1. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in India mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use derivatives to hedge against risk of volatility in currency rates?
a. IMF
b. Reserve Bank of India c. SEBI
d. Union Ministry of Finance Ans: b
2. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest income on PF deposits for 2010-11? a. Reserve Bank of India
b. Income Tax Department
c. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation d. Corporate Affairs Ministry
Ans: b
3. (1) The report on Customer Service in Banks by a committee chaired by M. Damodaran, former Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that was released on 3 July 2011 recommended an increased deposit insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh so as to encourage individuals to keep all their deposits in banks.
(2) The panel also suggested blocking of lost ATM cards through SMS and immediate restoration of funds in case of non-dispensation of cash at an ATM within 5 working days.
Which of the above is not true? a. Only 1
b. Only 2 c. Both 1 & 2 d. None of the above Ans: b
4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?
a. 7% b. 7.5% c. 8% d. 8.5% Ans: c
5. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth quarter ended 31 March 2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in 2010?
a. Indian Overseas Bank b. State Bank of India c. Bank of India d. United Bank of India Ans: b
6. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General Manager, South Asia and Country President, India?
a. T. V. Seshadri b. Vicky Bindra
c. Tunde Lemo d. Ajay Banga Ans: a
7. Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?
a. Central Bank of India b. Punjab National Bank c. United Bank of India d. Gramin Bank Ans: b
8. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment. a. Syndicate Bank
b. Punjab National Bank c. Corporation Bank d. United Bank of India Ans: b
9. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Dewan Housing Finance Corporation (DHFL) under which DHFL will distribute home loans to Yes Bank's customers?
a. Canara Bank b. ABN Amro bank c. Yes Bank d. HSBC Ans: c
10. Which life insurance company in India launched a new non-linked health insurance plan, Jeevan Arogya? a. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd
b. Life Insurance Corporation of India c. IDBI Fortis Life Insurance Company Ltd. d. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd
Ans: b
11. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector? a. State Bank of India
b. Allahabad Bank c. Punjab National Bank d. United Bank of India Ans: b
12. Which Indian bank on 10 May 2011 raised benchmark prime lending rate 75 basis points to 14% following raising of interest rates by RBI by basis points on 3 May 2011?
a. State Bank of India b. Union Bank
c. Punjab National Bank d. Bank of Baroda Ans: a
13. The Reserve Bank of India on 26 April 2011 fined 19 banks, including the country's top private and foreign banks for violating its guidelines on derivatives. Which is the only public sector bank on the list of banks to be fined?
a. State bank of India b. Punjab National Bank c. Bank of India d. Indian Bank Ans: a
14. The Reserve Bank of India on 25 August 2011 released its Annual Report for 2010-11. Which of the following was not discussed in the Annual Report the Central Board of the RBI?
a. assessment of the macroeconomic performance during 2010-11 b. prospects for 2011-12
c. working and operations of the Reserve Bank and its financial accounts d. role of regulatory bodies in controlling the financial markets
Ans: d
15. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel headed by headed by Usha Thorat, Director, Centre for Advanced Financial Research and Learning (CAFRAL) on 29 August 2011 came up with suggestion on non-banking finance company (NBFC). Which of the following related to this statement is not true?
1. The panel suggested the central bank to insist on a minimum asset size of more than Rs.25 crore for registering any new non-banking finance company (NBFC)
2. Transfer of shareholding, direct or indirect, of 25 per cent and above, change in control, merger or acquisition of any registered NBFC will require prior approval of the Reserve Bank.
3. Tier-I capital for capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR) purposes would be specified at 12 per cent to be achieved in three years for all registered deposit-taking and non-deposit-taking NBFCs.
4. NBFCs would be subject to regulations similar to banks while lending to stock brokers and merchant banks and similar to stock brokers, as specified by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
a. 1 & 4 b. 2 & 4 c. Only 4 d. Only 1 Ans: d
16. Which Indian PSU bank in tune with its plans to expand its retail division in the UK entered the mortgage market in the country for the first time?
a. Punjab National Bank b. Oriental Bank of Commerce c. State bank of India d. Indian Overseas Bank Ans: c
17. Which of the following banks set up two loan processing centres for the small and medium enterprise (SME) segment on a pilot basis in Bangalore & in New Delhi in September 2011?
a. Corp Bank
b. United Bank of India c. Syndicate Bank d. Bank of Baroda
Ans: c
18. The government suspended M Ramadoss for alleged violations in issuing insurance cover to an airline during his stint as head of another state-run insurer. To which insurance group did he belong to?
a. New India Assurance b. LIC
c. GIC
d. ICICI Insurance Ans: a
19. Which of the following banks in early May 2011 entered into a tie-up with non-banking finance companies such as Future Capital, Bajaj Finance, and Reliance Capital to grow its retail portfolio?
a. Central Bank of India b. State Bank of India c. Bank of India d. HDFC Bank Ans: a
20. Which are the two Gujarat-based cooperative sector lenders on which Reserve bank of India imposed a financial penalty of Rs 1 lakh each for violation of various rules, including anti-money laundering guidelines?
1. Shree MahalaxmiMercantile Co-operative Bank 2. Rander People's Co-operative Bank
3. Abad District Co Op Bank 4. Ahd Mercantile Co-Op Bank Ltd a. 1 & 2 b. 2 & 3 c. 1 & 4 d. 3 & 4 Ans: (a) Reasoning
1. What should come next in the following number series? 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 9 7 5 3 8 6 4 9 7 5
(A) 8
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
Directions (Q.2-3) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the the questions given below: R $ 5 4 I J M @ P 3 © A Q T 2 W 1 % U V 6 B E N 8 * 7 δ D
2. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and not immediately followed by a letter ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans: (D)
3. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the right of J ?
(A) 1
(B) A
(C) Q
(D) T
(E) None of these
Ans: (E)
4. A mountain would necessarily have
(A) some trees
(B) a valley
(C) a peak
(D) a steep cliff
(E) snow
Ans: (C)
Directions (Q.5-6) Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. You have to take the given diagram to be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the five alternatives following each question logically follows from the given diagram. The diagram comprises three circles showing people from three different countries who have travelled to either, both or none of the countries
5. Which of the following is true about A ?
(A) It represents US citizens who have travelled to Europe but not to India.
(B) It represents Indians who have travelled only to US but not to Europe.
(C) It represents Europeans who have travelled only to US but not to India.
(D) It represents all those Indians who have travelled to Europe as well as to the US.
(E) It represents all those who have travelled both to Europe and to the US but not to India.
Ans: (D)
6. Which of the following represents those Europeans who have travelled only the US but not to India?
(A) Only C
(B) Only A
(C) F and C
(D) Only D
(E) Not illustrated in the diagram
Ans: (E)
7. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters BTU using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans: (C)
Directions-(Q.8-10) In each question below is given a number/ symbol followed by five combinations of letter codes numbred (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the
number/symbol based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer.
5 Ω 2 β 6 9 8 1 @ 7 $ 4 3 O π
Letter Code :
J K P A D C B R S L V F T M E
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the fifth elements are even numbers, the codes for both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the group of numbers contains only one symbol, that symbol is to be coded as the code for the element following it.
(iii) If the third element is an even number and the fourth an odd number, the fourth element is to be coded as the code for the second element.
8. 523Ω69 (A) JPTDDC (B) JTPDDC (C) JPDDTC (D) TPJDDC (E) JTDDPC Ans: (A) 9. 436π8@ (A) FTDEBS (B) BTDEFS (C) FDTEBS (D) BTEDFS (E) BTDFES Ans: (B) 10. 80π16β (A) DEMRBA (B) DMERBA (C) BMERDA
(D) BMDERA
(E) DREMBA
Ans: (B)
English Language
Directions-(Q.11 to 15) Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it-
Every afternoon, on their way back from school, the children used to go and play in the Giant's garden. It was a large lovely garden, with soft green grass. Over the grass stood beautiful flowers like stars, and there were twelve peach-trees that bore rich fruit. The birds would sit on the trees and sing sweetly to the children playing below. One day the Giant came back. He had been on a long tour and was now determined to return to his own castle. When he arrived he saw the children playing in the garden and was outrageous. "What are you doing here ?" He shouted in a very gruff voice, and the children ran away. "I will not allow anybody to play in my garden but myself" said the Giant. And so, he built a high wall around it, and put up a notice-board that read TRESPASSERS WILL BE
PROSECUTED. He was a very selfish Giant. The poor children h&d now, nowhere to play. They tried to play on the road, but the road was very dusty and full of stones, and they did not like it. On their way back from school, they used to wander around the high wall and remember the good times.
Then came spring, and all over the country there were little blossoms and little birds. Only in the garden of the Selfish Giant it was still winter. The birds did not care to sing in it as there were no children and the trees forgot to blossom. The only people who were pleased were the snow and the frost. "Spring has forgotten this garden," they cried, "so we will live here all the year round." I cannot understand why the spring is so late in coming," said the selfish Giant, as he sat at the window and looked out at his cold white garden, "I hope there will be a change in the weather." But the spring never came, nor did the summer. The autumn gave golden fruit to every garden, but to the Giant's garden she gave none. "He was too selfish," she said. So it was always winter there.
One morning the Giant was lying awake in bed when he heard the birds singing. "I believe the spring has come at last," said the Giant, and he jumped out of bed and looked out. He saw the most wonderful sight. Through the little hole in the wall the children had crept in, and they were sitting on the branches of the trees. On every tree there was a child. The birds were flying about and twittering with delight, and the flowers were looking up through the green grass and laughing. It was a lovely scene however, in one corner it was still winter. It was the farthest corner of the garden, and in it was standing a little boy. He was so small that he could not reach the branches of the tree, and he was wandering all around it crying bitterly. The Giant's heart melted as he looked out. "How selfish I have been '" he said, "now I know why spring would not come here. I will put that poor little boy on the top of the tree, and then I will knock down the wall, and my garden shall be the children's play-ground for ever and ever." He was really sorry for what he had done.
11. What did the Giant do to keep the children away from his garden ?
(A) He built a high wall around the garden
(B) He displayed a message on a notice board
(C) He threatened to complain to their parents
(D) Only (A) and (B)
Ans: (D)
12. Why did the autumn trees refuse to bear fruit ?
(A) The snow and the winter took over
(B) The Giant was enjoying the winter in his garden
(C) It was one way of keeping the children away
(D) The Giant refused to change his behaviour
(E) The Giant was selfish
Ans: (A)
13. When did the Giant realize that he was being selfish ?
(A) When the long winters would not end
(B) When he witnessed the spring after the children reentered the garden
(C) When he heard the song of a bird
(D) When he felt he was lonely
(E) When he realized he had no friends to play within the graden
Ans: (B)
14. What incident brought about a change in the Giant's heart ?
(A) The little boy in the corner of the garden
(B) The long unending winter
(C) The change of weather from winter to spring
(D) The blossoming of the trees
(E) The singing of the birds
Ans: (C)
15. What could be an appropriate title for the story ?
(A) The Corner Boy
(B) The Winter Season
(D) The Little Children
(E) The Paradise Garden
Ans: (E)
Directions-(Q.16 to 16) Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/ phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.
16. Scene (A) Wish (B) Drawing (C) Fantasy (D) Picture (E) Dream Ans: (D)
Directions-(Q.17 to 17) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 17. Farthest (A) Extreme (B) Nearest (C) Distant (D) Shortest (E) Endless Ans: (B)
Directions-(Q.18 - 20) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 18. Pleasant (A) Admirable (B) Oisgusting (C) Nice (D) Indecent
(E) Unexpected Ans: (B) 19. Strange (A) Familiar (B) Unseen (C) IIlfamed (D) Novel (E) Conservative Ans: (A) 20. Continued (A) Irregular (B) Oestroyed (C) Reckoned (D) Suspended (E) Carried on Ans: (D) Numerical Ability
Directions-(Q.21 - 21) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
21. 64% of ? - 96% of 1120 = 499.2
(A) 2600
(B) 2540
(C) 2460
(D) 2280
(E) None of these
22. Bhuvan has some hens and some cows. If the total number of animal heads are 71 and the total number of feet are 228. How many hens does Bhuvan have ?
(A) 43
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans: (E)
23. The difference between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is 18. The sum of the two digits of the number is 12. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
(A) 35
(B) 27
(C) 32
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)
Directions-(Q.24 - 25) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
24. 666 x 66 x 6 = ?
(A) 263836
(B) 236736
(C) 263376
(D) 236836
(E) None of these
Ans: (E)
25. 3/8 x 4/7 x ? = 5376
(B) 25144
(C) 24808
(D) 25088
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)
26. Meenal bought a watch with 25% discount on the selling price. If the cost of her watch Rs. 1,545, what is the original selling price of the watch ?
(A) Rs. 2,050
(B) Rs. 2,000
(C) Rs. 2,040
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans: (E)
27. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'GROUND' be arranged ?
(A) 360
(B) 720
(C) 120
(D) 500
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
Directions-(Q.28 - 29) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
28. (98764 + 89881 + 99763 + 66342) ÷ (1186 + ? + 1040 + 1870) = 55
(A) 2354
(B) 2368
(C) 2254
(D) 2404
Ans: (A) 29. 956 x 753 = ? (A) 723692 (B) 727398 (C) 710308 (D) 719868
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)
30. If the value of 21a + 21b = 1134, what is the average of a+ b ?
(A) 29
(B) 27
(C) 58
(D) 54
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
General Awareness (with special reference to banking industry)
31. Which of the following countries topped the list of medals at the World Athletics Championships in Daegu, South Korea ? (A) USA (B) Kenya (C) Jamaica (D) South Africa Ans: (A)
32. India, on 24 August 2011 signed (Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement) with which one of the following countries ?
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) UK
Ans: (A)
33. UNCTAD's Trade and Development Report 2011 launched in New Delhi on 6 September 2011projected an economic growth of what per cent for India in 2011 ?
(A) 8%
(B) 8.1%
(C) 9.2%
(D) 8.6%
Ans: (B)
34. Russian and US scientists launched an expedition to study emission of___ gas in the eastern Arctic.
(A) Methane
(B) Carbon-Di-Oxide
(C) Sulfur-Di-Oxide
(D) Ozone
Ans: (A)
35. Name the Maoists Vice-Chairman who was on 28 August 2011 elected Nepal's 35th prime minister marking the country’s attempt to form a stable government after extended political uncertainty.
(A) Baburam Bhattarai
(B) Sher Bahadur Deuba
(C) Surya Bahadur Thapa
(D) Jhalanath Khanal
Ans: (A)
36. Indian rupee on 7 September 2011 settled at one-year low against the US currency. What was the value of the India value vis-à-vis the US currency ?
(B) 46
(C) 45.32/33
(D) 45
Ans: (A)
37. How many Indian companies were ranked among the top 200 Asia-Pacific corporations in Forbes Asia's 'Best Under a Billion' list for 2011 released on 31 August 2011 ?
(A) 65
(B) 35
(C) 23
(D) 14
Ans: (D)
38. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel headed by headed by Usha Thorat, Director, Centre for Advanced Financial Research and Learning (CAFRAL) on 29 August 2011 came up with suggestion on non-banking finance company (NBFC). Which of the following related to this statement is not true ?
1. The panel suggested the central bank to insist on a minimum asset size of more than Rs.25 crore for registering any new non-banking finance company (NBFC)
2. Transfer of shareholding, direct or indirect, of 25 per cent and above, change in control, merger or acquisition of any registered NBFC will require prior approval of the Reserve Bank.
3. Tier-I capital for capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR) purposes would be specified at 12 per cent to be achieved in three years for all registered deposit-taking and non-deposit-taking NBFCs.
4. NBFCs would be subject to regulations similar to banks while lending to stock brokers and merchant banks and similar to stock brokers, as specified by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(A) 1 & 4
(B) 2 & 4
(C) Only 4
(D) Only 1
Ans: (D)
39. North Korea agreed to start international talks on denuclearization of the Korean peninsula. This was agreed during the visit of North Korean leader Kim Jong Ii to__.
(B) China
(C) UK
(D) South Korea
Ans: (A)
40. According to data released by the commerce and industry ministry on 20 October 2011 food inflation inflation stood at what percentage in the week ended 8 October 2011?
(A) 10.6% (B) 10.54% (C) 10.33% (D) 10.91% Ans: (A) Computer Knowledge 41. Selection of command-
(A) Opens the copy of the document in preview
(B) Prints the copy of displayed document
(C) Brings change in expansion of displayed document
(D) Saves the copy of displayed document
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)
42. You organize files by storing them in-
(A) archives
(B) folders
(C) indexes
(D) lists
(E) None of these
43. How many different documents can you have open at anyone time ?
(A) No more than three
(B) Only one
(C) As many as your computer memory will hold
(D) No more than you taskbar can display
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)
44. What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resource in a computer network ?
(A) Printers
(B) Speakers
(C) Floppy disk drives
(D) Keyboards
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)
45. Directory in directory is called-
(A) Mini directory
(B) Junior directory
(C) Part directory
(D) Sub-directory
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)
46. Such a pre-made document, which has coordinating font, layout and background, is-
(A) Guide
(B) Model
(C) Ruler
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)
47. In order to create columnar data in Word you need to-
(A) Tab consecutively until your cursor reaches the desired place
(B) Set tabs or use the Table menu
(C) You need to use Excel
(D) Press the space bar until your cursor reaches the desired place
(E) None of these
Ans: (E)
48. Saving is a process-
(A) To copy the document from memory to stroage medium
(B) To bring change in present status of the document
(C) To change the face or entire form
(D) To develop the document by recording the text with the use of keyboard
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)
49. To insert a word into the middle of a sentence-
(A) move the cursor to the desired location in the sentence and type the new word
(B) move the cursor to the desired location in the sentence, press Enter key, and type the new word
(C) move the cursor to the beginning of the sentence and start typing
(D) retype the whole sentence
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)
50. A(n) ... is a combination of hardware and software that facilitates the sharing of information between computing devices.
(A) network
(C) expansion board
(D) digital device
(E) None of these
Reasoning
1. Haw many such pairs of digits are there in the number 5234816 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans: (5)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Turmeric (2) Gourd (3) Potato (4) Carrot (5) Ginger Ans: (2)
Directions (Q. 3 - 4): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below: 493 879 365 258 642
3. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are interchanged which of the following will be the second digit of the second lowest number?
(1) 9
(3) 6
(4) 5
(5) 4
Ans: (1)
4. If '1' is added to the first digit in each number and '1' is subtracted from the third digit in each number, which of the following will be the sum of the second and third digits of the highest number ?
(1) 14 (2) 6 (3) 15 (4) 12 (5) None of these Ans: (5)
5. Among A, B, C and D, A has to travel more than any other friend to reach the office. C travels a certain distance which is not as much as B but greater than D. Who amongst them travels the least distance to reach the office?
(1) B (2) D (3) A (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Ans: (2)
6. Four of the following five are a like in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) India (2) Asia (3) Antarctica (4) Australia (5) Europe Ans: (1)
Directions (Q. 7 - 10): Following questions are based on the five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
7. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
(1) LAP (2) BUT (3) CAR (4) SON (5) HID Ans: (1)
8. If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to its previous letter and each vowel is changed to its next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans: (4)
9. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given words?
(1) Two (2) Five (3) Six (4) Nine (5) Three Ans: (2)
10. If the second alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans: (5)
11. If each vowel of the word PRINCELY is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left ?
(1) M (2) J (3) B (4) O (5) K Ans: (5) English Language
Directions-(Q. 12 to 16) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Ryan, the Zen teacher, was requested by his sister-in-law to come to her house and talk to her son. "He does no work, squanders his father's money in wild parties and is ... (12) ... the estate," she complained. "If he does not reform, we will be ruined. Ryan went to his brother's house and met his nephew who was also pleased to see him. The two of them had spent many happy hours together before Ryan had turned to Zen and...(13) ... the
monastery. The young man knew why his uncle had come and braced himself for the ... (14) ... he was sure to receive. But Ryan said not a word in rebuke. The next morning when it was time for him to go, he put on his shoes and then said to his nephew : "Will you help me tie the....(15)...of my shoes? My hands shake and I cannot do it." His nephew helped him willingly. "Thank you," said Ryan. "A man becomes older and feebler day by day. You remember how strong and robust I used to be ?" "I do," said his nephew, thoughtfully. "I do indeed remember how you used to be." It was the moment of ... (16) ... for him. He suddenly realized that his mother and all those who had looked after 50. him had become old and that it was now his turn to look after them and to take on the responsibilities of the household and the community. He gave up his dissolute life forever.
(1) testing (2) torturing (3) patronizing (4) mocking (5) neglecting Ans: (5) 13. (1) lived (2) entered (3) inaugurated (4) moved (5) built Ans: (2) 14. (1) scolding (2) task (3) gift (4) affection (5) reward Ans: (3) 15. (1) ends (2) strands (3) hooks (4) threads (5) laces Ans: (5) 16.
(1) success (2) justice (3) comfort (4) truth (5) adventure Ans: (4)
Directions (Q. 17 - 20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In July 1920 barely eight months after his arrival in England, Subhash Chandra Bose appeared in the Civil Service Examination and passed it with distinction. But the prospect of being a member of the bureaucracy did not make him happy. He felt that the first step towards equipping one self for public service was to sacrifice all worldly interest. Much against the wishes of his father Subhash resigned from the I.C.S. and returned to India it? July 1920. Here he became Deshbandhu's most promising recruit. When C.R: Das became the chief organiser of the boycott of the visit of Prince of Wales, Subhash was by his side. The hartal in Calcutta. was a spectacular success and both the guru and sishya found themselves in jail. This was Subhash's first incarceration, the first of a total of eleven. Later. when C.R. Das was elected Mayor of Calcutta, Subhash was appointed Chief Executive Officer, While holding this post he was arrested in a case of conspiracy and was lodged without trial in Mandalay jail for two-and-a-half years. After release from jail, he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee and once again resumed his political activities.
Subhash became President of the All India Youth Congress, Central Officer Commanding of the Congress Volunteer Corps, and in 1920, was the co-founder, with" Jawaharlal Nehru of the Left Wing of the Congress Party. He also became President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931. His dynamism was a source of inspiration for the trade unionists in the struggle for their rights as well as for India's freedom. In 1938, he was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Haripura Session. This was the time when Congress ministries were in office in seven states under the scheme of Provincial Autonomy granted under the Government of India Act of 1935. He emphasised on the revolutionary potential of the Congress ministries in the presidential address. He was re-elected Congress President the following year at Tripuri, defeating he veteran, Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya though the latter enjoyed Gandhiji's support.'
17. When Subhash was the Chief Executive Officer
(1) he was arrested in a conspiracy case
(2) the Government oflndia Act of 1935 was passed
(3) he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee
(4) The hartal in Calcutta was observed
(5) None of these Ans: (1)
(1) Against the decision of sending Subhash to jail for two and a half years
(2) Against the detention of Deshbandhu C.R. Das by police
(3) Against the visit of the Prince of Wales to India
(4) Against the atrocities committed by the British rulers
(5) Against the ban imposed on trade union activities
Ans : (3)
19. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) The session of the Congress party was held at Calcutta
(2) Subhash liked the idea of working in a bureaucratic set up
(3) Subhash became the President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1928
(4) In British rule, Congress was allowed to form ministries in States
(5) Subhash was lodged in the Mandalay jail after a proper trial Ans: (4)
20. Shri c.n. Das (was)
(1) the-co-founder of the Left Wing of the Congress Party
(2) the President of.the All India youth Congress
(3) arrested and lodged in Mandalay jail without trial
(4) organised the boycott of the visit of Price of Wales
(5) elected unopposed as the President of the congress Party Ans: (4) Numerical Ability 21. 67.39 -11.78 + 19.63 =? + 22.41 (1) 52.73 (2) 52.83 (3) 65.78 (4) 64.78
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
Directions-(Q.22 to 25) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
22. 22% of 250 + 35% of 460 = ? (1) 216 (2) 226 (3) 232 (4) 242 (5) None of these Ans: (1) 23. (1) 81 (2) (81)2 (3) 3 (4) 9 (5) None of these Ans: (4) 24. (1) 4 (2) 24 (3) 16 (4) 12 (5) None of these
Ans: (2) 25. 0.6 x 1.8 ; 0.5 x 12 = ? (1) 24.92 (2) 25.92 (3) 18.46 (4) 17.46 (5) None of these Ans: (2)
Directions- (Q. 26) what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
26. 17,98,147,172,181,? (1) 180 (2) 192 (3) 184 (4) 182 (5) None of these Ans: (4)
27. Sonal runs 220 metres every day. How many kilometres will she run in 3 weeks?
(1) 4.42 (2) 5.62 (3) 6.32 (4) 4.62 (5) None of these Ans: (4)
28. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following question ?
(2) (225)2
(3) 225
(4) √15
(5) √45
Ans: (1)
29. The simple interest accrued in 8 years on a principal of Rs.20,000 is one-tenth the principal. What is the rate of simple interest p.c.p.a. ? (1) 1.15 (2) 2.25 (3) 1.25 (4) 2.75 (5) None of these Ans: (3)
30. The ratio between the present ages of Punit and Suresh is 4 : 5 respectively. After seven years Punit's age will be 31 years. What was Suresh's age 4 years ago?
(1) 24 years (2) 28 years (3) 34 years (4) 30 years (5) None of these Ans: (5) Computer Knowledge
31. Which of the following controls the process of interaction between the user and the operating system?
(1) User interface
(2) Language translator
(3) Platform
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
32. You will work on which groupings, while formating the text in word?
(1) Table, paragraph and index
(2) Paragraph, index and section
(3) Character, paragraph and section
(4) Index, character and table
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
33. When you want to move some text from one page to a different page, the best method is-
(1) drag and drop
(2) cut and paste
(3) delete and retype
(4) find and replace
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
34. The first computers were programmed using-
(1) assembly language (2) machine language (3) source code (4) object code (5) spaghetti code Ans: (2)
35. How many are the margins on page?
(1) Two (header and footer)
(3) Two (Landscape, portrait)
(4) Two (Upper and lower)
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
36. An is a combination of hardware and software that facilitates the sharing of information between computing devices.
(1) network (2) peripheral (3) expansion board (4) digital device (5) None of these Ans: (1)
37. The settings are automatic and standard.
(1) icon (2) default (3) CPU (4) peripheral (5) None of these Ans: (2)
38. (1) is too long for the line of text
(2) is not in the dictionary file and therefore might be spelt incorrectly
(3) is not appropriate for that particular sentence
(4) is a verb
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
39. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system are called-
(2) Passwords
(3) Security commands
(4) Code words
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
40. To view information on the web you must have a-
(1) cable modem
(2) web browser
(3) Domain Name Server
(4) hypertext viewer
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
General Awareness (with special reference to banking industry)
41. The Reserve Bank of India panel to review facilities for individuals under FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) submitted report on 10 August 2011. With regard to the following which of the following is not true
A. In the report it mentioned that the concept of non-repatriation basis or non-repatriable funds was outdated.
B. Since non-residents were given the freedom to remit $1 million annually, it was compulsory to maintain procedures under FEMA.
C. The report suggested the procedural knots in the system need to be untied to enable the present forex liberalisation to be effective.
D. Issue of take-overs underwent changes in the past and now are taken care of under the ambit of SEBI regulations and using FEMA for this purpose is superfluous and an unnecessary.
(1) 2 & 4
(2) Only 2
(3) 1 & 4
(4) Only 4
Ans: (2)
42. Name the Irish poet and human rights activist who was named Ireland’s ninth president on 30 October 2011 after winning 57% of votes in the final count of the presidential election held on 27 October 2011.
(1) Michael D Higgins
(2) Mary McAleese
(3) Douglas Hyde
(4) Mary Robinson
Ans: (1)
43. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
(1) State Bank of India
(2) Allahabad Bank
(3) Punjab National Bank
(4) United Bank of India
Ans: (2)
44. Who became the first Indian tennis player ever to win the Canadian U-18 ITF Junior World Ranking Championship on 17 July 2011? (1) Ambika Pandey (2) D Harika (3) Koneru Humpy (4) Chekrovolu Swuro Ans: (1)
45. Who did the Union government appoint on 23 July 2011 as the Solicitor-General, the second senior most law officer of India?
(1) Fali S Nariman
(2) Rohinton Nariman
(3) Gopal Subramanium
(4) Harish Salve
Ans: (2)
46. India registered a __ per cent increase in tiger population in 2010, according to a report, Status of tigers, co-predators and prey in India-2010, released on 28 July 2011.
(2) 30
(3) 15
(4) 12
Ans: (1)
47. According to the WPI data released by the Commerce and Industry Ministry on 3 November 2011, food inflation surged to what per cent for the week ended 22 October 2011 owing to soaring prices of various edibles such as vegetables, fruits, pulses, milk and all other protein-rich items?
(1) 11.55%
(2) 12.25%
(3) 12.21%
(4) 11.12%
Ans: (3)
48. World Investment Report 2011 was released by UNCTAD on 26 July 2011. According to the report, what is India’s position among the top 20 Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) recipients?
(1) 8th
(2) 10th
(3) 14th
(4) 4th
Ans: (3)
49. The First Trojan Asteriod of earth discovered by the scientists. What is its name?
(1) 2010TK7
(2) 2010KT7
(3) 2010XY
(4) 2010YX
Ans: (1)
50. Billionaire entrepreneur Ajay Piramal purchased 5.5% stake in which of the following mobile service providers for Rs. 2900 crore, or $640 million?
(1) Idea Cellular
(3) Bharti Airtel
(4) MTNL
Ans: (2)
Reasoning
1. 'DIVE' is related to 'EIVD' and. 'SOUL' is related to 'LOUS' in the same way as 'FEAR' is related to
1) AERF 2) AFRE 3) RFAE 4) REAF 5) None of these Ans: (4)
Directions (Q.2 - 3): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below: 493 879 365 258 642
2. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits df the second highest number ?
1) 13 2) 15 3) 9 4) 7 5) 10 Ans: (5)
3. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the third digit of the lowest number ?
1) 3
2) 9
3) 5
5) 8
Ans: (4)
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TACKLE, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans: (3)
Directions (Q.5 - 7) Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. You have to take the given diagram to be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the five alternatives following each question logically follows from the given diagram. The diagram comprises three circles showing people from three different countries who have travelled to either, both or none of the countries
mentioned in the diagram.
5. Which of the following represents Indians who have travelled only to Europe but not to the US ?
1) Only C 2) Only B 3) Only A 4) A and C 5) Only E Ans: (1)
6. Which of the following represents such Indians as have travelled only to the US and not to Europe ?
1) Only F 2) Only D 3) A and D 4) D and F 5) C and F Ans: (2)
7. Which of the following represents US citizens who have travelled neither to Europe nor to India ? 1) Only D 2) C and D 3) A and D 4) Only F 5) Only C Ans: (4)
8. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RCA using each letter only once in each word ?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Ans: (3)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TORNADO each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans: (B)
10. 'VT' is related to 'QO' in the same way as 'MK' is related to '...'
(A) HF
(B) IG
(D) JG (E) QO Ans: (A) English Language
Directions (Q.11 - 15): In the following passage there arc blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
It is very difficult to (11) the extent of the poverty in India. Hence, it is called the mass poverty. It is a problem of low national income and its (12) distribution. The slow pace of development (13) the extent of poverty. The mass poverty makes India belong to the category of the (14) countries in the world. In many Asian countries practically about 50 per cent people live below the poverty line. ln India, more than 46.33 per cent people are below the poverty line and the level of the per capita income is very (15). The Planning Commission has defined the poverty line on the basis of nutritional requirement or2,4OO calories per person per day in rural areas and 2,100 calories for the persons in urban areas.
11. 1) visualize 2) formulate 3) nullify 4) eradicate 5) calculate Ans: (5) 12. 1) unequal 2) normal 3) absolute 4) proper 5) usual Ans: (1) 13.
1) augments 2) accentuates 3) gains 4) helps 5) thwarts Ans: (1) 14. 1) neediest 2) poorest 3) best 4) developed 5) richest Ans: (2) 15. 1) low 2) fine 3) negligible 4) high 5) small Ans: (1)
Directions (Q.16 - 17): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage. 16. Resumed 1) dissolved 2) disorganised 3) discontinued 4) depleted
5) denounced Ans: (3) 17. Sacrifice 1) assimilate 2) abandon 3) associate 4) absorb 5) acquire Ans: (5)
Directions-(Q.18 - 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
18. After a great deal of effort she finally managed to success in her venture.
(A) managing to succeed
(B) managed to succeed
(C) managing success
(D) manage to success
(E) No correction required
Ans: (B)
19. He is a very lazy person and hate doing any kind of work.
(A) hated doing
(B) hate does
(C) hates do
(D) hates doing
(E) No correction required
Ans: (D)
(A) could not think
(B) cannot thinking
(C) cannot think
(D) could not thinks
(E) No correction required
Ans: (A)
Numerical Ability
Directions-(Q.21 - 25) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
21. 256.33 - 14.32 = ? - 55.44
(A) 189.57
(B) 168.57
(C) 176.57
(D) 182.57
(E) None of these
Ans: (E) 22. 8544 - 5757 + 1111 = 1255 + ? (A) 2463 (B) 2643 (C) 2453 (D) 2653
(E) None of these
Ans: (B) 23. 35.62 -12.67 + 15.96 = ? - 43.22 (A) 85.13 (B) 82.13 (C) 87.13
(D) 83.13
(E) None of these
Ans: (B) 24. 55 x (25)3 625 = (5) ? (A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 8 (D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans: (E) 25. ? % of 400 - (7)2 = 159 (A) 55 (B) 53 (C) 51 (D) 52
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)
26. Sumit purchased an item for Rs. 4,000 and sold it at the gain of 35%. From that amount he purchased another item and sold it at the loss of 20%. What is his overall gain/loss ?
(A) Loss of Rs. 340
(B) Gain of Rs. 350
(C) Loss of Rs. 360
(D) Neither gain nor loss
(E) None of these
Ans: (E)
27. Sahil got 45 marks in Hindi, 47 marks in Science, 49 marks in Maths, 45 marks in Social Science and 32 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 50. How much overall percentage of marks did he get ?
(A) 89.5
(B) 83.2
(C) 88.3
(D) 87.2
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)
28. The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is equal to 175. What is the sum of the second largest number amongst them and the square of the smallest number amongst them together ?
(A) 989
(B) 997
(C) 979
(D) 995
(E) None of these
Ans: (E)
29. Shweta can complete a piece of work in 8 hours and Priyanka can complete the same piece of work in 4 hours. How much time will both of them take together (approximately) to complete the same piece of work ?
(A) 2 hours (B) 3 hours (C) 5 hours (D) 8 hours (E) 4 hours Ans: (B)
30. What is thirty two per cent of three-eighth of 5000 ?
(A) 606
(B) 610
(C) 580
(E) None of these
Ans: (D)
General Awareness (with special reference to banking industry)
31. Which country won its first Fed Cup title in 23 years on 6 November 2011 after securing a 3-2 win over Russia in the final ? (A) Iran (B) South Korea (C) Greece (D) Czech Republic Ans: (D)
32. Which Indian city is to host the World Economic Forum's (WEF's) India Economic Summit for the first time in 26 years of the summit's history from 12-14 November 2011 ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Kolkata
Ans: (B)
33. Which of the following companies entered into a partnership with the department of information technology to provide rural population socially oriented investment options ?
(A) UTI Infrastructure Technology
(B) L&T Infrastructure
(C) ICICI Mutual Fund
(D) RIL
Ans: (A)
34. Palestine won the membership of UNESCO( United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation). UNESCO is the ___ UN agency Palestine has joined as a full member.
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans: (A)
35. According to a UN study what is India’s rank among a total of 187 countries in terms of Human Development Index ? (A) 95 (B) 134 (C) 119 (D) 73 Ans: (B)
36. India scientists succeeded in decoding the genome of the arhar dal, which is also known as _____.
(A) Pigeon Pea
(B) Black-eyed Pea
(C) Sweet Pea
(D) Split Pea
Ans: (A)
37. Name the Indian golfer who became the first Indian golfer to shoot a spectacular round of 12-under 60 on home soil when he took a three-stroke lead on the second day of the Rs. one-crore BILT Open golf championship at the Jaypee Greens golf course on 3 November 2011.
(A) Jyoti Randhawa
(B) Amandeep Johl
(C) Anirban Lahiri
(D) Rahil Gangjee
Ans: (C)
38. According to the data released by the commerce and industry ministry on 31 October 2011, the eight core infrastructure industries growth slowed down to what percentage for September 2011 as against 3.3 per cent in September 2010 ?
(A) 3.1%
(B) 2.3%
(C) 2%
(D) 1.8%
Ans: (B)
39. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 16 October 2011 voiced the Finance Ministry’s decision to to recapitalise which of the following PSU lenders to help it achieve compliance with capital adequacy ratio (CAR) norms ?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) United Bank of India
(C) Punjab National Bank
(D) Bank of Baroda
Ans: (A)
40. Which one of the following launched social security scheme for Gramin Dak Sevaks?
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(B) Ministry of Communications and IT
(C) Ministry of Personnel and Grievance
(D) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans: (B)
Computer Knowledge
41. Which of the following commands is given to reboot the computer ?
1) Ctrl + Alt + Del
2) Ctrl + Shift + ?
3) Ctrl + Shift + Del
4) Ctrl +Alt + shift
Ans: (1)
42. By default, your documents print in _ mode.
1) Landscape 2) Portrait 3) Page Setup 4) Print View 5) None of these Ans: (2)
43. To find and load a file that has been saved _.
1) select the Close command
2) select the New command
3) select the Save command
4) select the Open command
5) None of these
Ans: (4)
44. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers ?
1) Average 2) Count 3) Minimum 4) Maximum 5) None of these Ans: (4)
45. Which of the following statements is true ?
1) Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer
2) Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer
4) The speeds of both these computers. cannot be compared with the speed of advanced computer
5) None of these
Ans: (1)
46. In page preview mode-
(A) You can see all pages of your document
(B) You can only see the page you are currently working
(C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics
(D) You can only see the title page of your document
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)
47. If the file saved earlier is edited, then-
(A) It is essential to save the file again to store the change
(B) The change will automatically be saved in the file
(C) If the length is more than a page, the file will be needed to be saved
(D) The name will be needed to be changed
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)
48. When creating a word-processed document, this step involves the user changing how words on the page appear, both on the screen and in printed form-
(A) Editing text
(B) Inserting tables and indexes
(C) Formatting text
(D) Proofing documents
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)
49. A CPU contains-
(B) an analytical engine and a control unit
(C) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit
(D) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader
(E) None of these
Ans: (C)
50. Aligning of text in column is-
(A) Justified
(B) Right
(C) Centre
(D) Left
(E) None of these
Ans: (A)
Reasoning
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Ans: (3)
2. '12' is related t6 '36' in the same way as' 17' is related to _.
(1) 51
(2) 34
(3) 68
(5) 71
Ans: (1)
Directions (Q. 3-4): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, Y and Ware sitting around a circle facingat the centre. R is second to the right of P who is to the immediate right of Y. S is second to the left of V. Q is second to the right of W who is not an immediate neighbour of Y or S.
3. Who is second to the right to T ?
(1) V (2) P (3) W (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Ans: (2)
4. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person ?
(1) RQ (2) QS (3) ST (4) VP (5) None of these Ans: (5)
Directions (Q. 5-7): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order.
(1) Q sits third to the right of T.
(2) T sits second to the right of P.
(3) V is not an immediate neibhour of T.
(4) R sits second to the left of S.
5. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four Ans: (3)
6. How many persons sit between R and V?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four Ans: (3)
7. Which of the following pairs sit at the extreme comers of the line?
(1) TS (2) VS (3) RT (4) PQ (5) None of these Ans: (4)
8. A building of fifteen floors has been recently constructed in which A, B, C, and 0 are staying as tenants. 8 lives on the tenth floor. D lives immediately above B but two floors below C. A lives above B but below C. On which of the following floors does A live on?
(1) 11th
(2) 12th
(3) 14th
(4) Either 12th or 13th
Ans: (2)
Directions-(Q. 9-10) In each question below is given a number/ symbol followed by five combinations of letter codes numbred (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the number/symbol based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer.
Number/Symbol : 5Q2~6 9 8 1 @ 7 $ 4 3 0 n
Letter Code : J K P A O C B R S L V F T M E
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the fifth elements are even numbers, the codes for both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the group of numbers contains only one symbol, that symbol is to be coded as the code for the element following it.
(iii) If the third element is an even number and the fourth an odd number, the fourth element is to be coded as the code for the second element. 9. 2~785$ (1) PBALJV (2) PLBAJV (3) PALBJV (4) PJLBAV (5) PLABJV Ans: (3) 10. Q1690$ (1) KROMRV (2) KORRMV (3) KORMRV (4) KOMRRV (5) KRORMV Ans: (5) English Language
Directions-(Q. 11 to 12) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of
the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5), i.e., 'All Correct' as your answer.
11. My friends thesis was acclaimed (1) (2) as a pioneering peice of research (3) (4)
All Correct (5)
Ans: (4)
12. Air travel expanded enourmously (1) (2)
in the Second half of the twentieth century. (3) (4) All correct
(5)
Ans: (2)
Directions-(Q. 13 to 16) Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it -
Every afternoon, on their way back from school, the children used to go and play in the Giant's garden. It was a large lovely garden, with soft green grass. Over the grass stood beautiful flowers like stars, and there were twelve peach-trees that bore rich fruit. The birds would sit on the trees and sing sweetly to the children playing below. One day the Giant came back. He had been on a long tour and was now determined to return to his own castle. When he arrived he saw the children playing in the garden and was outrageous. "What are you doing here ?" He shouted in a very gruff voice, and the children ran away. "I will not allow anybody to play in my garden but myself" said the Giant. And so, he built a high wall around it, and put up a notice-board that read TRESPASSERS WILL BE PROSE-CUTED. He was a very selfish Giant. The poor children h&d now, nowhere to play. They tried to play on the road, but the road was very dusty and full of stones, and they did not like it. On their way back from school, they used to wander around the high wall and remember the good times.
Then came spring, and all over the country there were little blossoms and little birds. Only in the garden of the Selfish Giant it was still winter. The birds did not care to sing in it as there were no children and the trees forgot to blossom. The only people who were pleased were the snow and the frost. "Spring has forgotten this garden," they cried, "so we will live here all the year round." I cannot understand why the spring is so late in coming," said the selfish Giant, as he sat at the window and looked out at his cold white garden, "I hope there will be a change in the weather." But the spring never came, nor did the summer. The autumn gave golden fruit to every garden, but to the Giant's garden she gave none. "He was too selfish," she said. So it was always winter there.
One morning the Giant was lying awake in bed when he heard the birds singing. "I believe the spring has come at last," said the Giant, and he jumped out of bed and looked out. He saw the most wonderful sight. Through the little hole in the wall the children had crept in, and they were sitting on the branches of the trees. On every tree there was a child. The birds were flying about and twittering with delight, and the flowers were looking up through the green grass and laughing. It was a lovelyscene however, in one corner it was still winter. It was the farthest corner of the garden, and in it was standing a little boy. He was so small that he could not reach the ranches of the tree, and he was wandering all around it crying bitterly. The Giant's heart melted as he looked out. "How selfish I have been '" he said, "now I know why spring would not come here. I will put that poor little boy on the top of the tree, and then I will knock down the wall, and my garden shall be the children's play-ground for ever and ever." He was really sorry for what he had done.
13. "Spring has forgotten this garden." They cried. Who is the author referring to ?
(1) The children
(2) The snow and the frost
(3) The autumn trees
(4) The spring
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
14. What does the author compare the flowers in the garden to ?
(1) Stars (2) Pearls (3) Soft grass (4) Frost (5) None of these Ans: (1)
15. What made the Giant believe spring had finally arrived?
(1) He heard the sounds of the children playing
(2) He smelt the flowers blooming in the garden
(3) He heard the singing by the birds
(4) He saw a hole in the compound wall
(5) He saw the trees bearing fruits
Ans: (3)
16. Why did the Giant put up the sign 'Trespassers will be prosecuted' in front of his garden?
(1) He did not want visitors
(2) It was a strategy to keep the children away
(3) Trespassers had ruined his garden in the past
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
Directions-(Q. 17 to 18) Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/ phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.
17. Knock down (1) Demolish (2) Build (3) Elevate (4) Raise (5) Step up Ans: (1) 18. Scene (1) Wish (2) Drawing (3) Fantasy (4) Picture (5) Dream Ans: (4)
Directions-(Q. 19 to 20) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 19. Pleased (1) Upset (2) Satisfied (3) Happy (4) Tortured (5) Critical Ans: (1)
20. Farthest (1) Extreme (2) Nearest (3) Distant (4) Shortest (5) Endless Ans: (2) Numerical Ability
Directions-(Q. 21 to 24) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
21. 5544 - 6633 + 7744 = ? + 1111 (1) 5455 (2) 5454 (3) 5545 (4) 5445 (5) None of these Ans: (5) 22. (5)3 ÷ (25)2 x 125 = (5)? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5 (5) None of these Ans: (1) 23. 63 65. 75 _?/ 13 x 21 7 9 - . (1) 21/5 (2) 11/5 (3) 5/9
(4) Z/9 (5) None of these Ans: (2) 24. 7/12-3/4+2/3=? (1) 5/6 (2) 5/12 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/6 (5) None of these Ans: (1)
25. The sum of five consecutive numbers is equal to 170. What is the product of the largest and the smallest numbers?
(1) 1512 (2) 1102 (3) 1152 (4) 1210 (5) None of these Ans: (3)
Directions-(Q. 26 to 27) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
26. 11, 19, 31, 47, 67, ? (1) 80 (2) 81 (3) 86 (4) 96 (5) None of these Ans: (5)
maximum marks of each subject are 100. How much overall percentage of marks did she get? (1) 63.8 (2) 62.6 (3) 63.6 (4) 64.8 (5) None of these Ans: (3)
28. Six boys can complete a piece of work in 16 hours. In how many hours will 8 boys complete the same piece of work?
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 14 (5) None of these Ans: (3)
Directions-(Q. 29 to 30) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
29. 5/18 of 6/25 of 675 = ? (1) 40 (2) 55 (3) 35 (4) 75 (5) None of these Ans: (5) 30. 521.42 - 86.74 = ? + 112.89 (1) 321.69 (2) 312.79 (3) 322.79
(4) 312.69
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
Computer Knowledge 31. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers ?
(1) Average (2) Count (3) Minimum (4) Maximum (5) None of these Ans: (4)
32. What do you use to create a chart ?
(1) Pie Wizard (2) Excel Wizard (3) Data Wizard (4) Chart Wizard (5) None of these Ans: (4)
33. What displays the content of the active cell ?
(1) Name box (2) Row Headings (3) Formulabar (4) Taskpane (5) None of these Ans: (3)
34. By default, your documents print in _ mode.
