Pathology Prc Finaledit

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PATHOLOGY Instructions: Choose the BEST answer

1. Acute myelogenous leukemia is: a. most common in females

b. most common in adults over 60 years old c. occasionally aleukemic

d. associated with massive splenomegaly

1. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 677} _{MPL 0.25}

2. Hodgkin’s lymphoma with the worst prognosis: a. lymphocyte predominance

b. nodular sclerosis c. mixed cellularity

d. lymphocyte depletion

2. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 672} _{MPL 0.25}

3. The most important difference between a benign reactive lymph node and lymphoma : a. interstitial fibrosis

b. follicular hyperplasia

c. effacement of normal architecture d. presence of plasma cells

4. Plasma cells are characterized by a. abundant surface immunoglobulins b. Fc surface receptors

c. Abundant cytoplasm immunoglobulins d. Complement surface receptors

4. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 82} _{MPL 1}

5. Paroxysmal hypertension is most typically associated with which of the following? a. adrenal adenoma

b. thyroid adenoma c. parathyroid adenoma d. pheochromocytoma

5. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 1166} _{MPL 1}

6. The association of medullary carcinoma of the thyroid with pheochromocytoma with or without parathyroid hyperplasia or adenoma is called:

a. Conn’s syndrome b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Sipple’s syndrome

d. Waterhouse-Friedricksen’s syndrome

7. Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome a. exogenous corticosteroids

b. adrenal cortical carcinoma c. oat cell carcinoma of the lungs d. basophilic adenoma of the pituitary

7. Answer: A Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 1153} _{MPL 0.33}

8. A destructive lesion in this area will result in diabetes insipidus: a. mamillothalamic tract

b. adenohypophysis c. subthalamic fasciculus

d. supraoptic and paraventricular hypothalamic nuclei 8. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 1129} _{MPL 0.25}

9. Conn’s syndrome is primarily associated with an excess of : a. glucocorticoids

b. mineralocorticoids c. thyroid hormone d. ADH

9. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 1155} _{MPL 0.25}

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a. hyponatremia b. hypotension

c. elevation of plasma renin levels d. hypokalemia

11. The single most frequent adrenal lesion producing primary hyperaldosteronism: a. single unilateral adenoma

b. multiple unilateral adenomas c. bilateral adenomas

d. carcinoma

12. Truncal obesity, easy bruising and osteoporosis is associated with: a. craniopharyngioma

b. adrenal adenoma c. thyroid adenoma d. parathyroid adenoma

12. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 1154-1155} _{MPL 1}

13 Urinalysis results show proteinuria, red blood cells and casts, and 1-2 pus cells per HPO. These findings are consistent with:

a. acute cystitis

b. acute pyelonephritis c. chronic pyelonephritis

d. acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

14. Membranous glomerulopathy and poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis are similar in that they both:

a. are self-limiting and transient renal diseases

b. are commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome c. are most commonly seen in children

d. have glomerular immune complex deposits

15. A patient with hemoptysis and renal failure has a renal biopsy which reveals crescentic glomerulonephritis, with linear deposits of IgG and C3 on immunofluorescence. Diagnosis?

a. acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis b. membranous nephropathy

c. Goodpasture’s syndrome d. Minimal change disease

16. The most characteristic feature of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis: a. crescent formation

b. hyaline nodules

c. subepithelial dense deposits d. thickened capillary loops

16. Answer: A Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 951} _{MPL 1}

17. Benign nephrosclerosis is best defined as:

a. fibrinoid necrosis of afferent arterioles with ischemic atrophy of nephrons b. hyalinization of afferent arterioles with ischemic atrophy of nephrons

c. diffuse thickening of glomerular capillary basement membrane leading to glomerulosclerosis d. deposition of basement-like material within the glomerular mesangium leading to

glomerulosclerosis

17. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 981-982} _{MPL 0.25}

18. Ischemic acute tubular necrosis occurs most commonly in association with: a. septic shock

b. ruptured aneurysm c. carcinoma of the prostate d. malignant hypertension

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a. proliferative glomerulonephritis b. membranous glomerulonephritis c. rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis d. wire-loops

20. “Nutmeg liver” is a gross finding seen in: a. petechial hemorrhages

b. viral hepatitis c. alcoholism

d. chronic passive congestion

20. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 116-117} _{MPL 1}

21. Which of the following is associated with high levels of serum alkaline phosphatase? a. hemolytic anemia

b. metastatic carcinoma to the liver c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome

d. Gilbert’s syndrome

21. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 891} _{MPL 1}

22. The most common outcome in-patients with acute Hepatitis B is: a. complete recovery without residual dysfunction

b. chronic persistent hepatitis c. chronic active hepatitis d. postnecrotic cirrhosis

23. In a patient suspected of having viral hepatitis, which laboratory finding would indicate the most severe and life threatening amount of liver damage?

a. prolonged prothrombin time b. high serum bilirubin

c. high serum aspartate transaminases d. high serum alkaline phosphatase

24. The most important substance in the formation of gallstones is:

a. calcium c. bile salts

b. bilirubin d. lecithin

25. Cirrhosis produces most of its clinical manifestations by means of:

a. hepatic necrosis leading to insufficient number of liver cells to sustain life b. cancerous change in regenerating nodules

c. obstruction of large biliary passages d. vascular derangements in the liver

26. The major cause of portal hypertension is:

a. Intrahepatic c. prehepatic

b. Posthepatic d. cardiac

27. The most common factor in the formation of esophageal varices is obstruction at the level of: a. esophageal vein

b. hepatic vein

c. intrahepatic vessels d. portal vein

28. When a person dies suddenly from a “heart attack” the most likely event causing it will be: a. aortic aneurysm

b. coronary artery embolism c. congestive heart failure d. arrhythmia

29. Acute rheumatic heart disease is associated with: a. arthritis

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c. cardiac tamponade d. right to left shunt

30. The most frequent and clinically significant residual lesion of acute rheumatic fever is: a. myocardial fibrosis

b. aortic stenosis c. mitral stenosis

d. pericardial adhesion

30. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 570-571} _{MPL 0.25}

31. The absolute criterion of cardiomegaly: a. increase in size

b. increase wall thickness c. increase in weight d. change in shape

32. Myocardial disease gradually producing 4-chamber dilatation: a. viral myocarditis

b. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy c. congestive cardiomyopathy d. restrictive cardiomyopathy

32. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 579-581} _{MPL 1}

33. Necrotizing infection caused by highly virulent organisms seeding a normal valve: a. rheumatic heart disease

b. SLE endocarditis

c. acute infective endocarditis d. marantic Endocarditis

34. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction is: a. adhesions

b. volvulus c. neoplasm d. hernia

34. Answer: A Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 825 (table)} _{MPL 1}

35. A two-week old boy has projectile vomiting. The most likely diagnosis is : a. pyloric stenosis

b. esophageal atresia c. annular pancreas

d. incomplete rotation of the gut

36. An endoscopic gastric biopsy finding of intestinal type epithelia is most likely due to: a. chronic gastritis

b. congenital heterotopia c. precancerous dysplasia d. metastatic carcinoma

37. Most characteristic of right sided colon cancer compared to left-sided cancer: a. anemia

b. associated with polyposis c. bowel obstruction

d. diarrhea

38. Acute erosive gastritis is characterized by:

a. superficial and multiple gastric mucosal ulceration b. pus in the gastric mucosa

c. deep ulcer with scarred base

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38. Answer: A Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 789-790} _{MPL 0.25}

39. The most common site of chronic gastric peptic ulcer: a. lesser curvature at the antral-body junction b. anterior wall of the duodenal verge

c. greater curvature at the mid-antrum d. esophago-gastric junction

40. The definitive finding in acute appendicitis: a. obstruction of the lumen by a fecalith b. mucus inspissation in the lumen c. neutrophils in the muscularis

d. serosal congestion and margination of polys

41. Morphologic appearance favoring benign rather than malignant gastric ulcer: a. large ulcer

b. heaped up margin c. antral location

d. folds radiating from the ulcer

42. Most frequently found neoplasm in the appendix: a. adenoma

b. polyp c. carcinoid d. adenocarcinoma

43. The most common malignant soft tissue tumor: a. rhabdomyosarcoma

b. malignant fibrous histiocytoma c. leiomyosarcoma

d. liposarcoma

44. Brown tumors of bone is associated with: a. hyperparathyroidism

b. trauma

c. metastatic carcinoma d. vitamin deficiency

45. The most frequent site of compression fracture is: a. femur

b. radio-ulnar area c. clavicle

d. vertebrae

45. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 1229-1231} _{MPL 1}

46. Rheumatoid arthritis usually has its origin in: a. ball and socket joints

b. lumbo-sacral joints c. small peripheral joints d. major weight-bearing joints

47. Most common primary malignant bone tumor in 15-25 years of age: a. chondrosarcoma

b. osteosarcoma c. Ewing’s sarcoma d. Chondroblastoma

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48. The most likely malignant bone tumor in a 65 yo man is: a. Giant cell tumor

b. Osteosarcoma

c. Metastatic prostatic cancer d. Multiple myeloma

49. The most common primary type of bronchogenic carcinoma is: a. metastatic carcinoma

b. adenocarcinoma

c. squamous cell carcinoma d. small cell carcinoma

50. The source of surfactant is believed to be: a. Type I pneumocyte

b. Type II pneumocyte c. Mast cell

d. Alveolar mcrophage

51. The single most characteristic feature of bronchiectasis is: a. excessive mucus secretion

b. immotile cilia

c. dilatation of bronchi d. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

52. Non-communicating hydrocephalus means obstruction: a. between ventricles and subarachnoid space

b. at the cisterna ambiens c. at the arachnoid granulations d. at the vein of Galen

52. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 1298-1299} _{MPL 0.33}

53. The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in a patient <2 months old is: a. Escherichia coli

b. Hemophilus influenza c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Neisseria meningitides

54. The most important and consistent site for histologic lesion in parkinsonism is: a. caudate nucleus

b. substantia nigra c. red nucleus

d. putamen

55. Increased hormonal stimulation may cause cells to undergo:

a. atrophy c. hyperplasia

b. metaplasia d. dysplasia

56. A reversible change or alteration in adult cells characterized by variation in size, shape and organization:

a. metaplasia c. dysplasia

b. hyperplasia d. atrophy

57. Type of cellular adaptation where there is marked increase in the number of autophagosomes accompanied by decrease in the number of mitochondria, myofilaments, ad endoplasmic reticulum:

a. hypertrophy c. hyperplasia

b. atrophy d. metaplasia

58. The most common cause of hypoxic injury is; a. ischemia

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b. depletion of oxygen-carrying capacity of blood c. poisoning of the oxidative enzymes within the cells d. thrombosis

59. The sum of all morphologic changes following cell death:

a. necrosis c. autolysis

b. heterolysis d. autophagy

60. The characteristic cellular infiltrate in the early phase of acute inflammation:

a. lymphocyte c. plasma cells

b. neutrophils d. eosinophil

61. The immediate transient phase of vascular permeability in most types of tissue injury is mediated by:

a. histamine c. complement

b. prostaglandins d. bradykinin

62. The characteristic cell of a granuloma:

a. Langhan’s type giant cell c. lymphocyte

b. epithelioid cell d. plasma cell

62. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 83-84} _{Answer: MPL 1}

63. The essential features of a granulation tissue:

a. fibroblasts and inflammatory cells c. edema & inflammatory cell

b. small blood vessels and fibroblasts d. inflammatory cells & vessels 63. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 102-103} _{MPL 0.5}

64. Acute pancreatitis:

a. coagulation necrosis c. liquefaction necrosis b. caseation necrosis d. enzymatic fat necrosis 64. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 17-18} _{MPL 1}

65. Acute inflammation is characterized by the following:

A. relatively long duration C. emigration of macrophages B. proliferation blood vessels and connective tissue D. exudation

66. The most common mechanism of vascular leakage elicited by free oxygen radicals: A. endothelial contraction C. leukocyte-dependent leakage B. direct endothelial cell injury D. regeneration of endothelial cell 66. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 55 / 76} _{MPL 0.25}

67. Leukocyte adhesion, chemotaxis and activation are important inflammatory mediator processes performed by complement factor:

A. C7a C. C5a

B. C6a D. C1a

68. Oxygen-derived free radicals are implicated in:

A. endothelial cell damage C. tissue regeneration B. release of histamine D. prostaglandin release 68. Answer: A Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 76} _{MPL 0.5}

69. This inflammatory infiltrate is the prima donna of chronic inflammation because of the great number of biologically active substances it releases:

A. lymphocytes C. neutrophils

B. macrophage D. plasma cells

70. Adaptation has happen:

a. if the cell undergoes necrosis c. ..is replaced by another cell type b. loses its genetic apparatus d. undergoes dystrophic calcification 70. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 36-37} _{MPL 1}

71. Characteristics of benign tumors:

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b. cohesive d. escape from regulatory control 71. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 270} _{MPL 0.33}

72. The most reliable feature of malignancy:

a. metastasis c. rate of growth

b. differentiation d. invasion

73. The most common route of metastasis of a carcinoma:

a. contiguity c. hematogenous

b. lymphatic d. iatrogenic

74. The most important prognostic factor for malignancy:

a. stage c. invasion

b. grade d. localization

74. Answer: A Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 321-322} _{MPL 1}

75. A 25-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use has had one bout of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia which was successfully treated a year ago. He now has a WBC count of 3600/microliter with differential count of 78 segs, 3 bands, 5 lymphs, and 14 monos. He has recently developed painful, progressive visual loss involving both eyes. Which of the following infections is he most likely to have:

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Staphylococcus aures D. Cytomegalovirus

76. A 65-year-old previously healthy woman has had a non-productive cough increasing in severity over the last 10 days. She has a temperature of 38.0 C. A chest radiograph shows faint interstitial infiltrates but no areas of consolidation. A CBC reveals a WBC count of 8900/microliter with differential count of 60 segs, 3 bands, 25 lymphs, and 12 monos. A sputum gram stain reveals a few gram

positive cocci, gram negative cocci, and Candida with few neutrophils. Her condition gradually

improves over the next week. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely responsible for her illness:

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Staphylococcus aures D. Influenza A virus

76. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp.348} _{MPL 0.25}

77. A 39-year-old man had an acute febrile illness with fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and malaise following a trip to a city known for its commercial sex workers. In how many years would you predict that his peripheral blood CD4 lymphocyte count will drop below 200/microliter:

A. one C. ten

B. five D. fifteen

77. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp.246-248} _{MPL 0.25}

78. A 20-year-old commercial sex worker has lower abdominal pain of 24 hours duration. There is no previous history of pain. She is febrile, her total WBC is 29,000/mm3 with 85% neutrophils. She has a markedly tender lower abdomen on palpation. Laparotomy reveals a distended, fluid-filled reddened left fallopian tube that is about to rupture. The tube is removed. A culture of the fluid from the tube is most likely to grow:

A. TB bacilli C. AIDS virus

B. Neisseria gonorrhea D. Human Papilloma virus

78. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp.362} _{MPL 0.25}

79. A 10-year-old child has a severe watery diarrhea that causes her to become severely dehydrated over the past two days. The persistent activation of adenylate cyclase by GTP leads to excessive intestinal fluid loss. Which of the following organisms is most likely to produce a toxin that has this effect:

A. Eschericia coli C. Vibrio cholera

B. Entamoeba histolytica D. Salmonella enteritidis 79. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp.808} _{MPL 0.5}

80. An 18-year-old man is plowing a field on a hillside. He discovers a deep, penetrating puncture wound to his foot. He walks home and washes the soil off the wound site and puts a bandage over it. A week later the wound is healing, and the leg is not swollen, but he begins to experience generalized muscle spasms, with stiffness and pain in his shoulders and back. He has difficulty with eating and

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swallowing, with painful stiff jaw and facial muscles. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for these findings :

A. Clostridium tetani C. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Clostridium perfringens D. Streptococcus pneumoniae 80. Answer: A Robbins 6th_{ed pp.368-369} _{MPL 1}

81. A 41-year-old man has a chronic cough and recently experienced an episode of hemoptysis. A chest radiograph shows a cavitary 4 cm nodule in the right upper lung. There are a few adjacent smaller nodules with calcifications. The best diagnosis is:

A. AIDS with cytomegalovirus C. Bronchopneumonia with pseudomonas

B. Secondary tuberculosis D. peripheral organizing pulmonary thromboembolus 81. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp.376-377} _{MPL 0.25}

82. A 40-year-old man has had a productive cough with yellowish sputum for several days. A complete blood count shows that he has a total WBC count of 15,700/microliter with differential count of 73 segs, 10 bands, 12 lymphs, and 5 monos. He has a fever of 38.9 C. A chest radiograph reveals a nodule in the left upper lobe that has a central cavity with an air-fluid level. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present in his sputum|:

A. +2 acid fast bacilli C. 4+ gram positive cocci

B. atypical squamous cells D. hemosiderin-laden macrophages 82. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp.367 / 722} _{MPL 0.33}

83. A 78-year-old woman has a history of Alzheimer's disease. She dies after an illness lasting only a two-day history of fever and cough productive of copious amounts of yellowish sputum. Her vital signs on admission included blood pressure 110/75 mm Hg, pulse 105, respirations 26, and temperature 38.1 C. She had dullness to percussion at the right lung base. The microscopic findings from the right lower lobe at autopsy include numerous neutrophils within the alveolar spaces, with minimal

destruction of alveolar walls. What was the most likely infectious cause for her pulmonary disease: A. Influenza A virus C. streptococcus pneumoniae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Cytomegalovirus

83. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp.719} _{MPL 0.33}

84. A 22-year-old woman has experienced episodes of myalgias, pleural effusions, pericarditis, and arthralgias without joint deformity over the course of several years. She has continued working at her job. A CBC reveals a mild normocytic anemia. The best laboratory screening test to begin the workup for her condition would be a(an):

A. CD4 lymphocyte count C. antinuclear antibody test

B. Blood culture D. creatine phosphokinase

85. A male infant was born at term. No congenital anomalies were noted at birth. A year later he now has failure to thrive and has been getting one bacterial pneumonia after another with both Hemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae cultured from his sputum. You should most strongly suspect that he has which of the following diseases

A. Di George Syndrome C. EBV infection

B. Selective IgA deficiency D. X-inked agammaglobulinemia 85. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp.232-233} _{MPL 0.25}

86. An appropriate, useful type I hypersensitivity response of the immune system, accompanied by eosinophilia, would be directed against:

A. amyloid protein C. neoplasms

B. pinworm infection D. inhaled dusts

86. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp.82} _{MPL 1}

87. A 54-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/110 mm Hg. Her fingers become cold and painful upon exposure to cold. She has mild dyspnea, but no wheezing. The antinuclear antibody test is positive with a titer of 1:256 and a nucleolar pattern. Her serum urea nitrogen is 15 mg/dL with creatinine of 1.1 mg/dL. These findings most strongly suggest that she has which of the following autoimmune diseases:

A. discoid lupus erythematosus C. polymyositis-dermatomyositis B. progressive systemic sclerosis D. rheumatoid arthritis

87. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp.226-229} _{MPL 0.25}

88. Several hours after going on a hike through dense foliage, a 40-year-old man notices a slightly raised and tender irregular reddish rash on one forearm that was not covered by clothing. This rash gradually increases in intensity for a couple of days and then fades after two weeks. The rash is most indicative of:

A. Type I C. Type III

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88. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp.204-206} _{MPL 0.25}

89. The second pregnancy of a 23-year-old woman appears uncomplicated until ultrasound

performed at 19 weeks shows hydrops fetalis. The fetal organ development is consistent for 19 weeks, and no congenital anomalies are noted. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and resulted in the birth of a normal girl at term. The current pregnancy yields a baby born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation with marked icterus. The baby is also markedly anemic, and an exchange transfusion is performed. Which of the following immunologic mechanisms best explains these findings

A. anti-receptor antibody C. immune complex formation B. complement-mediated cell destruction D. delayed type hypersentsitivity

89. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp.199-201} _{MPL 0.25}

90. A man in his mid-30's presents with malar skin rash, polyarthritis with swelling and warmth of his hands, and sensitization to cold. On physical examination he has generalized lymphadenopathy and pale conjunctivae. Laboratory findings include a hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL, total WBC count of

2100/microliter, total serum protein 8.8 g/dL, albumin 3.6 g/dL, creatinine 1.1 mg/dL, and creatine kinase of 468 U/L. His antinuclear antibody test is positive at 1:256. The best additional serologic test to help determine his underlying disease process is:

A. Anti-centromere C. Rheumatoid Factor

B. Anti-RNP D. Serum C1q complement level

90. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp.218} _{MPL 0.25}

91. Several weeks following a pharyngitis in which the throat culture grew group A hemolytic streptococcus, a child is noted to have hematuria on urinalysis. An immunofluorescence staining pattern in a renal biopsy shows granular deposition of IgG and complement around glomerular

capillary loops. Which of the following immune hypersensitivity mechanisms is most likely responsible for this pattern of findings

A. Type I C. Type III

B. Type II D. Type IV

92. A 48-year-old man has a chronic cough with fever that have persisted for several months. The chest radiograph reveals a diffuse reticulonodular pattern. Microscopically on transbronchial biopsy there are focal areas of inflammation containing epitheloid macrophages, Langhan's giant cells, and lymphocytes. These findings are most typical for which of the following immunologic responses:

A. Type I C. Type III

B. Type II D. Type IV

92. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp.204-226} _{MPL 0.25}

93. A 31-year-old woman with chest pain for the past week has a chest radiograph that shows modest bilateral pleural effusions. On chest CT scan, the pleural effusions, as well as a pericardial effusion, are observed. A thoracentesis on the left yields clear fluid with a low protein and cell count. She is found to have an anti-double stranded DNA titer of 1:512. If she is later found to have a serum urea nitrogen that is 55 mg/dL, it will probably be the result of which of the following pathologic processes

A. atherosclerosis C. amyloid deposition

B. glomerular immune deposits D. Anti-glomerular basement membrane 93. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp.216-225} _{MPL 0.25}

94. A 5 cm well-encapsulated mass was excised from the breast of a 21-year-old woman. Histologically, the mass was composed of elongated, ductlike structures surrounded by loose, fibrous connective tissue. Diagnosis

A. fibroadenoma B. intraductal papilloma C Pagets disease

D. Phyllodes tumor

94. Answer: A Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 1102-1103} _{MPL 0.25}

95. An 18-year-old medical student complains of poor concentration and easy fatigability. She had heavy menstrual bleeding but was otherwise healthy. Examination of the blood showed a microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes. Diagnosis?

A. aplastic anemia B. sickle cell anemia C. thalassemia

D. iron deficiency anemia

95. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp. 627-630} _{MPL 1}

96. A 30-year-old man known to be a heavy smoker developed gangrene of the leg, which had to be amputated. Intraluminal thrombi associated with microabscesses in the wall of medium sized arteries were found in the resected leg. Diagnosis?

A. Henoch-Sholein purpura B. Syphilis

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C. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Buerger disease

96. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp.523} _{MPL 1}

97. Ocular muscle weakness and general fatigability were found in a 38-year-old woman who also had antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Diagnosis?

A. Graves disease B. Polymyositis

C. Myasthenia gravis D. Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome

97. Answer: C Robbins 6th_{ed pp.1289} _{MPL 1}

98. Congenital aplasia of the thymus and parathyroid glands was discovered in a neonate that developed spastic contraction on the second postpartum day. Diagnosis?

A. Goodpasture syndrome B. DiGeorge syndrome C. Isolated IgA deficiency

D. Brutons agammaglobulinemia

98. Answer: B Robbins 6th_{ed pp.235} _{MPL 1}

99. Hemorrhagic cutaneous nodules in a male homosexual with AIDS. Diagnosis? A. hemangioma

B. lentigo maligna C. neurofibroma D. Kaposi sarcoma

99. Answer: D Robbins 6th_{ed pp535} _{MPL 0.33}

100. Short female with web neck and amenorrhea. Her karyotype was 45,X. Diagnosis? A. Turner syndrome

B. Klinefelter syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Fragile-X syndrome