breast feeding
instuted within 30 minutes after delivery
161. Population density is determined by use of two data. One is total population and the other is:
a. Age and sex distribution of the community b. Area of the community
c. Income of the community d. Resources in the community
162. Population would become younger if:
a. Both its crude birth rates and crude death rates remain high b. Its crude birth rates remain high but its crude death rates decline c. Its crude birth rates decline but its crude death rates remain high d. Both its crude rates and death rates decline
163. The population pyramid shows the distribution of a population according to:
a. Age and sex c. Fertility
b. Inflow-outflow equation d. Percentage of births and deaths
164. The arrangement of the population in space in a given time a. Composition c. Spatal distribution b. Social mobility d. Size
POISONING
165. In childhood poisoning, emesis should NOT be induced if the poison is:
a. Barbiturates c. Drain cleaner
b. Acetaminophen d. INH
166. The following does NOT conform to the 1987 Family Code of the Philippines
a. The contracting parties to a marriage maybe of the same gender b. Marriage solemnized by a person not legally authorized to perform
marriage are void
c. A marriage contracted by any person during the subsistence of a previous marriage shall be null and void
d. Mayor can no longer solemnize marriage RATES AND RATIO
167. The current priority health problem of the Philippines is:
a. Malnutrition c. Rapid population growth b. Communicable disease d. All of the above
168. The office that is changed with the function of collecting and reporting of vital health statistics is the:
a. Bureau of Census and Statistics c. Health Information Service DOH
b. Bureau of Medical Services d. Department of Disease Control
169. This is the measure of mortality which will tell us what the 10 leading causes of death rate are:
a. Case fatality rate c. Infant mortality rate b. Cause specific death rate d. Proportionate death rate 170. The purpose of immediate notification of disease is to:
a. Study the natural cause of the disease b. Update the statistical data
c. Prevent the spread of the disease d. Study the trend of the disease OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH
171. One of the following cancers is NOT associated with occupational exposures:
a. Breast CA c. Lung CA
b. Bladder CA d. Liver CA
172. The conservation of health in relation to work, the working environment and assurance of work efficiency is:
a. Industrial hygiene c. Occupational medicine b. Occupational health d. Industrial medicine 173. Unwanted sound has this physiologic effect on an employee:
a. Deafness c. Inefficiency
b. Irritation d. Autism
ETHICS
174. The primary objective of the practice of medicine according to the Code of Medical Ethics in the Philippines is:
a. Be good citizen c. Be solicitous to patients b. Be a fiend of man d. Service to mankind FAMILY MEDICINE
175. The following are important roles of a family physician: a. Personal physician to each member of the family b. Manages the collective health problems of the family
176. The family life cycle:
a. Depicts the expansion and correction of the family
b. Focuses on major events of developments within a single family c. Involves a sequence of stressful changes
d. A and B only
177. Measures that the family physician can take to reduce the impact illness on the family are as follows:
a. Do not include the family in deciding on the care of the sick
b. Inform the family of measures important to the success of treatment c. Watch for change in attitude or negative reaction among family d. A and B only
e. B and C only
178. The Philippine age structure is considered young. It means a. A big percentage of the population is made up of the youth b. More dependents for workers
c. People are retiring young d. A and B only
e. B and C only PRIMARY HEALTH CARE
179. The major cause of disabilities in developing countries is: a. Inadequate nutrition c. Accidents
b. Infectious disease d. A and B
180. The first contact of the community to the health chain, as defined by the PHC system is the:
a. hospital personnel c. intermediate level health b. village health workers d. barangay captain workers 181. The following are true for volunteer community health workers,
EXCEPT:
a. They establish linkage between government and non-government organization
b. They are residents of the community c. they are community-based
d. they provide only curative care
182. When a community shares in the responsibility and participates in defining the health and health-related problems in the community, this is known as:
a. intrasectoral linkage c. appropriate technology b. community participation d. intersectoral linkage 183. Which of the following is NOT included in the essential health
service of Primary Health Care?
a. immunization against the major infectious diseases b. provision of essential drugs
c. provision of safe water and basic sanitation d. appropriate treatment of all existing diseases
184. Which of the following is in line with the principles of Primary Health Care?
a. doctors make all the decisions in a community health program b. free clinics are held in the population
c. a barangay health council is established to plan, implement and evaluate community program
185. Primary Health Care (PHC) refers to
a. the first contact of a patient with a professional health care provider b. a sub-system of the health care delivery system
c. a type of health care program designed for communities
D. an approach to making health care available and accessible to the population
186. A health care system that has the greatest impact on the health of a society, while making the best use of its resources, fulfills which of the following values of social accountability?
A. Relevance C. Cost-effectiveness
B. Quality D. Equity
187. Parents who are not qualified as legal dependents, indigents or retirees can avail of PhilHeatlth benefits through the:
A. Medicare Para Sa Masa C. Sponsored Projects B. Individually-paying program D. Non-paying members 188. An important feature of a Community-Based Health Program is:
A. preset program objectives
B. managed solely by the people’s organization C. people participation in all stages of development D. availability of modern health equipment for community Answer # questions
page
B 1. An act instituting a national health insurance program for all Filipinos and 386
establishing the Philippines Health Insurance Corporation. A. Republic Act 7719
B. Republic Act 7875 C. Republic Act 7160 D. Republic Act 6675 MPL: 1
C 2 This is also known as Clean Air Act. 389 A. Republic Act 7277 B. Republic Act 7883 C. Republic Act 8749 D. Republic Act 7600 MPL: 1
A 3 House Bill 618 is also known as: 403
A. National Tobacco Control Act B. Rooming-In and Breastfeeding Act C. Generics Act
D. National Blood Services Act MPL: 1
D 4 The National Health Insurance Program (NHIP) shall give the highest priority 409
to achieving coverage of the entire population with at least a basic minimum
package of health insurance benefits, the guiding principle is: A. Social solidarity
B. Equity
C. Compulsory coverage D. Universality
MPL: 1
C 5 Mandates iodization of all food grade salt and making this available to all 385
A. Republic Act 8423 B. Republic Act 8976 C. Republic Act 8172 D. Republic Act 7876 MPL: 1
B 6 Children were hospitalized after their mother fed them with poisonous mushroom.
The mother was unable to differentiate poisonous from nonpoisonous species.
How would you assess the Meffect of her action? A. Directly voluntary
B. Indirectly voluntary C. Positively voluntary D. Negatively voluntary MPL: 0.5
B 7 A patient who has emphysema finds it difficult to quit smoking. How would you
assess the morality of the patient’s action?
A. Imperfectly voluntary because of impairment of knowledge B. Imperfectly voluntary because of habit
C. Perfectly voluntary act
D. An act of man not performed without free will MPL: 0.5
A 8 Which among the following is a human act? A. Cheating in class
B. Killing by a known schizophrenic
C. An accident caused by severely intoxicated person
D. Killing of a wife by the husband who caught her in the act of infidelity
MPL: 0.25
A 9 A superior officer not stopping an evil act of a lower rank officer despite knowledge
of the same is _________.
A. Equally guilty as that of the lower rank officer B. Not guilty of the act
C. Guilty but of a lesser degree D. Not morally accountable MPL: 0.5
B 10 Withdrawing food and water in a progressively deteriorating Alzheimer disease
patient. Which principle is being violated? A. Beneficence
B. Non-maleficence C. Autonomy
D. Justice MPL: 0.5
B 11 Which among the following situations is ethical?
A. An HIV positive patient continues to engage in unprotected sex. B. Commercial sex workers are mandated to undergo regular
screening for sexually
transmitted diseases including AIDS. C. Donating blood for a fee
D. The owner of an establishment is doing a research on smoking. He asked all
his employees to be part of the study. MPL: 0.25
A 12 A 75-y/o diabetic patient with gangrenous foot refused to be amputated knowing
all the risks and benefits. She said she is too old to live without a leg. The doctor
agreed. What is your ethical evaluation of the doctor’s decision? A. Right. Patient’s autonomy is respected.
B. Wrong. There’s harm to the patient.
C. Right. Patient accepted an additional burden. D. Wrong. Patient’s ability to decide is questionable. MPL: 0.5
C 13 A patient told his doctor that he do whatever is best for him. This is not a violation
of the principle of autonomy because of the following reason: A. Accepts an additional burden
B. Gives up what is due C. Delegate authority
D. Looses right to what is due MPL: 0.25
B 14 Principle that emphasizes the freedom to have children A. Autonomy
B. Inviolability of life C. Beneficence D. Stewardship MPL: 1
D 15 The principle of beneficence means A. To do good
B. To do good at all times
C. To do good without any harm D. To do good with minimal harm MPL: 0.5
D 16 The following are true EXCEPT
A. Truth telling of harm overrides confidentiality
B. In emergency situation informed consent can be waived
C. Unplugging of life-sustaining machines is justifiable if and when they are no
longer useful to the dying person
D. Clinical research need not involve animal experimentation MPL: 0.25
D 17 A 70-y/o quadriplegic patient (paralyzed in all 4 limbs) following repeated
strokes requests that no resuscitation be performed if he goes into cardiac
arrest. The following would justify a Do Not Resuscitate order EXCEPT
A. Resuscitation will cause serious physical and emotional burden B. Resuscitation is against patient’s autonomous wish
C. Resuscitation is extraordinary means D. Resuscitation is proportionate means MPL: 0.25
A 18 The principle of totality is the governing principle in the following situation:
A. Plastic surgery and mutilation with due cause B. Voluntary organ donation
C. Confinement of mentally against their will D. Conflict of interest
MPL: 0.5
B 19 Hospitals cannot be held liable for patients who go home against medical advice
because patient
C. Accepted an additional burden D. Delegated authority
MPL: 0.5
B 20 A patient in the ward has renal failure. As a junior intern assigned to monitor
the patient, you noticed that his ‘medication is being given in toxic dose. Which
virtue is needed in this situation? A. Integrity
B. Courage C. Respect D. Honesty MPL: 1
C 21 Which among the following situations is a nonviolation of the principle of justice?
A. Kidneys for transplant are scarce. You decided to buy from indigent patients.
B. Allocating more of the government funds to kidney transplant program
than to the free immunization program for children under six C. Following a typhoon, health care is given to the victim who will
die without an aid
D. Compulsory tubal ligation in government hospital MPL: 0.5
B 22 Which among the following patients vying for one available respirator would gain
the most from using the respirator?
A. Trauma victim with severe brain damage. Only few brainstem functions
remain. He is unlikely to recover.
B. Patient with infection of the nervous system that rendered him paralyzed from
the trunk down. He is, however, progressively improving and is expected to recover.
C. Patient with complete and irreversible spinal injury that has left her paralyzed
from the neck down. She is able to talk but totally dependent on the respirator.
D. Cancer patient undergoing palliative treatment MPL: 0.25
C 23 A poor patient needing care agrees to enroll in a research study so as to be
admitted in the hospital for free treatment of his medical problem. Was an
informed consent obtained in this case?
A. Yes. Information is understood by subject. No evidence of constraint on
subject’s voluntariness. B. No. Lack of competence
C. No. Questionable voluntariness due to subject’s personal circumstance.
D. No. Probable incomplete disclosure and deception. MPL: 0.5
B 24 An employee was discovered to be sick during the annual physical examination
sponsored by the company. His health would adversely be affected if he
continues with his job. He pleads not to tell his employer. What should the physician do?
A. Maintain confidentiality at all times
B. Break confidentiality for the best interest of the patient
C. Break confidentiality for the best interest of innocent third party D. Wait and observe
MPL: 0.5
A 25 Which among the following is NOT a condition to stop treatment in a dying patient?
A. Life is preserved by ordinary means B. Patient and/or family consents
C. Irrefutable evidence that biological death is imminent D. Treatment will not prolong life for any significant time MPL: 0.25
D 26 The type of domestic violence, which is considered to be the most common of elder mistreatment, is called A. Physical abuse B. Material exploitation C. Caregiver neglect D. Emotional abuse MPL: 1
D 27 An elderly patient was noted to have hematoma in the legs. Upon probing, patient
claimed he fell from the bed. Caregiver was hesitant to bring him to the hospital for
medical management. What will you do? A. Report to authorities
B. Perform home safety assessment C. Expand social services
D. Assess family functioning MPL: 0.5
B 28 Given a patient who is a victim of partner abuse, the following may be done EXCEPT
A. Draw a safety plan B. Do couple counseling
C. Refer to mental health professional D. Refer to women’s desk
MPL: 0.5
C 29 In cases of sexual assault, the following is recommended: A. Collect clothing and place in plastic bag
B. Do a urine pregnancy test
C. Give empiric antibiotic treatment for STD
D. Insert IUD within 24 hours to prevent pregnancy MPL: 0.25
D 30 Tertiary prevention for those who are victims of violence includes A. Screen for possible violence
B. Provide appropriate medical care C. Inform women of their rights
D. Refer to local support group and shelter MPL: 1
C 31 Family, as a group of people, is defined in various ways. Which among the following
description runs common among the various definitions? A. Related by blood or marriage
B. Related by strong affection
C. Comprises a permanent household D. Changes through time
C 32 Tom and Tina have been living with their aunt and grandmother since their
parents went abroad to work as nurses. What is the type of family structure? A. Nuclear B. Extended C. Single-parent D. Communal MPL: 1
B 33 As parents, Jim and Lora make sure that they spend quality time with their children.
They play and do things together with them. What function of the family do they perform? A. Biologic B. Psychologic C. Educational D. Socio-cultural MPL: 0.75
C 34 John and Marsha is a family with four children aged 16, 10, 6 and 4. Both
husband and wife are in their mid-forties. What second order changes can be
anticipated in their family life cycle stage? A. Taking on parenting role
B. Sharing responsibilities with extended family C. Focusing on marital and career issues
D. Keeping communication system open MP: 0.25
B 35 Linda was diagnosed with myoma last 2004. Recently, she developed vaginal
bleeding. She was told she needs to undergo hysterectomy. She was subsequently
observed to be crying and socially withdrawn. Identify the stage in the illness trajectory.
A. Reaction to diagnosis
B. Major therapeutic efforts C. Early adjustment to outcome
D. Adjustment to permanency of outcome
MPL: 1 D 36 Which among the following statements is NOT true?
A. For every disease, there is a corresponding impact of illness. B. For illness with acute onset, the family is more prone to a crisis
situation.
C. For stages 2 & 5 of the illness trajectory, the family will go through the same
process of denial, anger, and depression.
D. For chronic illness, the family is less prone to stress due to coping through time.
MPL: 0.25
A 37 Mrs. D began having difficulty remembering things, missing at time of work, and
appearing in public in an untidy state at age of 64 years. Mrs. D was brought to a
doctor for consult and was diagnosed to have Alzheimer’s disease. Because
Mrs. D’s condition seemed to progress rapidly, the attending physician did a home
visit. When he arrived, she found Mrs. D unkempt, bedridden and has lost weight.
The daughter who lives with her complained of exhaustion and of getting very little
help from her siblings. In assessing the condition of the index patient and the family,
the doctor made use of several tools. Which among the following tools and their
corresponding indication for use is NOT correct? A. APGAR – assess familial resources
B. Genogram – identify alternate caregivers
C. SCREEM – assess capacity of family to participate in health care
D. Family map – describe family dynamics MPL: 1
D 38 A 42-y/o woman, married with 2 daughters from Masbate revealed a 2-yr. history of
breast mass. Physical examination showed a cachectic patient with unilateral multiple
beast mass with foul smelling discharge. The patient sought consult with faith healers
in their hometown. Her family and relatives firmly believe that it was due to “barang”
(witchcraft). She was brought to Manila to consult with another faith healer. She
refused to see a doctor, as it would render ineffective the treatment being done to her
by the faith healer. Deep in her heart she has given up hope for cure. For a doctor to
understand the health beliefs and practices of the family and the index patient, what
tool in family assessment should be used? A. Clinical Biographies
B. Family Circle C. Ecomap D. SCREEM MPL: 1
C 39 In evaluating the potential crisis once the patient dies, which among the following
would help evaluate the degree of disruption in the function of the family?
A. Family stressor
B. Family developmental stage C. Family role
D. Family coping history MPL: 0.25
A 40 What would consists tertiary level of prevention for the family? A. Hospice care
B. Counseling C. Health education D. Breast examination MPL: 1
A 41 It is essential health care based on practical, scientifically sound and socially
acceptable methods of technology made universally accessible to individuals
and families in the community and through their full participation and a cost that
the community and country can afford to maintain at every stage of their
development in the spirit of self reliance and self determination. A. Primary Health Care
B. Primary Care C. Secondary Care D. Tertiary Care MPL: 1
C 42 An evaluation or appraisal of present conditions and existing resources is 181 A. Planning B. Assessment C. Situational analysis D. Implementation MPL: 0.25
D 43 Demographic factors in planning includes description of 181
A. Existing health services B. Working health systems
C. Socio-economic-environmental conditions D. Age-gender composition and distribution MPL: 1
D 44 Health status evaluation includes the following, except 181
A. Infant mortality rate
B. Hospital services utilization C. All of the above
D. None of the above MPL: 1
B 45 A gap between what is and what should be 255 A. Idea B. Problem C. Priority D. Condition MPL: 0.25
D 46 In the Primary Health Care approach, focus group discussion and community 89
assembly are strategies for: A. Appropriate technology B. Networking and linkages C. Establishing support groups D. Community participation MPL: 0.25
B 47 Working together with the people, learning their language and eventually 189
establishing a herbal-medicinal garden for people consumption is an example of
A. Establishing support groups B. Appropriate technology C. Networking and linkages D. Community participation MPL: 0.25
C 48 An example of establishing support groups for program continuity 263
A. Committing civic, religious, non-government organizations to actively participate
B. Putting up a Botika sa Barangay with the help of the Municipal council
C. Creation of an organization of asthmatic patients in the early identification and
proper referral of asthmatics
D. Consultative meetings with community leaders for the creation of latrines in
certain areas MPL: 0.25
B 49 Among the list, the program that would benefit the greatest number of people: 305
A. Provision of food and drugs B. Accessibility to safe water C. Health education
D. Proper waste collection and disposal MPL: 0.25
D 50 In the course of implementation, when the quality of service is not
at par, 344
management should:
A. Review established standards B. Reprimand staff concerned C. Measure difference in output D. Modify activities/objectives MPL: 0.33
A 51 During an evaluation procedure, complaints against nurses have been recorded 342
and analyzed. In making decisions, management should be reminded of:
A. Error of practical significance
B. Statistical data as evidence based materials C. Opinions of co-managers and staff
D. Generalization based on records at hand MPL: 0.25
D 52 Epidemiology can be defined as the study of: A. The etiology of disease in humans
B. The frequency of causes of death in humans
C. The determinants of frequency pf disease in humans
D. The distribution and determinants of frequency of disease in human populations
MPL: 0.25
B 53 The time interval between entry of an infectious agent into a host and the onset
symptoms is called
A. The communicable period B. The incubation period C. The preinfectious period D. The noncontagious period MPL: 0.25
A 54 Primary prevention may be best undertaken during the period of: A. Pre-pathogenesis
B. Pathogenesis
C. Resolution or sequelae D. Any of the above MPL: 0.33
D 55 In the study of the cause of a disease, the essential difference between an
experimental study and an observational study is that in the experimental
investigation
A. The study is prospective
B. The study and control groups are of equal size
C. The study and control groups are selected on the basis of history of exposure
to the suspected risk factor
D. The investigators apply an intervention to influence the outcome of the study, for
effective methods of treatment, prevention, or clinical management
MPL: 0.25
B 56 The occurrence of a group of illnesses of similar nature at a rate above the expected
number is called: A. Hyperendemic B. Epidemic C. Endemic D. Pandemic MPL: 0.5
D 57 To determine whether maternal deficiency of folate is a cause of congenital defects
of the neural tube, the mothers of 100 newborns with congenital neural tube defects
and 200 newborns without congenital neural tube defects were questioned about intake
of multivitamins and folate during pregnancy. What type of study is this? A. Clinical trial B. Cross-sectional C. Cohort D. Case-control MPL: 0.25
A 58 A study revealed an odds ratio of 3.35 (95 % Confidence Interval= 1.35-8.42)
associated with maternal deficiency of folate. If the study described is accurate,
which of the following statements is true?
A. Results suggest that a baby whose mother had folate deficiency is about 3.35
times as likely to be born with congenital defects of the neural tube as a baby
whose mother did not have folate deficiency and the association is significant (p<0.05).
B. Results suggest that the odds of giving birth to newborns with congenital defects
of the neural tube among mothers with folate deficiency is 3.35 as compared to
mothers who do not have folate deficiency and the association is significant (p<0.05).
C. Results suggest that the risk of giving birth to newborns with congenital defects
of the neural tube among mothers with folate deficiency is 3.35 times as
compared to mothers who do not have folate deficiency and the association
is significant (p<0.05).
D. The results provide no evidence that maternal deficiency of folate is
associated with congenital defects of the neural tube in the offspring.
MPL: 0.25
Lou Stewells, a pioneer in the study of diarrheal disease, has developed a new diagnostic test for cholera. When his agent is added to the stools, the organisms develop a characteristic ring around them (He calls it the “Ring-Around-the Cholera” [RAC] test). He performs the test on 100 patients known to have cholera and 100 patients known not to have cholera with the following results:
Cholera No Cholera
(+) RAC test 91 12
(-) RAC test 9 88
Total 100 100
A 59 The sensitivity of RAC test A. 91/[91+9] x100%= 91% B. 88/[9+88]x100%= 91% C. 91/[91+12]x100%= 88%
D. 88/[12+88]x100%= 88% MPL: 0.25
During the investigation of an outbreak of food poisoning at a summer camp, food histories were obtained form all campers as indicated in the table below.
Consumed Food Did Not Consume Food Food served Ill Not
Ill Specific Attack Rate Ill Not Ill Specific Attack Rate Hamburger 6 4 6/10 = 60% 4 4 4/8 = 50% Potatoes 7 3 7/10 = 70% 2 3 2/5 = 40% Ice cream 8 10 8/18 = 44% 2 2 2/4 = 50% Chicken 13 5 13/18 = 72% 1 7 1/8 = 12.5% Lemonade 2 8 2/10 = 20% 4 4 4/8 = 50%
D 60 The incriminated food item is most likely to be: A. Hamburger
B. Potatoes C. Ice cream D. Chicken MPL: 0.25
D 61 The number of deaths from a given cause in a specified time period divided by
the total deaths in the same time period is: A. Crude death rate
B. Indirect death rate C. Case fatality rate
D. Proportionate mortality rate MPL: 0.25
A 62 If the infant mortality of a community 68/1000 live births. This means:
A. 68 out of every 1000 babies born alive died during infancy B. 68 babies died before reaching their first birthday
C. 68 out of 1000 persons in that community were infant deaths D. 68% of all deaths were infants
MPL: 0.25
C 63 The best source of data or distribution according to age, sex and geographical
A. Reports of occurrence of notifiable diseases B. Birth certificate
C. Census
D. Registries of certain disease MPL: 0.5
C 64 Approval of research proposals using human subjects is done by: A. Department chairman
B. Research Committee C. Institutional review board D. PRC
MPL: 0.5
A 65 Which of the following sampling method is appropriate when a population is not
widely spread geographically: A. Random
B. Multi-stage C. Stratified D. Systematic MPL: 0.33
A 66 In public health, the rate that are used to measure illness is known as: A. Morbidity rate B. Natality rate C. Mortality rate D. Specific rate MPL: 0.33
B 68 Which among the following measures fertility: A. Sex ratio
B. Crude birth rate
C. Maternal mortality rate D. Life expectancy
MPL: 0.33
C 69 In the absence of an attending doctor at death, the responsibility of signing the death
certificate goes to: A. Closest of kin B. Nurses
C. Local Health Officer D. Midwife
MPL: 1
A 70 Objectives of the research tell:
A. What variables are being considered
B. The affirmation of the hypothesis formulated C. When the biostatistician must come in D. How much funds to request
MPL: 0.33
C 71 The part which tells the reader what the different parts of the diagram stand for is called: A. Source B. Title C. Legend D. Footnote MPL: 0.5
C 72 The research design is essentially:
A. What the researcher will do to answer the research questions B. How the research will collect the data
D. Neither MPL: 0.5
B 73 The index that measures the killing power of a disease is: A. Prevalence rate
B. Case fatality rate C. Infant mortality rate D. Swaroop’s index MPL: 1
B 74 In a small sample in which an immediate knowledge of variation is needed,
the measure used is: A. Standard Deviation B. Range
C. Variance
D. Quartile deviation MPL: 0.33
D 75 Specifying the kind of subjects best suited to the research question and where
to recruit them, is the process of: A. Exclusion criteria
B. Sampling C. Randomization D. Selection criteria MPL: 0.5
D 76 The purpose of blinding in data collection is to achieve: A. Accuracy
B. Validity C. Precision D. Objectivity MPL: 0.33
A 77 The population pyramid shows the distribution of a population according to:
A. Age and sex
B. Inflow-outflow equation C. Fertility
D. Percentage of births and deaths MPL: 0.5
C 78 The computed collective characteristics derived from the entire population are called: A. Variables B. Statistic C. Parameters D. Indicators MPL: 0.5
D 79 The probability that a person has the disease given a positive test result is:
A. Negative predictive value of the test B. Sensitivity of the test
C. Specificity of the test
D. Positive predictive value of the test MPL: 0.5
A 80 The disease or condition which directly caused the death of a patient is:
A. Immediate cause B. Underlying cause
