Time : 1½ Hr. Max. Marks : 180
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. In addition to this question paper, you are given a separate answer sheet.
2. Fill up all the entries carefully in the space provided on the OMR sheet ONLY IN BLOCK CAPITALS. Incomplete/incorrect/carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
3. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
4. Paper carries 60 questions. 15 question from Mathematics (1–15), 15 question from Physics(16-30),
15 question from Chemistry (31–45) & 15 question from Biology (46–60) each of 3 (three) marks.
5. Any rough work should be done only on the blank space provided at the end of question paper.
6. For each correct answer gets 3 marks, each wrong answer gets a penalty of 1 mark.
IJSO(STAGE-I)
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3
Space for rough work
PRACTICE TEST PAPER -3 (IJSO)
1. Three circles each of radius r units are drawn inside an equilateral triangle of side a units, such that each circle touches the other two and two sides of the triangle as shown in the figure, (P, Q and R are the centres of the three circles). Then relation between r and a is
(A) a = 2
31
r (B) a =
31
r (C) a =
32
r (D) a = 2
32
r2. A point is taken anywhere inside an equilateral triangle. From this point perpendiculars are drawn to each side of the triangle. If 's' be the sum of these perpendiculars and 2a be the length of the side of the triangle, then
(A) s > 3a (B) s = 3a (C) s < 3a (D) s = 3 a
3. A Rhombus of side of 10 cm has two angles of 60º each. Find its area.
(A) 35 3 cm2 (B) 40 3 cm2 (C) 45 3 cm2 (D) 50 3 cm2
4. The shadow of a tower is 30 metres when the sun’s altitude is 30º. When the sun’s altitude is 60º, then
the length of shadow will be
(A) 60 m (B) 15 m (C) 10 m (D) 5m
5. A triangle with side lengths in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 is inscribed in a circle of radius 3. The area of the triangle, is equal to
(A) 8.64 (B) 12 (C) 6 (D) 10.28
6. If a sphere of radius 10 cm is melted and converted into 8 balls. Find the surface area of each ball in cm.
7. If bsin y cos a x and sin by cos ax = a2
– b2 then find the value of 2 2 2 2 b y a x . (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
8. A circle with area A1 is contained in the interior of a large circle with area A1 + A2. If the radius of the larger circle is 3 and A1, A2, A1 + A2 are in AP, then the radius of the smaller circle is :
(A) 2 3 (B) 1 (C) 3 2 (D) 3
9. Given a number of the form a + b 2 , where a, b are rational numbers with a or b 0, there exists a
number p + q 2 , with p, q rational number, such that (a + b 2 )(p + q 2 ) = 1. The value of (p2
– 2q2 ), is (A) 2 2 2 2 2 ) b 4 a ( b 2 a (B) 2 2 2 2 b 2 a b 2 a (C) 2 2 b 2 a 1 (D) 2 2 b 4 a 1
10. If the common points of the graphs of y = x2
– 6x + 2 and x + 2y = 4 are A and B find the coefficients of
the midpoint of AB (A) A = 4 11 , B = 8 5 (B) A = – 8 5 , B = – 3 1 (C) A = 4 11 , B = 8 5 (D) A = 8 5 , B = 3 1
11. If X + Y + Z = 30, (X,Y, Z > 0), then the value of (X – 2) (Y – 3) (Z – 4) will be
(A) 1000 (B) 800 (C) 500 (D) 343
12. If x + y = 5xy, y + z = 6yz, z + x = 7zx find the value of x + y + z.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of these
13. The quadratic equation a x2 + bx + c = 0 has real roots
and . If a, b, c real and of the same sign, then
(A) and are both positive
(B) and are both negative
(C) and are of opposite sign
(D) nothing can be said about the signs of and as the information is insufficient.
14. If the centroid of a triangle formed by the points (a, b), (b, c) and (c, a) is at the origin, then a3 + b3 + c3 :
Space for rough work
15. Find the sum of (2.5)2 + 52 + (7.5)2 + 102 + 12.52 + --- + (50)2 .
(A) 35175 (B) 17587 (C) 17937 (D) None of these
16. Figure shows a point object placed between two parallal mirrors its distance from M1 is 2cm and that from M2 is 8 cm. Find out the no. of images.
O
M1 M2
2 cm 8 cm
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D)
17. Find the angle of incidence of ray for which it passes through the pole, given that MI || CP.
(A) 30º (B) 60º (C) 90º (D) 45º
18. Find the position of final image after three successive reflections taking first reflection at m1
O 15cm m1 R.O.C. = 20cm m2 40 cm (A) –30 cm (B) 10 cm (C) –12.5 cm (D) 12.5 cm
19. An extended object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of cancave mirror of radius of curva-ture 20 cm at a distance of 15 cm from pole. Find the lateral maghification produced.
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) 3 (D) –3
20. A light ray is incident on a glass sphere (= 3 ) , at an angle of incidence 60º. Find the total
devia-tion after two refracdevia-tions.
(A) 30º (B) 60º (C) 90º (D) 180º
21. A stationary ball weighing 0.25 kg acquires a speed of 10 m/s when hit by a hockey stick. The impulse imparted to the ball is :
(A) 0.25 N × s (B) 2.5 N × s (C) 2 N × s (D) 0.5 N × s
22. A machine, which is 75% efficient, uses 12 J of energy in lifting up a 1 kg mass through a certain distance. The mass is then allowed to fall through that distance. The velocity at the end of its fall is (in m/ s) :
(A) 24 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 9
23. A 3 kg ball strikes a heavy rigid wall with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 60°. It gets reflected with the
same speed and angle as shown here. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.20 s, what is the average force exerted on the ball by the wall?
(A) 150 N (B) Zero (C) 150 3N (D) 300 N
24. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be :
Space for rough work
25. Four masses are located as shown in the figure. Acceleration due to gravity is same everywhere. What is the position of centre of gravity for the system ?
1m 2m 3m 4m
1kg 2kg 3kg 4kg
O
(A) 2m (B) 2.5 m (C) 3 m (D) 2.7 m
26. A spring balance is attached to 2 kg trolley and is used to pull the trolly along a flat surface as shown in the fig. The reading on the spring balance remains at 10 kg during the motion. The acceleration of the trolly is (Use g= 9.8 m–2) :
(A) 4.9 ms–2 (B) 9.8 ms–2 (C) 49 ms–2 (D) 98 ms–2
27. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled along a smooth horizontal surface. The mssses of the blocks and tension in one cord are given. The pulling force F is :
4kg 3kg 2kg 1kg 60º
F
30N
(A) 50 N (B) 100 N (C) 125 N (D) 200 N
28. In the system shown in the figure, the acceleration of the 1kg mass and the tension in the string connecting between A and B is : (A) g 4 downward, 8g 7 (B) g 4 upward, g 7 (C) g 7 downward, 6 7 g (D) g 2 upward, g
29. Two forces F1 and F2 (>F1) are applied at a free ends of uniform rod kept on a horizontal frictionless surface. find the tension in rod at a distance x from end A.
(A) T = F2–
x L F F2 1 (B) T = F2 +
x L F F2 1 (C) T = F1 +
x L F F2 1 (D) T = F1–
x L F F2 130. In the figure, the pulley P moves to the right with a constant speed u. The downward speed of A is vA and the speed of B to the right is vB.
A vA P u B vB (A) vB = vA (B) vB = u + vA (C) vB + u = vA
(D) The two blocks have accelerations of the same magnitude 31. Roasting is done in
-(A) Blast furnace (B) Reverberatory furnace
(C) Resistance furnace (D) Muffle furnace
32. Leaching method is used for concentration of
-(A) Haematite (B) Copper pyrite (C) bauxite (D) Galena
33. Which of the following metals is used in thermite process ?
(A) C (B) Zn (C) H (D)Al
34. To remove gangue, certain substance is mixed with concentrated ore which combine with the gangue to form a fusible material which is not soluble in molten metal. The substance used is called --- and the fusible material formed during reduction process is called ---.
(A) slag, flux (B) sludge , anode mud
Space for rough work
35. Cryolite is
-(A) Na3AlF6 and is used in the electrolysis of alumina for decreasing electrical conductivity. (B) Na3AlF6 and is used in the electrolysis of alumina for lowering the melting point of alumina. (C) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O and is ore of magnesium.
(D) KCl. MgCl2.6H2O and is used in the electrolysis of alumina for decreasing the melting point of alumina 36. Choose the correct statement
-(i) 52Te130, 54Xe130, 56Ba130 are isobars. (ii)6C14, 7N15, 8O18 are isotones. (iii)1H1, 1H2, 1H3 are isotopes.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) all (B) (i) and (iii) only (C) (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i) and (ii) only 37. Which of the following is correct statement about Rutherford’s atomic model ?
(A) Rutherford used a beam of beta () particles for his experiment.
(B) A circular screen coated with zinc phosphide was placed on the other side of the gold foil.
(C) A very few (about 1 in 20,000) alpha () particles were deflected backward on their path at an angle of 90º.
(D) The positively charged heavy mass which occupies only a small space as compared to the total space occupied by the atom is called nucleus.
38. Rutherford experiment which established the nuclear model of the atom used a beam of -(A) -particles which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed.
(B) -rays which impinged on a metal foil and ejected electrons.
(C) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered. (D) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered.
39. The maximum no. of electrons with clockwise spin that can be accommodated in a ‘ f ’ sub-shell
is-(A) 14 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 10
40. Which of the following statements is false about Thomson’s atomic model ?
(A) Thomson atomic model could explain the electrical neutrality of an atom.
(B) Thomson proposed that an atom consists of a sphere of negative charge in which protons are embed-ded like plums in pudding.
(C) This model could not satisfy experimental facts proposed by Rutherford and hence discarded. (D) Thomson tried to explain the the arrangement of electrons and protons within the atom. 41. Aluminium is diagonally related to
42. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p3. What is the atomic number of the element which is just below the above element in the periodic table ?
(A) 34 (B) 49 (C) 33 (D) 31
43. Which of the following represents the correct order of electron affinities ?
(A) Cl > Br > I > F (B) Cl > F < Br < I (C) F > Cl > Br > I (D) Cl > F > Br > I
44. In the Long Form of the periodic table, all the nonmetals are placed with
-(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
45. Which pair of the elements has same chemical properties ?
(A) 13, 22 (B) 3, 11 (C) 4, 24 (D) 2, 4
46. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) AIDS - DNA virus (B) Cholera - Mycobacterium
(C) Sleeping sickness - Trypanosoma (D) Food poisoning- Clostridium tetani 47. Antibodies are produced by ?
(A) RBCs (B) cell plasma (C) B - lymphocytes (D) saliva
48. Anaemia can be caused due to the lack of
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Folic Acid (C) Iron (D) All of these
49. Diseases of the heart, joints and nervous system are called
(A) Communicable diseases (B) Degenerative diseases
(C) Deficiency diseases (D) Allergies
50. Which of the following is sexually transmitted disease?
(A) Syphilis (B) Gonorrhoea (C) AIDS (D) All of these
51. Freshly released human egg has
(A) one Y chromosome (B) one X chromosome
Space for rough work
52. Plannaria cut into number of pieces will
(A) die (B) sporulate
(C) develop sex organs (D) regenerate to form new individuals 53. Proper labelling of (1), (2), (3), & (4)
-(A) gamete, fertilization, male & female (B) gametogenesis, zygote, female & male (C) gametogenesis, fertilization, female & male (D) gamete, fertilization, female & male
54. The structures meant for the nourishment of developing embryo in case of plant & animal are: (A) Pollen tube & Placenta respectively (B) Endosperm & Placenta respectively (C) Placenta & Pollen tube respectively (D) None of these
55. Syngamy refers to
(A) fusion of one of the sperms with secondary nucleus (B) fusion of one sperm with the egg
(C) fusion of one of the sperm with an egg and the other with secondary nucleus (D) fusion of one of the sperm with synergids
56. Some cellular structures are bounded by single or double membranes while some others are without menbrane. Match the organelle in List I with the nature of membranes in List II and select the correct answer
-List-I List-II
(a) Vacuole (i) Without membrane
(b) Lysosomes (ii) Single membrane
(c) Ribosomes (iii) Tonoplast
(d) Nucleus (iv) Double porous membrane
A B C D
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
57. The organelle, which acts as a factory for the synthesis of sugars in autotrophic eukaryotes, is
(A) mitochondria (B) chloroplast (C) ribosome (D) lysosome
58. Living part of a cell is called :
(A) Cell wall (B) Protoplasm (C) Hyaloplasm (D) Cell sap
59. Which cell organelle is abundantly found in white blood cells, secretory cells of liver, kidney, tadpole's tail and helps in degenerating action ?
(A) Mitochondria (B) Golgi body
(C) Lysosome (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
60. If a plant cell has its cell wall removed and is placed in a hypotonic solution what will happen to the cell ? (A) The cell wall will already be dead because plant cells cannot survive without a cell wall.
(B) The cell will expand and eventually burst.
(C) The cell will shrink because the vacuole gets smaller. (D) The nucleus will burst but the cell will stay intact.
ANSWER KEY
IJSO(STAGE-I)
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 Ans. A B D C A D A D C A,C D D B C D Que s. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 Ans. D B C B B B C C B C C D C C B Que s. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 Ans. B C D C B B D D B B C C D B B Que s. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Ans. C C D B D B D D B B C B B C B
