Introduction
to
Human Resource Management
ICFAI Center for Management Research
Road # 3, Banjara Hills, Hyderabad 500 034
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ICMR March 2004. All rights reserved.
No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, used in a spreadsheet, or transmitted in any form or by any means – electronic, mechanical, photocopying or otherwise – without prior permission in writing from ICFAI Center for Management Research.
Ref. No. IHRMWB – 032K4 09
For any clarification regarding this book, the students may please write to ICMR giving the above reference number, and page number.
While every possible care has been taken in typesetting and printing this book, ICMR welcomes suggestions from students for improvement in future editions. Please use the Courseware Feedback Form available at www.icmrindia.org
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Part A – Multiple Choice Questions 3
Part B – Caselets 31 Part C – Applied Theory 141 Part D – Model Question Papers 243
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This section consists of multiple-choice questions that test the student’s understanding of
the basic concepts discussed in the textbook. Answering these questions will help students
quickly recollect the theories they’ve learnt and apply these to real-life business situations.
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1. The development function of human resources has three dimensions. Which of the following does not fall under the development function of human resources?
a. Employee training b. Management development c. Career development
d. Identifying ways to motivate employees
2. The concept of 'economic man' led Taylor to propose a system where workers get a higher rate of pay for every unit of output that exceeds the daily output. What is this system termed as?
a. Differential piece-rate system b. Differential price-rate system c. Similar piece-rate system d. Similar price-rate system
3. Who was the pioneer of Hawthorne studies? a. Fredrick Taylor b. Elton Mayo c. Fred Luthans d. Henry Mintzberg 4. An HR manager in a large multinational firm is involved in establishing an intentional structure of roles for people and assigning responsibilities. What is the managerial function that the HR manager is performing?
a. Organizing b. Staffing c. Directing d. Controlling
5. __________ is the process by which the knowledge of an employee, his skills, abilities and motives to perform a job must match the requirements of the job?
a. Recruitment b. Job analysis
c. Selection d. Placement
6. What is the process of training and developing employees to improve and update their knowledge and skills so as to perform their jobs better known as?
a. Employment
b. Human resource development c. Managing employee relations d. Compensation management
7. A control technique that helps in measuring the cost and value of people for an organization and helps management to value its human resources is
a. Human resource accounting b. Employee control systems c. Organizational control systems d. Value based accounting
8. The specialist role of a HR manager takes a number of roles. Of these roles, which role ensures that all members of the management perform their respective roles concerned with effective use of human resources?
a. The facilitator b. The consultant c. The executive d. The auditor
9. An organization provides employees benefits in the form of conveyance facilities, housing facilities and educational facilities for children. What kind of benefits is the organization providing to the employees? a. Incentives b. Bonus c. Fringe benefits d. Security benefits
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10. The relationship between an employee and his manager plays a critical role in determining the job satisfaction level of the employee. Which of the following are the ideal characteristics that an employee would like his manager to possess? i. Lend support and guidance
ii. Reward the employee for his contribution
iii. Identify the employee’s strengths and weaknesses
iv. To keep to himself, his expectations from the employee
a. (i), (ii) and (iii) b. (ii), (iii) and (iv) c. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) d. (i), (ii) and (iv)
11. The HR manager of a manufacturing firm was given the task of providing information on market statistics of personnel availability, pay rates etc. What role of an HR executive is the manager performing?
a. The executive b. The service provider c. The consultant d. The facilitator
12. Which of the following is not a key characteristic of a successful quality improvement program?
a. Education and training b. Team work
c. Total systems approach d. Short term-goal perspective
13. The extent to which an employee's work meets his professional needs is termed as
a. Quality of work life b. Quality circles c. Quality program d. Quality cycle
14. _________ helps the organization in the achievement of long-term and short-term goals through optimum utilization of human resources. It involves the development of HR objectives and their alignment with the organizational objectives.
a. Employee relations management
b. Strategic human resource management
c. Compensation management d. Human relations management 15. What is the organization termed as,
if the reporting channels of work relations are pre-defined and accountability and responsibility are fixed for all the roles?
a. Informal organization b. Semi-formal organization c. Formal organization d. Autonomous organization
16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a flat organization structure?
a. Wide span of control b. Fewer hierarchical levels
c. More people under the control of one manager
d. Close supervision
17. The right to give orders and the power to exact obedience from others in the process of discharging the responsibility is termed as a. Authority
b. Accountability c. Responsibility d. Adaptability
18. Vinay Sinha, the HR manager of a pharmaceutical firm was given the task of identifying the broad policy issues related to human resources like the employment policy, welfare policy, and development etc., after taking into consideration the changing business scenario. What level of HR planning will Vinay have to undertake?
a. Corporate-level planning b. Intermediate-level planning c. Operations planning d. Short-term planning
19. Planning that includes determining the recruitment/layoff strategy, development strategy etc. based on the corporate policies and strategies is the
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a. Corporate-level planning b. Intermediate-level planning c. Operations planning d. Short-term planning
20. An HR manager was involved in the process of human resource planning. The first step he undertook was assessing current resources and making an inventory. What is the next step that the manager has to take in HRP?
a. Start recruiting to meet the requirements
b. Forecasting
c. Matching the inventory with future requirements
d. Developing an action plan to meet future requirements
21. An IT firm wanted to reduce the number of employees because of the decrease in its number of projects. But the organization promised its employees that it would search for other opportunities for its displaced employees. What is the type of services being offered by the organization?
a. Outplacement b. Placement c. Career growth d. Poaching
22. During slack periods organizations do not want their middle/top level managers to stagnate. The employees are asked to work for other organizations for a specified period of time. The employees work on projects with these organizations but continue on the rolls of the parent organization. What is the above process termed as?
a. Loaning b. Work sharing c. Outplacement d. Attrition
23. The process of determining and recording all the pertinent information about a specific job, including the tasks involved, the knowledge and skill sets required to perform the job, is termed as
a. Job evaluation b. Job description c. Job analysis d. Job design
24. __________ is the simplest unit of work and involves very elementary movement.
a. Position b. Task c. Job
d. Micromotion
25. Which of the following is the first step in the process of job analysis? a. Developing a job description
b. Job specific competency determination
c. Information gathering
d. Developing a job specification
26. Motion and time studies are examples of which method of job analysis?
a. Observation method
b. Technical conference method c. Group interview method d. Questionnaire method
27. In a job analysis method, information was being gathered regarding a particular job from experts. What is the method of job analysis being used here?
a. Observation method
b. Technical conference method c. Group interview method d. Questionnaire method
28. A job analysis where the job analyst conducts background research, interviews job incumbents and supervisors and prepares a detailed document is
a. Position analysis questionnaire b. Functional job analysis c. Diary method
d. Technical conference method
29. A questionnaire propounded by Ernest J Mc Cormick that provides job requirement information and contains 194 elements that fall into six major categories is the
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a. Position analysis questionnaire b. Job analysis questionnaire
c. Performance analysis questionnaire d. Employee analysis questionnaire 30. Which method of job analysis is
more suitable for the middle and top level management jobs and not for the lower level jobs?
a. Position analysis questionnaire b. Functional job analysis c. Diary method
d. Critical incident technique
31. What describes in detail, the various aspects of a job like the tasks involved the responsibilities of the job and the deliverables?
a. Job description b. Job specification c. Job evaluation d. Job enlargement
32. In the process of job specification, the specifications that include analytical ability, data interpretation ability, decision-making ability etc., are
a. Physical specifications b. Emotional specifications c. Mental specifications d. Behavioral specifications
33. Which of the following are the uses of job analysis?
a. Organization audit b. Promotion and transfer c. Health and safety d. All the above
34. The process of structuring work and designating the specific activities at the individual or group level is called as
a. Job design b. Job description c. Job analysis d. Job specification
35. Prashanth Kumar on joining as a software engineer in a major IT firm, was given an account of the various tasks or activities that have
to be performed by him and the responsibilities attached to the job and the relationship with other jobs in the organizational set-up. The above process will help Prashanth gain knowledge about the
a. Job description b. Job analysis c. Job depth d. Job content
36. Which approach to job design has a key element called the 'task idea' that led to job specialization?
a. Engineering approach b. Human relations approach c. Socio technical approach d. Job characteristics approach
37. In the engineering approach to job design the workers felt that overspecialization hindered the skills and experience. Which of the following are the demerits of such overspecialization?
i. Repetition of tasks ii. Limited social interaction iii. Mechanical pacing iv. Scope for personal input a. i and ii
b. i, ii and iii c. i and iii d. All the above
38. Working conditions, organizational policies, interpersonal relations, all these come under which factors of job satisfaction as proposed by Herzberg?
a. Motivators b. Organizers c. Providers d. Hygiene factors
39. Ravinder was employed with a large MNC. Though the pay and working conditions were good, he was not satisfied. He felt that there was no achievement, growth, responsibility and recognition. What are these factors, under the motivation theory proposed by Herzberg?
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a. Motivators b. Organizers c. Providers d. Hygiene Factors
40. Which theory of job design by Hackman and Oldham states that employees work hard when they are rewarded for the work they do, and when the work gives them satisfaction?
a. Job characteristics approach b. Employee characteristic approach c. Performance characteristic approach d. Group characteristic approach
41. Supriya Verma joined a pharmaceutical firm and there she was given the freedom and discretion in scheduling her work. What is the core dimension according to the job characteristics model that is being followed? a. Task identity
b. Task significance c. Autonomy d. Skill variety
42. The core job dimensions for a job are analyzed and combined into a single predictive index under the job characteristic approach. What is this index called?
a. Performing potential score b. Motivating potential score c. Employee potential score d. Motivating potential significance 43. __________ helps in developing
management generalists at higher organizational levels as it exposes them to several different operations. a. Job analysis
b. Job rotation c. Job enrichment d. Job enlargement
44. Which of the following helps in increasing the length and hence the operating time of each cycle of work for the job holder?
a. Job enlargement b. Job enrichment
c. Job rotation d. Job specification
45. Which of the following are the techniques of job enrichment? i. Developing management generalists
at higher organizational levels ii. Increasing the length and operating
time of each job
iii. Minimizing controls and providing freedom of work when the employees are clearly accountable for attaining defined goals.
iv. Providing wider scope, greater sequencing and increased pace of work.
a. i, ii b. iii and iv c. Only iii d. All the above
46. A software firm allowed its employees to choose their working hours but within some specified limits. This is an example of
a. Job sharing b. Flextime c. Condensed work d. Job enlargement
47. The practice of working at home or while traveling and at the same time keeping in contact with the office is termed as
a. Telecommuting b. Job sharing c. Flextime d. Condensed work
48. From which of the following approaches is the engineering approach derived?
a. Scientific management approach b. Process approach
c. Social systems approach d. Systems approach
49. The process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in an organization is termed as
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a. Promotion b. Recruitment c. Selection d. Placement
50. A good recruitment policy
a. Is flexible enough to accommodate changes in the organization
b. Has its own policies and does not comply with government policy on hiring
c. Requires more investment for the organization
d. Ensures short-term employment opportunities for its employees
51. Which of the following is not an external environmental factor that determines the effectiveness of a recruitment program?
a. The situation in the labor market b. The stage of development of the
industry
c. Culture, social attitudes and beliefs d. Geographical location of the job 52. The HR department of Magnus
Textiles made sure that any vacancies in the organization first reached the prospective candidates in the organization. Candidates from the organization responded to job postings. What is the source of recruitment being used?
a. Advertisements b. Internal search c. Employee referrals d. Campus recruitment
53. The important information that has to be furnished in an advertisement includes:
i. Location or place of work ii. Nature of the job
iii. Tasks and responsibilities in the job a. i and ii
b. ii and iii c. i and iii d. All the above
54. Many human resource professionals are now using the Internet to recruit personnel. Which of the following statements are not true about online recruiting?
a. It is a time saving process b. It is cost effective
c. It supplements rather than replaces the leg work associated with offline recruitment
d. It eliminates completely the work associated with recruitment on the part of the recruiter to his/her total convenience.
55. A software firm has a vacancy for the post of 'Vice President' (operations). Which of the following methods of recruitment would you suggest?
a. Employment pages of a national daily or a business magazine
b. Advertisements in a local daily c. Campus placement
d. Listing of the vacancy on a placard outside the organization
56. The success of a recruitment program can be judged based on
i. The number of successful placements
ii. The number of hirings iii. The number of offers made iv. The number of applicants a. i and ii
b. i, ii and iii c. i, ii and iv d. All the above
57. The process of choosing the most suitable candidate for a job from among the available applicants is called a. Recruitment b. Placement c. Appraisal d. Selection 58. ____________ helps in identifying the knowledge, skill and attitude set that enables an individual to deliver the best performance in his job.
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a. Competency modeling b. Competency planning c. People competency d. Competency training
59. Vishal industries committed the mistake of hiring an unsuitable candidate for one of its vacancies. The negative outcomes as a result of selecting an unsuitable candidate are a. Lose the goodwill of other
employees
b. The cost of employee’s non-performance
c. It will not be able to lay-off such employees
d. Reduction in the number of employees.
60. In the process of selection, the step that follows initial screening interview is normally the
a. Decision making interview b. Preliminary interview c. Reference check
d. Analyze the application blank 61. In which approach of reliability, a
group of candidates take the same test twice, within a gap of 2-3 weeks?
a. Repeat or test retest b. Alternate form c. Parallel form
d. Split-halves procedure
62. To test the consistency of the selection tests, a HR manager divided the test into two parts and gave it to the candidates. Depending on the degree of similarity in scoring in these two parts, the reliability of the test was determined. What is the approach of reliability that is being used?
a. Repeat or test retest b. Alternate form c. Parallel form
d. Split-halves procedure
63. ____________ is the degree to which the value provided by the
selection method enhances the effectiveness of an organization. a. Generalizability
b. Utility c. Legality d. Reliability
64. A formal record of an individual's appeal or intention for employment that helps in gathering information about a prospective candidate is called
a. Application blank b. Employee data c. Employee blank d. Data bank
65. Which of the following are the methods for evaluating the application forms in an organization?
a. Weighted methodology b. Clinical methodology c. Moving average method d. Both a and b
66. ___________ test measures a person's ability to classify things, identify relationships and derive analogies. It measures several factors like logical reasoning, analytical skills and general knowledge.
a. Intelligence test b. Performance tests c. Emotional tests d. Social tests
67. A bank wanted to conduct a test for the applicants for the job of a clerk cum cashier. Most of the applicants were fresh from the college with little experience related to the job. The bank wants to pick and train the right candidates. Which test do you suggest to be given to the candidates? a. Aptitude tests b. Intelligence tests c. Achievement tests d. Situational tests
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68. In a defence organization, the tests conducted concentrated on validity and truthfulness of an applicant's answers, by monitoring the physical changes in his body as he answered a series of questions. What is the type of test being used?
a. Polygraph tests b. Situational tests c. Interest tests d. Intelligence tests
69. Mohan Krishna attended an interview and was very upset with the way it progressed. The interviewer repeatedly interrupted him, criticized his answers and asked him unrelated questions. What is the method of interview adopted? a. Panel interview
b. Stress interview c. In-depth interview d. Group interview
70. Identify the correct sequence in an interview process.
i. Closing an interview ii. Evaluation
iii. Conduct of interview iv. Reference checks a. i, ii, iii, iv b. i, iv, ii, ii c. iii, i, ii, iv d. iv, iii, ii, i
71. Which of the following steps should be adhered to, when interviewing? a. Ask demanding and leading
questions
b. Get too engrossed in the interview to follow the plan
c. Interrupt the candidate frequently d. Make the candidate feel comfortable
and relaxed
72. "__________ is the determination of the job to which an accepted candidate is to be assigned. It is a matching of what the supervisor has reason to think he can do with the job demands."
a. Recruitment b. Placement c. Selection d. Training
73. In an application form design, questions on all the following are ethical except
a. The educational qualifications of the employee
b. The name and addresses of individuals who can be contacted for reference checks
c. Salary drawn by the candidate in the last job
d. Issues that concern the privacy of the applicant
74. Identify the correct statement. a. The time period for orientation is
relatively long as compared to socialization
b. The changes resulting out of orientation are more than those out of socialization
c. Orientation is an event where as socialization is an ongoing process d. More organizational members are
involved in the process of orientation as compared to socialization
75. Vishal joined a consultancy firm as a trainee, but soon decided to leave the organization. During the exit interview, it was found that he was not comfortable in the workplace, and also he did not find the work atmosphere to be friendly. What would have gone wrong in the work place?
a. The organization did not have an effective induction program
b. The organization did not create a positive perception in the mind of the employee
c. The employee was not able to adapt to the organization
d. All the above
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76. "___________ signifies a system of shared meaning held by the members that distinguish one organization from another organization."
a. Organizational change b. Organizational development c. Organizational culture d. Group dynamics
77. An organization emphasized that its employees should dress formally but did not consider it to be absolutely essential for the firm. What are such norms termed as?
a. Relevant norms b. Irrelevant norms c. Flexible norms d. Functional norms
78. Vijay Yadav was employed in the production department of a firm manufacturing textiles. He was well behaved and agreed to the noms of the organization. Vijay Yadav who accepts all the organizational norms is a
a. Assertive b. Conformist c. Rebel d. Perfectionist
79. What is the process by which an individual acquires the attitudes, behavior and knowledge he or she needs to participate as a organizational member called?
a. Performance appraisal b. Management development c. Socialization
d. Employee Training
80. All the following are included in the process of socialization except a. Pre-arrival stage
b. Metamorphosis stage c. Encounter stage d. Evaluation stage
81. In which stage of socialization, employees or candidates have knowledge about the job to be
performed but do not apply it practically?
a. Metamorphosis stage b. Encounter stage c. Pre-arrival stage d. Evaluation stage
82. The metamorphosis stage of socialization is considered to be successful if
i. the employee understands and accepts the norms, policies and procedures of the organization ii. he gains the trust and cooperation of
the co-workers
iii. it results in an increase in employee productivity
a. i b. ii c. i and iii d. All the above
83. A worker performing effectively in a manufacturing unit was designated as a supervisor. What is the type of socialization strategy being used in the manufacturing unit?
a. Fixed b. Sequential c. Non-sequential d. Collective
84. In a contest strategy,
a. The channels of movement in a socialization process are kept open and an individual is given an opportunity to perform better in the next stage
b. Employees are segregated on the basis of their knowledge and abilities
c. An individual passes through a sequence of activities for the accomplishment of a particular target
d. There are no discrete or identifiable transition stages and the targets are accomplished in one go
85. In an organization, employees were made to pass through grueling work loads to make them prepare for the challenges in the future. This way the organization planned to promote
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solidarity and mutual concern among the employees. The organization believes that to learn and adapt to new organizational norms, one has to unlearn the previous set of norms. Which strategy of socialization is the organization following?
a. Investiture b. Divestiture c. Serial d. Disjunctive
86. Of the four approaches adopted by international operations, which approach tries to create value by emphasizing on local responsiveness? a. The multi-domestic b. The international c. The global d. The transnational
87. __________is defined as “the interplay among three dimensions – human resource activities, type of employees and countries of operations.”
a. International HRM b. Socialization c. HRM
d. Employee relations 88. Host country nationals are
a. Parent-company nationals who are sent to work at a foreign subsidiary b. Natives of a country other than the
host country of an overseas subsidiary
c. Natives of the country where an overseas subsidiary is located d. An expatriate who returns to home
country
89. In the Geocentric Approach to IHRM,
a. Companies view the world as a single market place
b. The transfer of knowledge from the parent to the subsidiaries is smooth and complete
c. Views the world as a differentiated market place
d. The organization identifies its best practices and resources from within and outside the organization and employs them where ever they are best suited
90. Which approach to IHRM is based on 'customization?'
a. Ethnocentric approach b. Polycentric approach c. Geocentric approach d. Socio-centric approach
91. Which of the following statements regarding IHRM is correct?
a. Domestic HRM has increased complexity of activities than IHRM b. There is more cultural awareness
and tolerance in domestic HRM than IHRM
c. HRM involves management of cross cultural teams
d. IHRM has diluted risk on the business front and increased risk on people front
92. Which of the following is not an assumption for socialization process?
a. Socialization does not occur in vacuum
b. People adjust in similar ways
c. Socialization influences employee performance and organizational stability
d. New members tend to eagerly mingle with senior employees
93. Hofstede developed five dimensions of national culture and provided a research instrument to measure them empirically. Which of the following is not one of the dimensions? a. Power distance b. Individualism c. Uncertainty avoidance d. Race
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94. Consider the following example. An Indian firm with operations in European countries sends employees of US origin to work with their counterparts in European countries. What is the term used to refer to the employees of US origin working in European countries?
a. Host Country nationals b. Third country nationals c. Expatriates
d. Repatriates
95. There are different approaches that explain the importance of human resources management. Which of the following options is not one of the approaches to HRM?
a. Human resource approach b. Systems approach c. Contingent approach d. Statistical approach
96. Which approach states that "no one particular management action or design will be suitable for all situations?"
a. Human behavior approach b. Role approach
c. Systems approach d. Contingent approach
97. HR department maintains a set of proposals and actions that act as reference points for managers in their dealings with employees. What is this called?
a. HR guide b. HR ethics c. HR policy d. Managerial policy
98. Which of the following HR approaches is most popular currently?
a. Human resources approach b. Scientific management approach c. Systems approach
d. Technical approach
99. Which of the following gives the motivating potential score?
a. ((Skill variety + task identity + task significance)/3) * autonomy * feedback
b. ((Autonomy + Feedback)/2) * (skill + task identity * task significance) c. ((Autonomy * Feedback)/2)* (skill
+ task identity + task significance) d. ((Skill variety * task identity * task
significance)/3) * (autonomy + feedback)
100. Which of the following is not indicated by high motivating potential score?
a. High employee motivation b. High employee performance c. High employee satisfaction d. High employee turnover
101. Given below are steps in job enrichment. Identify the correct sequence of steps.
i. Selecting jobs, which permit close relation between motivation and job performance
ii. Make a list of changes that might enrich jobs by brainstorming
iii. Providing adequate training, guidance, encouragement and help to employees
a. i, iii, ii b. i, ii, iii c. ii, iii, i d. ii, i, iii
102. Which of the following are guidelines for drafting and maintaining a good job description? a. Indicating the scope and nature of
the work and all important relationships.
b. Indicating the work and duties of the position
c. Explaining the supervisory responsibility to the individuals
d. All the above
103. __________ is defined as the degree to which its validity, established in one context, can be extended to other ‘primary contexts’.
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a. Legality of the selection method b. Utility of the selection method c. Generalizability of the selection
method
d. Validity of selection method
104. One of the following is not a managerial function of human resource management
a. Planning b. Organizing c. Staffing d. Retrenching
105. All except one of the following are the different aspects of Human Resource Development (HRD) a. Job evaluation
b. Training & development c. Career planning d. Performance appraisal 106. Decision-making is faster in a a. Tall organization b. Flat organization c. Centralized organization d. None of the above
107. One of the major reasons for the line-staff conflict is
a. Empathy towards the limitations of each other
b. Complete understanding of the business by the staff function
c. Prejudice and bias against each other d. Strategic orientation of the staff
function
108. Some of the big IT firms in the country withdrew their campus placement offers to some students when the IT market plummeted last a couple of years back. It shows that there was
a. Problem with the recruitment policy b. Problem with the selection
c. Problem with the human resource planning
d. None of the above
109. ________________ should not be one of the first steps in dealing with surplus manpower for a short period.
a. Leave of absence without pay b. Work-sharing c. Loaning d. Retrenchment 110. Employee referrals is a/an___________ source of recruitment a. External b. Internal c. Hybrid
d. None of the above
111. Concealed identity or blind advertising helps organizations
a. Restrict the number of applicants b. Escape from the notice of
competitors when critical positions are vacant
c. Lessen the burden of the applicants d. Lessen the cost of advertising 112. The individuals who reject all the
organization standards are labeled as "misfits," as their actions contrast organizational goals. They are also called as
a. Rebels b. Fire fighters c. Questioners d. Agitators
113. In India, workers’ participation has limited success because of the following factor:
a. The differing perceptions and attitudes between the workers and the management regarding the degree of participation.
b. The trade unions are poorly fragmented and organized.
c. Inter-union rivalry and influences of different political philosophies d. All the above
114. In India, according to the Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 the aim of the government in advocating workers’ participation in management is
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i. To create a socialist society where the workers share the managerial powers
ii. To increase industrial peace,
iii. To have better relations and increased cooperation from workers a. i and ii
b. ii and iii c. iii and i d. i, ii and iii
115. ____________ council studies absenteeism at the workplace and recommends steps to reduce it at the lowest level of worker participation. a. Shop council
b. Plant council c. Unit council d. Joint council
116. The ______ council usually deals with matters pertaining to the – operational, economic and financial, personnel, welfare and environment areas at a level above the shop/department level. a. Shop council b. Plant council c. Unit council d. Joint council 117. According to _____________ approach, the problems in industrial relations arise because of the differing perceptions and attitudes of the management and the workers. a. Sociological approach
b. Psychological approach c. Human relations approach d. Gandhian approach
118. All the following are innovative methods to improve the quality of work life except
a. Flex time b. Job enrichment c. Job rotation d. Demotion
119. An employee in a textile manufacturing firm was given the freedom to opt for the start and quit
time for a week. What is the type of flex time being followed by the firm? a. Gliding time b. Flexi tour c. Variable day d. Maniflex 120. Maniflex refers to
a. The flex time in which an employee is given the freedom to opt for the start and quit time for a particular period, say, a week or a month b. The flex time where an employee
can start and quit any time on condition that he has to complete 8 hours of work a day
c. Flextime which requires an employee to complete 40 hours per week and the number of hours he/she works in a day can be varied d. A flex time which is similar to
variable day and there is no need to work for specific hours
121. A work schedule that includes a fixed core period each day like a 7 a.m. - 3:30 p.m. 2:00 p.m.-10:30 p.m., or 11 a.m. - 7:30 p.m. with a half an hour lunch break is called a. Permanent work schedules b. Temporary work schedules c. Alternative work schedules d. Shared work schedules
122. Job sharing, work sharing, phased retirement, all these are examples of a. Part time employment
b. Full time employment c. Compressed work week d. Alternative work schedules
123. What are the systems termed as, when the programs involve redesigning the workplace not only technologically but also physically with human considerations for the workplace?
a. Socio-technical systems b. Psychological systems c. Human relations system d. Physical systems
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124. When the management conducts QWL programs in association with the union, it:
a. Leads to effective negotiations that enable designing contracts that satisfy both the parties
b. Improves the efficiency of the management and strengthens employee organizations.
c. Encourages participative management and involves employees in decision making.
d. All the above
125. "__________is a self-governing group of workers, with or without their supervisors, who voluntarily meet on a regular basis to identify, analyze and solve problems in their work field."
a. Employee groups b. Quality circles c. Quality systems d. Employee circles
126. The difference between quality circles and task groups is that
a. In task groups, members skill does not matter while in quality circle it is important to have skilled employees b. Employees in task force are selected
by management whereas in quality circle, they are selected by members of the group
c. The only aim of task group is people building whereas in quality circles it is problem solving
d. The source of members in task group is from the same work group whereas in quality circles it is from various functions
127. Which of the following is not a basic objective of the quality circle? a. To enhance, develop and utilize
human resources effectively
b. To develop quality of products as well as productivity
c. To improve quality of work life d. To increase employee benefits and
incentives
128.In the development of a quality circle, what is the phase that follows the stage of initial problem solving? a. Promoting and communicating the
need for a quality circle b. Composition of a quality circle c. Presentation of suggestions d. Execution
129.This technique creates an open environment free of criticism, encouraging employees to participate and come up with their own ideas. One idea leads to another and impractical and unreasonable ideas are also stimulated and recorded without being suppressed. What is this process termed as? a. Cerebral popcorn
b. Group popcorn c. Group storm d. Idea storm
130. Which committee looks after the activities of the QCs in a particular unit/division and acts as an advisory board?
a. Quality committee b. Steering committee c. Employee committee d. Standard committee
131. Who introduced the concept of quality circles?
a. Dr. Edward Deming b. Dr. Caldwell
c. Dr. Kaoru Ishikawa et al d. Dr Kim Yung Duc
132. What is the likely composition of a quality circle?
a. Six to twelve members b. Two to three members c. Fifteen to twenty members d. More than twenty members
133. In a plant council, when is it obligatory to appoint a woman representative?
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a. If the number of women workers is 5 percent or more of the total workforce
b. If the number of women workers is 15 percent or more of the total workforce
c. If the number of women workers is 30 percent or more of the total workforce
d. Even if there is one woman worker 134. ___________is “a continuous
association of wage-earners for the purpose of protecting and advancing the conditions of their working lives.”
a. Management b. Trade union c. Quality circle d. Productivity circle
135.Under extramural functions,
a. Trade unions fight with employers to achieve economic interests of their members
b. Trade unions act as benefit organizations providing financial and non-financial assistance to their members during sickness, strikes, lockouts, boycotts, temporary removal from service, etc
c. Trade unions involve themselves in various activities to serve a social cause and accomplish their social responsibility towards different sections of the society
d. Under these functions, trade unions associate themselves with a political party, get affiliated to the party and help it by enrolling members, campaigning for it during the elections, collecting donations, etc 136. In India, BMS (Bharatiya Mazdoor
Sangh) is affiliated to the BJP (Bharatiya Janata Party), CITU is affiliated to CPM (Communist Party Marxist) and INTUC (Indian National Trade Union Congress) is affiliated to the Congress (I). What is the function being performed by the trade unions?
a. Intramural b. Extramural c. Political d. Social
137. The main objective of a reformist union is
a. To conserve the capitalist society, to continue the employer-employee relationship and the competitive system of production
b. To demolish the prevailing structure and replace it with a new one based on the ideals they believe in
c. Not to cooperate with their employers instead they aim at using whatever and whomever they can in order to achieve their goals
d. To enjoy a large part of the booty earned from the customers and give only a small portion to the workers 138. Business unions and uplift unions
are types of a. Reformist unions b. Revolutionary unions c. Guerilla unions d. Anarchist unions
139. ____________ unions are ideal in nature and aim at broader issues such as education, benefits, health and insurance.
a. Uplift Unions b. Business Unions c. Political unions d. Anarchist Unions
140. Trade unions based on the Marxist ideology can be termed as
a. Friendly b. Revolutionary c. Uplift d. Business
141. Predatory unions
a. Use revolutionary means to completely dissolve the current economic system. They believe that capitalism is a system that does not work
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b. Do not stick to a particular ideology or a specific methodology to achieve their objectives
c. Destroy the power of capital and capitalists through laws, attain power by participating in political action and apportion wealth and offer effective power to the workers d. Are ideal in nature and aim at
broader issues such as education, benefits, health and insurance 142. The Cine Dancers’ Association and
the Indian Pilots’ Guild are examples of a. Craft unions b. Staff union c. Industrial union d. General union 143. A staff union
a. Is experienced and works on a single craft or trade or any number of crafts or trades
b. Generally employs workers from non-manual sectors
c. Is based on the industry in which the members work rather than the craft, grade, skill, position or sex
d. Consists of members belonging to various industries with varied skills and experience
144. All the following are the advantages of the mutual insurance method adopted by the trade unions, except a. It attracts the people to join the
union with its varied welfare activities;
b. Under this method, members donate more if they need more benefits. This helps in improving the financial condition of the union and enhances its bargaining power when the need arises;
c. It restricts outsider interference like that of political leaders and helps maintain friendly relations with the management
d. In case a strike continues for a long time, it helps the members to stay united by offering the required financial assistance
145. The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh, Bombay; the Engineering Mazdoor Sabha, Bombay; the Labor Mines Mazdoor Sangh, Udaipur, etc., are a few examples of
a. General union b. Industrial union c. Craft union d. Staff union
146. All the following are the problems faced by trade unions except
a. Uneven growth b. Small size c. Few unions d. Inter-union rivalry
147. What is the tenure of the joint councils formed in an organization? a. 5 years
b. 10 years c. 1 year d. 2 years
148. The extent to which employees are aware of their interests, skills, strengths and weaknesses regarding their career goals is termed
a. Career motivation b. Career resilience c. Career insight d. Career identity
149. One of the following is not an example of a Career Anchor
a. Functional competence b. Security and stability c. Entrepreneurial creativity d. Aspiring capability
150. ________________ helps organizations identify employee
strengths and weaknesses to determine avenues for their career development. a. Gap analysis b. Individual assessment c. Organizational assessment d. Opportunity analysis
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151. Understanding the career aspirations of an employee, determining his capabilities and competencies and identifying the gaps is termed a. Need analysis
b. Gap analysis c. Opportunity analysis d. Employee analysis
152. Career planning and development programs for employees
a. Increase employee frustration b. Promote only a lucky few
c. Increase the employee turnover rate d. Ensure future availability of
resources
153. Employees who feel that there is nothing more to achieve and that their career has become stagnant are said to have reached a
a. Career island b. Career plateau c. Career peak d. Career goal
154. The employee at this stage strives to maintain a reputation and desires to be looked up to, in the organization. This is the a. Exploration stage b. Establishment stage c. Maintenance stage d. Disengagement stage 155. Reassignment of an employee to a higher level job that involves greater responsibility or status or pay is termed
a. Transfer
b. Cross-functional transfer c. Demotion
d. Promotion
156. The process of selecting and developing employees in the organization to occupy key positions in the future is termed
a. Career planning b. Succession planning c. Career development
d. Human resource enhancement
157. Evaluation of an employee’s performance by his colleagues is called
a. Peer appraisal
b. Management by objectives c. Formal appraisal
d. Group appraisal
158. Clear and well-defined goals, a definite time plan and an action plan to achieve these goals, combined with timely feedback, are characteristics of
a. Work standards approach b. Management by objectives c. BARS
d. Balanced scorecard method
159. The main disadvantage of the essay appraisal is that
a. It consumes a lot of paper
b. Different writing skills can portray employee performance differently c. Some points can be missed out by
the evaluator d. Both b & c
160. Paired comparison of employees is a method of
a. Ranking b. Checklist c. Point allocation d. Forced choice rating
161. Appraisal of an employee performance by supervisor, self, peers, subordinates and customers is termed as
a. Team appraisal
b. Balanced scorecard method c. 360 degree appraisal d. Critical incident method
162. The method of appraisal where the appraiser makes a list of all the important situations and employee reactions/behavior at that time is the a. Checklist method
b. Critical incident method c. Graphic rating method d. Work standards approach
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163. If the appraiser allows a single characteristic of the appraisee to dominate his judgement of the employee performance, it is termed as
a. Halo effect b. Stereotyping c. Perceptual set d. Primacy effect
164. Rajan believes that all those from Xavier’s are very arrogant and complacent. This is reflected in his performance appraisal of Preethi, who is from Xavier’s. This is an example of
a. Halo effect b. Perceptual set c. Stereotyping d. Stringency effect
165. Priyank is a good salesman and works for an IT company. But, his performance in 2001-02 was affected because of the slump in the IT market. However, his boss fails to acknowledge it and rates his performance as poor. This is an example of
a. Stereotyping b. Primacy effect
c. Fundamental attribution error d. Halo effect
166. Veena always awards high ratings to all her subordinates irrespective of their performance levels. She is affected by
a. Leniency effect b. Primacy effect c. Recency effect d. Tringency effect
167. One of the main reasons for the negative attitude of employees towards performance appraisal is a. It is associated with pay
b. It gives away how bad they are c. It tends to become subjective
because of poor implementation d. It is not useful for any other
organizational activity
168. Supratim has been promoted to the post of an Area Sales Manager just last week, but finds himself lacking in some areas. His performance can be improved by
a. Reprimanding him b. Training him
c. Linking his pay to performance d. Providing him with an assistant 169. Rapid Creations has been acquired
by Indigo Hues. Employees of the acquired company need basic training in
a. Human relations b. New technology c. Managerial aspects
d. Company policies and procedures 170. Employees resist participating in
training programs mainly because a. They are not convinced about their
benefits
b. They do not like to be away from their colleagues and friends
c. They feel that they are ill-equipped that they need training
d. None of the above
171. _________________, as a training method, helps the trainee gain cross-functional knowledge
a. Apprenticeship b. Simulation c. Job rotation d. Job enlargement
172. The method of training in which the trainee is given a series of questions to answer after reading the relevant material is called a. Role playing b. Simulation exercises c. Programmed instruction d. Committee assignments 173. ________________ helps in improving the communication,
people-management and relationship management skills of
the trainees.
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a. Computer modelling b. Role playing c. Class room lectures d. Vestibule training
174. The basic yardstick to measure the success of a training program is a. No. of participants
b. Reputation of the trainer c. Learning benefits to the trainees d. The amount paid in TAs & DAs
paid to all the trainees
175. The process of developing an understanding of the self and one’s relationships with other group members through unstructured group interaction is termed as
a. Role playing b. Simulation exercise c. Sensitivity training d. Transactional analysis
176. Response, learning, performance and results, are the four levels in evaluating a management development program. This system of evaluation is called
a. Taylor’s system b. Kirkpatrick’s system c. Werther & Davis’s method d. Armstrong’s method
177. A meeting of people to study and analyze a problem from different angles for developing the participants’ ability to exchange ideas and change their own views is a
a. Class room lecture b. Case study c. Conference d. Sensitivity training
178. A person who is either obedient or manipulative, charming at one time and repulsive at another time, is in a a. Child ego state
b. Adult ego state c. Parent ego state d. Chameleon ego state
179. Traditionally, the pay scales in companies were associated with a. Employee performance
b. Organizational hierarchy c. Worth of the candidate d. Charm of the employee
180. __________________ is the systematic process of analyzing and evaluating jobs to determine their relative worth in an organization. a. Job analysis
b. Job design c. Job evaluation d. Job enrichment
181. The different factors associated with the jobs in an organization, which form the basis for job evaluation are termed
a. Job specifications b. Job descriptions c. Job dimensions d. Job definitions
182. The process of ranking in which the relative importance of each job is determined in comparison with the representative job is called
a. Relative ranking b. Comparative ranking c. Paired comparison d. Single factor ranking
183. The main disadvantage of the job grading method is that
a. It is more comprehensive
b. It is not supported by job description or specification
c. It is very expensive
d. The grade definitions have to cover jobs from different functions
184. Example of a quantitative method of job evaluation is
a. Single factor ranking method b. Factor comparison method c. Job classification method d. All of the above
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185. Decision band method of job evaluation is based on the premise that the value of a job depends on its __________ requirements
a. Relationship management b. Hierarchical
c. Decision-making d. Decision-abiding
186. Compensation administration should match/follow all the following basics except
a. Employee expectancy b. Principle of equity c. Legal requirements d. None of the above
187. The financial capacity of the employer is taken into consideration in the concept of
a. Minimum wage b. Fair wage c. Living wage d. Just wage
188. Radha works in a small scale industry where she is paid Rs. 100 as a daily wage like all her co-workers. This is an example of a. Time wage plan
b. Piece wage plan c. Skill-based pay d. Competency-based pay
189. Satwik is an IT engineer, who earns Rs. 40000 p.m., working for his company. His pay is an example of a. Qualification-based pay
b. Skill-based pay c. Time wage plan d. Piece wage plan
190. Under which system, the wage for each piece of work is fixed and the workers are paid once the work is completed.
a. Piece-wage plan b. Skill-based pay c. Time wage plan d. Payment by results
191. The system of compensating employees in accordance with their performance is termed the
a. Executive compensation program b. Fixed compensation program c. Variable compensation program d. Performance pay program
192. The main hurdle in having a National Wage Policy in India is a. Opposition from trade unions b. Opposition from workers c. Regional & industrial disparities d. Opposition from the heads of state 193. Performance bonus is an example of
a/an
a. Intrinsic reward b. Extrinsic reward c. Intrinsic wage payment d. Extrinsic wage payment
194. The process of rewarding employees by giving them a stake in the company, which further enhances their performance is called the a. Gain-sharing
b. Annual bonus c. Employee stock plan d. Profit sharing
195. The fringe advantages that accrue to an employee over and above his salary, as a result of his employment and position in an organization are termed
a. Benefits b. Incentives c. Compensation d. Wages
196. The flexible benefit plan for employees, where the employee gets a chance to choose from a lot of benefits, is also called the
a. Holiday benefit plan b. Restaurant benefit plan c. Cafeteria benefit plan d. Variable benefit plan
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197. The provision of compensation or lucrative benefits for the top management, in case of a job loss/changeover when there is a change of guard, is the
a. High-flier scheme
b. Retention planning scheme c. Cool landing scheme d. Golden parachute scheme
198. The basic difference between incentives and benefits is
a. Incentives are service related and benefits are performance related b. Incentives are performance related
and benefits are service related c. Incentives are non-monetary and
benefits are monetary
d. Incentives are monetary and benefits are non-monetary
199. Halsey plan, Rowan plan, Barth system etc. are all examples of a. Long-term incentive plans b. Short-term incentive plans c. Non-monetary incentive plans d. Employee benefit plans
200. The first sign of an employee’s discontent either with the job or the organization is
a. Conflict b. Industrial unrest c. Grievance d. Strike
201. The first stage in grievance redressal is handled by the
a. Organizational head b. HR department c. Arbitrator d. Supervisor
202. The method of smoothing out differences to resolve a conflict between two parties, in view of larger interests is a. Avoidance b. Accommodation c. Arbitration d. Mediation 203. “________________ is employee self-control which prompts him to willingly cooperate with the organizational standards, rules, objectives etc.”
a. Culture b. Behavior c. Discipline d. Trust
204. Triumph Chemicals awards the “Safest Place” annual award to the unit with the best safety record every year, across its 16 units. This is an example of
a. Positive discipline b. Negative discipline c. Enforced discipline d. Reward discipline
205. Being late to work is an example of a. Minor infraction
b. Major infraction c. Medium infraction d. Intolerable offence
206. Corrective action should be immediate, impartial and consistent with a warning – this is called the a. Common disciplinary rule b. Red hot stove rule c. Cisco’s disciplinary rule d. Yellow hot stove rule
207. All the following are the features of a good disciplinary process except, a. Consistency
b. Impartiality c. Immediate action d. Unpredictability
208. The in charge of the acid storage plant at Sirpi was suspended for the accident that took place. Investigation revealed that he had actually approached the management with a request for repairing a leaking pipe, but the management ignored it. His suspension is an example of a. Late intervention b. Negative feedback
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c. Misplaced responsibility d. Punitive discipline
209. Ratan got a shock when he was suspended for smoking in the office premises. He says he never knew a puff came with such a heavy tag attached to it. This is an example of a. Negative feedback
b. Lack of communication c. Immediate action d. Late intervention
210. _____________ can be defined as the relationship between the management and employees of an industry.
a. Interpersonal relations b. Industrial relations c. Organizational relations d. Employment relations
211. Paternalistic style of management, adopted during the ‘human relations’ era is also called the
a. Exploitative authoritative style b. Benevolent authoritative style c. Consultative management style d. Participative style
212. _______________ bodies like Indian Labor Conference, Standing Labor Committee and Industrial Committees help the government in settling industrial disputes.
a. Bipartite b. Tripartite c. Constitutional d. Autonomous
213. _______________ is a managerial tool that facilitates an amicable and mutually acceptable agreement between the management and the employees to solve employment related problems.
a. Adjudication b. Industrial conflict c. Collective bargaining d. Strike / Lockout
214. ‘Most of the problems in industrial relations arise out of the differing perceptions and attitudes of the management and the workers’ – this is the
a. Sociological approach b. Human relations approach c. Gandhian approach d. Psychological approach
215. The production targets are fixed with the mutual consent of the management and the workers in Calcio Tubes & Bulbs Pvt. Ltd. This is an example of
a. Associative participation b. Administrative participation c. Decisive participation d. Informative participation
216. A trade union’s primary objective is to
a. Conduct strikes b. Force lockouts
c. Fight with the management on employment related issues
d. Achieve economic benefits for employees
217. The workers in these unions are experienced and work on a single trade or possess similar skills and specialization.
a. Craft union b. General union c. Industrial union d. Staff union
218. The difference in the wages paid to workers in the same unit, occupation or region is called
a. Wage inequality b. Wage differential
c. Compensation differential d. Compensation difference
219. Ramya analyzed the market opportunities and the future of the IT industry in-depth before taking up a career as a Systems Analyst. However, she is not very happy today as she feels she is unfit for the job. The most probable reason is
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a. She failed to do a proper self-assessment before taking the decision
b. She is unhappy that all her friends are in the same industry
c. She is unhappy that none of her friends are in the same industry d. She sees her friends in other fields
doing better
220. As a student, when one is trying to assess one’s self and the opportunities available in the market to choose the right career, he/she is said to be in the
a. Exploration stage b. Establishment stage c. Maintenance stage d. Disengagement stage
221. The role of a legal advisor in an organization is very important. However, it has very little scope for career advancement because of a high degree of specialization. Such careers are called
a. Declining careers b. Low-ceiling careers c. Career plateaus d. Glass-ceiling careers
222. Virtuous Services Pvt. Ltd. believes that it pays quite handsome salaries to its employees. However, the turnover rate has been quite high in the recent past and all the exit interviews point to one factor – compensation, as the culprit. The company failed to
a. Meet the legal requirements b. Follow the principle of equanimity c. Match the employee expectations d. Match the pay scales abroad
223. In the job classification system for job evaluation, job grades are defined and determined based on a. Organizational structure & pay
packages
b. Job dimensions & pay packages c. Pay packages & grade definitions d. Organizational structure & job
dimensions
224. Both Raunak & Dilip work for View real Inc. Though Dilip is two years senior to Raunak, he earns Rs.5000 less than Raunak per month. This is because of the difference in their performances. View real follows the system of
a. Standard compensation b. Variable compensation c. Executive compensation d. Biased compensation
225. The approach that stresses on the fact that individuals should not be treated as mere factors of production is
a. Human Relations Approach b. Scientific Management Approach c. Humanistic Approach
d. None of the above
226. Hawthorne Studies gave raise to this approach of human resource management
a. Mathematical Approach b. Human Relations Approach c. Human Resources Approach d. Contingent Approach
227. An average sincere employee expects his boss or manager to have all the following characteristics except
a. Be genuinely interested in the employee and his work
b. Ignore all the employee’s mistakes c. Be fair and frank in his dealings
with the employee
d. Recognize and reward the employee for his contributions
228. As an auditor, the HR professional a. Ensures that all managers of the
organization perform their respective roles
b. Conducts training and development activities
c. Solve employee grievances
d. Provides support to other departments in conducting appraisals etc.
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229. ________________ organizations are characterized by rigid structures ,directives and rules and are appropriate for static environments. a. Mechanistic
b. Organic c. Flat
d. Decentralized
230. The marketing manager was asked to handle the product re-launch of toothpaste by VP-Marketing. The manager’s obligation towards the VP is called
a. Responsibility b. Accountability c. Authority
d. None of the above
231. The process of ensuring that there are the right number of qualified people in the right jobs for best results is termed
a. Human Resource Planning b. Recruitment
c. Retrenchment d. Downsizing
232. The statement of the required set of knowledge, skills and competencies for a job is called the
a. Job specification b. Job description c. Job classification d. Job analysis
233. One of the following is not a job characteristic under the Job characteristics Approach to Job analysis.
a. Skill Variety b. Task significance c. Reporting authority d. Task significance
234. Adding more responsibility, providing wider scope, greater sequencing and minimizing controls, all constitute
a. Job enlargement b. Job expansion
c. Job design d. Job enrichment
235. If a selection method produces consistent results across different situations and times, it is termed to be
a. Reliable b. Valid c. Legal
d. None of the above
236. An interview where the interviewer does not chart out the formal structure of the interview but lets it take a natural course is called a a. Formal interview
b. Unstructured interview c. Group interview d. Stress interview
237. The performance appraisal method that channelises employee efforts with organizational goals is
a. BARS
b. 360 degree appraisal c. Balanced scorecard d. Management by objectives
238. The employees of IIVB lose a half-day’s leave if they are late to work even by 15 minutes. This is an example of
a. Punitive discipline b. Preventive discipline c. Positive discipline d. Precautionary discipline
239. In India, regulation of employment and conditions of employment are governed by
a. The Trade Union Act, 1926 b. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 c. The Factories Act, 1948
d. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
240. Registration and cancellation of trade unions is governed by
a. The Trade Union Act, 1926 b. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 c. The Factories Act, 1948
d. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
