ATA 06
1. 500 is major zone for: (A,B1,B2) a. Power plant and nacelles.
b. Left wing. (JIC 06-20-00) c. Right wing
2. The zoning system is based on: (A,B1,B2) a. One group.
b. Two group.
c. Three group. (JIC 06-20-00)
3. How many frames are there on ATR-72? (B1) a. 48. (JIC 06-21-00)
b. 50. c. 52.
4. The cargo door is between which frames? (B1) a. 14-16. (JIC 06-21-10)
b. 12-14. c. 10-12
5. The sequence of zone numbering run: (A,B1,B2) a. After to forward.
b. From inboard to outboard in the wing. (JIC 06-20-00) c. Rear to front in the wing.
ATA 07
6. When jacking of aircraft is performed: (B1,B2) a. Fuel in both tanks must be the same. (JIC 07-11-00) b. Fuel in the left tank is more than in the right tank. c. Fuel in the right tank is more than in the left tank.
7. When jacking of aircraft is performed outside of the hangar, maximum allowwable wind speed is: (A,B1,B2)
a. 40 km/h.
b. 45 km/h. (JIC 07-11-00) c. 50 km/h.
8. Aircraft must be in the following configuration for jacking: (A,B1,B2) a. Main gear wheel brakes engaged, wheel chocks removed.
b. Main gear wheel brakes released, wheel chocks installed.
c. Main gear wheel brakes released, wheel chocks removed. (JIC 07-11-00) 9. For checking horizontal position of aircraft, the level must be located in: (B1) a. On the rail at cargo compartment door. (JIC 07-11-00)
b. On the floor at forward cargo compartment. c. On the floor at after cargo compartment.
10. For fuselage shoring we need to perform: (B1)
a. Jacking of aircraft and precise leveling. (JIC 07-20-00) b. Jacking of aircraft.
c. Precise leveling. ATA 08
11. Aircraft can be weighed: (B1) a. On jack only.
b. On wheel only.
c. On jack or on wheel. (JIC 08-12-00) 12. Before weghing: (B1)
a. Hydraulic system is topped up. (JIC 08-12-00) b. Hydraulic system is drained.
c. Hydraulic system remains as before.
13. How to adjust longitudinal levelling during quick levelling? (B1)
a. By acting on jacks located at front of fuselage. (JIC 08-12-00)
b. By acting on jacks located at left wing.
c. By acting on jacks located at right wing.
14. During quick levelling precision rule and clinometer are positioned: (A,B1,B2) a. At level of forward cargo compartment.
b. At level of cargo compartment door. (JIC 08-21-00) c. At level of after cargo compartment.
15. During precise levelling the aircraft must be parked: (B1) a. Away from wind. (JIC 08-22-00)
b. Against wind. c. Across the wind. ATA 09
16. Towing of the aircraft by nose gear can not be performed when: (A,B1,B2) a. Aircraft in hangar.
b. Aircraft in run way.
c. Aircraft in soft sand or mud. (JIC 09-11-00)
17. Towing of the aircraft by nose gear can not be performed when: (A,B1,B2) a. Nose gear has two flat tyres. (JIC 09-11-00)
b. Nose gear has one flat tyre. c. Main gear has one flat tyre.
18. Aircraft can be towed with speed: (A,B1,B2) a. Same as slow walk.
b. Less than slow walk. (JIC 09-11-00) c. Faster than slow walk.
a. OFF. (JIC 09-11-00) b. ON.
c. Neutral.
20. Towing operation must have permision from: (A,B1,B2) a. Director.
b. Maintenance manager.
c. Control tower. (JIC 09-11-00) ATA 10
21. Aircraft must be parked: (A,B1,B2) a. Head into wind. (JIC 10-10-00) b. Tail into wind.
c. Crosswind.
22. When check full travel of the rudder TLU selector swich is in which position? (B1,B2)
a. HI SPD. b. LO SPD.
c. AUTO. (JIC 10-10-00)
23. For parking for longer than one week: (B1,B2) a. Install the two air inlet covers.
b. Install the two engine nacelle covers. (JIC 10-10-00) c. Remove MLG safety pins.
24. For parking for less than one week: (B1,B2) a. Install the two air inlet covers. (JIC 10-10-00) b. Install the two engine nacelle covers.
c. Remove MLG safety pins.
25. Mooring is needed when: (A,B1,B2)
a. Aircraft on its wheels and parked outside, wind speed exceeding limit. (JIC 10-10-00)
b. Aircraft on its wheels and parked in hangar wind speed exceeding limit. c. Aircraft on its wheels and parked outside, wind speed less than the limit. ATA 11
26. For installation of decals applied across lap joints: (B1,B2)
a. Decal is wrapped smoothly and continiously around the edge of the lap joint. (JIC 11-00-00)
b. Decal is cut and wrapped around the edge. c. Decal is cut and wrapped over the edge.
27. For label on heat resistant ducting installation: (B1)
a. Primer must be left to dry for 10 minutes prior to affixing label. b. Primer must be left to dry for 20 minutes prior to affixing label.
28. For identification of metallic plates installation: (B1) a. Apply sealant and attach with adhesive tape.
b. Apply sealant and attach with blind rivets. (JIC 11-00-00) c. Apply sealant and attach with adhesive compound.
29. To mark feathering position on propeller blade and spinner we must: (B1) a. Remove the blade.
b. Remove the propeller.
c. Remove the spinner. (JIC 11-21-61)
30. If propeller is not in feather position for marking feather position on propeller blade and spinner: (B1)
a. Perform manual feathering. (JIC 11-21-61) b. Perform feathering by feathering pump.
c. Perform feathering by running up and shut down engine. ATA 12
31. On the aircraft, a black point strip shows: (A, B1, B2) a. The NO STEP areas. (D/O 12-00)
b. The NO SMOKING areas. c. The DANGEROUS areas.
32. What are the kinds of drainage points on the aircraft? (B1, B2) a. Draining points with piston valves and direct draining points.
b. Draining points with piston valves; direct draining points and draining points with pipes. (D/O 12-00)
c. Draining points with piston valves and draining points with pipes. 33. When aircraft is on ground, the pressurization system is off: (B1)
a. The piston valve of draining points is maintained open position by its spring. (D/O 12-00)
b. The piston valve of draining points is maintained close position by its spring. c. The piston valve of draining points close.
34. When aircraft is in flight: (B1)
a. All draining points with piston valves and direct draining points open. b. Draining points with piston valves open; direct draining points close.
c. Draining points with piston valves close; direct draining points open. (D/O 12-00) 35. Only use explosion proof inspection lights when: (A, B1, B2)
a. Carry out refueling or defueling.(D/O 12-00) b. Refill hydraulic fluids.
c. Refill engine oils.
36. When do you check engine oil level: (A, B1) a. 5 – 10 minutes after engine shutdown.
b. 10 – 20 minutes after engine shutdown. (EMM 72-00-00) c. 40 minutes after engine shutdown.
37. What is the purpose of the engine running for a minimum 20 seconds with the propeller in feather during engine shut-down? (B1)
a. To ensure that the maximum amount of oil from the PCU via the RGB return to the oil tank. (EMM 72-00-00)
b. To ensure that the maximum amount of oil from the HMU via the RGB return to the oil tank.
c. To ensure that the maximum amount of oil from the RGB via the PCU return to the oil tank.
38. How do you know the kind of engine oil when you do engine oil servicing? (B1) a. See EMM for approved oils. (EMM 72-00-00) (or Aircraft Flight Manual) b. See IPC for approved oils.
c. See MMEL for approved oils.
39. What is the purpose of installation of the caps or other suitable protectors when electrical connectors are disconnected? (B2)
a. To prevent entry of hydraulic fluid, moisture and foreign objects. (D/O 12-00) b. To prevent entry of foreign objects.
c. To prevent entry of hydraulic fluid, moisture.
40. During MLG wheel/Tire assy. removal and installation, what do you do to prevent inadvertent retraction of landing gear on ground? (A, B1, B2)
a. Check that the landing gear ground locking pins are in place.
b. Display a warning notice prohibiting landing gear operation on panel 404VU. c. Both (a) & (b). (JIC 12-37-32)
41. During NLG wheel/Tire assy removal and installation, the old cotter pin is: (A, B1, B2)
a. Discarded. (JIC 12-37-32) b. Re-used.
c. Inspected before re-using.
42. What material do you apply to wheel axe during wheel/tire assy. removal and installation? (A, B1)
a. Rubber compound.
b. Corrosion inhibiting compound -JC5A.
c. Grease 04-004B (MIL-G-81322). (JIC 12-37-32)
43. You can check fuel level by using manual indicators when fuel quantity of each tank is: (A, B1, B2)
a. Greater than 300 litres. b. Greater than 150 litres.
c. Greater than 200 litres. (JIC 12-11-28)
44. During check of fuel level by using manual indicators, the accuracy of the manual indicators is: (A, B1, B2)
a. + or - 200 litres. (JIC 12-11-28) b. + or - 50 litres.
45. During check of fuel level by using manual indicators, you calculate fuel quantity by using inclinometer indicating when: (A, B1, B2)
a. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 30cm; outer indicator is 0 or 30cm.
b. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 30cm; outer indicator is 0 or 20cm.(JIC 12-11-28)
c. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 20cm; outer indicator is 0 or 20cm.
46. During checking of the propeller oil level, the number #1 blade is positioned at: (B1)
a. The 12 O’clock position.(JIC 12-13-61) b. The 09 O’clock position.
c. The 06 O’clock position.
47. After performing of nitrogen charging of hydraulic system accumulators, the aircraft accumulator pressure gauge shows: (B1)
a. 1600 PSI at 20°C.
b. 1500 PSI at 20°C.(JIC 12-14-29) c. 1800 PSI at 20°C.
48. After performing of free fall assister nitrogen charging, the red marker of the pressure loss indicator on free fall assister is: (B1)
a. Not visible.(JIC 12-14-32) b. Visible.
c. Visible or not visible depend on the kind of free fall assister.
49. How do you know the water tank is full during potable water filling? (A, B1, B2) a. Observe water quantity indicator on potable water service panel.
b. Check that water flows through overflow port. (JIC 12-15-38) c. Observe water quantity indicator on service vehicle.
50. During hydraulic reservoir replenishing, you can: (A, B1)
a. Pour fluid from original container directly into the airplane system or into the system used for transferring fluid (potable test stand). (JIC 12-12-29)
b. Pour fluid original container into any other container and then pour into the airplane system.
c. Re-use the fluid drained to fill the hydraulic system. ATA 20
51. Screws are referred marked by the: (B1) a. ASN only.
b. NSA only.
c. ASN or NAS. (JIC 20-21-11)
52. How to determine that bolt damage resulting from over torquing and thread wear? (B1)
a. By means of a thread form-gage. (JIC 20-21-13) b. By visual check.
c. By feeler gage.
53. Safetying principle for using lockwire: (A,B1,B2) a. Applied tension must come with loosening.
b. Applied tension must oppose loosening. (JIC 20-21-18)
c. Applied tension can either come with loosening or oppose loosening. 54. What is P.L.I washer? (B1)
a. Preload Indicating washers. (JIC 20-21-19) b. Pressure load Indicating washers.
c. Power load Indicating washers.
55. How many types of bolts for HI LOCK fasteners? (B1) a. 2.
b. 3. (JIC 20-21-22) c. 4.
56. What is interfraying? (A,B1,B2)
a. Applying a sealant with high viscosity on the edge of a structural assembly. b. Applying a very thin layer of sealant on the edge of a structural assembly.
c. Applying a very thin layer of sealant between the surfaces of the two materials to be assembled. (JIC 20-22-12)
57. Fuel leaks are defined in categories: (A, B1,B2) a. Seapage only.
b. Running leaks only.
c. Seapage and running leak. (JIC 20-22-13) 58. What is slight seapage (oozing)? (A, B1,B2)
a. A measurement not exceeding 50 mm in any direction. (JIC 20-21-13) b. A measurement not exceeding 60 mm in any direction
c. A measurement not exceeding 70 mm in any direction 59. What is heavy seapage (dripping)? (A,B1,B2)
a. A measurement greater than 50 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction. (JIC 20-22-13)
b. A measurement greater than 60 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction. c. A measurement greater than 70 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction. 60. What is running leak? (A,B1,B2)
a. A leak less than seapage.
b. A leak greater than seapage. (JIC 20-22-13) c. A leak as same as seapage.
61. If there is a fuel leak with 0 to 10 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2) a. No action.
b. Weekly inspection for ensure that the leak is not worsening. (JIC 20-22-13) c. Repair to be carried out at next A check.
a. No action.
b. Weekly inspection for ensure that the leak is not worsening. c. Repair to be carried out at next A check. (JIC 20-22-13) 63. If there is fuel leak with 20 to 30 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2)
a. Repair to be carried out within 100 flights. Daily inspection. (JIC 20-22-13) b. Repair to be carried out at next A check.
c. Repair to be carried out at next Ccheck.
64. If there is a fuel leak over 30 drops per minute: (A,B1,B2) a. Immediate repair action before next flight. (JIC 20-22-13) b. Repair at next A check.
c. Repair at next C check.
65. How many fuel leak location can be defined on aircraft? (A,B1,B2) a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5. (JIC 20-22-13)
66. Sharp-bottom surface defects on hydraulic tubes are permitted if: (B1) a. Maximum 5% of the thickness of the tube wall. (JIC 20-23-13)
b. Maximum 6% of the thickness of the tube wall. c. Maximum 7% of the thickness of the tube wall. 67. When performing stripping of composite: (B1) a. Chemical stripping is allowed.
b. Chemical stripping is forbidden. (JIC 20-24-01) c. Chemical sanding is not allowed.
68. Before applying first coat of painting (primer) on aluminium and its alloy, it must have subjected to treatment: (B1)
a. Chrome plating.
b. Dry or wet sand blasting.
c. Chromating by Alodine 1200. (JIC 20-24-08) 69. How to examine the control cable for damage? (B1)
a. By passing a cloth along the length of the cable. (JIC 20-29-12) b. By passing a bare hand along the length of the cable.
c. By passing a towel along the length of the cable. 70. Internal cable wear normally occurs: (B1)
a. Along the working length of the cable eirther over a contact area at one side of the cable or around the cable periphery.
b. In the section of cable which pass over pulleys and quadrants. (JIC 20-29-12) c. In a section not in contact with wear producing airframe components.
ATA 21
71. In air conditioning system, the air flow and pressure are controlled by: (B1, B2) a. Two pack valves.(D/O 21-10)
b. Two ACMs (air cycle machine). c. Two turbo fan shutoff valves.
72. What’s type of heat exchanger is used in the air conditioning system? (B1) a. Fuel to air type.
b. Oil to air type.
c. Air to air type.(D/O 21-51) 73. Heat exchanger consists of: (B1)
a. The primary heat exchanger removes the heat of compression of the air cycle machine (ACM) and the secondary heat exchanger cools the engine bleed air.
b. The primary heat exchanger cools the engine bleed air and the secondary heat
exchanger removes the heat of compression of the air cycle machine (ACM). (D/O 21-51)
c. The primary heat exchanger and secondary heat exchanger cool the engine bleed air. 74. In ground cooling system, Turbo fan runs when: (B1)
a. Air conditioning system operates on ground.
b. Air conditioning system operates, IAS (indicated air speed) is greater than 130Kts. c. Air conditioning system operates on ground or in flight with Landing Gear down &
locked, IAS(indicated air speed) is smaller than 130Kts. .(D/O 21-51) 75. Turbo fan runs in flight when: (B1)
a. Pack valve push-button is ON, all landing gears down and locked, IAS < 130 Kts. (D/O 21-51)
b. There is a high demand of air conditioning system.
c. Push-button pack valve ON, all landing gears up, IAS > 130 Kts. 76. Pack valve is: (B1)
a. Butterfly type, pneumatically controlled, electrically operated, spring loaded to close. b. Butterfly type, electrically controlled, pneumatically operated, spring loaded to open. c. Butterfly type, electrically controlled, pneumatically operated, spring loaded to
close. .(D/O 21-10)
77. The function of temperature control valve is to: (B1)
a. Regulate hot air flow added to cold air to obtain the chosen temperature and prevent ice at the conditioning pack turbine inlet.
b. Regulate hot air flow added to cold air to obtain the chosen temperature and prevent ice at the conditioning pack turbine outlet. .(D/O 21-61)
c. Regulate hot air flow added to cold air to obtain the chosen temperature. 78. In air conditioning system, when pack overheat: (B1)
a. Pack valve operates at “HIGH” level. b. Pack valve operates at “NORMAL” level.
c. The Solenoid S1 is de-energized, pack valve closes. .(D/O 21-10) 79. Choose correct answer: (B1)
a. When pack valve operates in “NORMAL” level, the valve regulates at 17PSI. In “HIGH” level, the valve regulates at 30 PSI. .(D/O 21-10)
b. When pack valve operates in “NORMAL” level, the valve regulates at 17PSI. In “HIGH” level, the valve regulates at 20 PSI.
c. When pack valve operates in “NORMAL” level, the valve regulates at 30PSI. In “HIGH” level, the valve regulates at 20 PSI.
80. Pack valve operates in “HIGH” level when: (B1)
a. “HIGH” level selected, pack valve is in “ON” position and relevant air bleed valve opens, no pack overheat, no low pressure detected by the pressure switch of turbo fan. .(D/O 21-10)
b. Both bleed air valves open.
c. “HIGH” level selected, pack valve is in “ON” position and relevant air bleed valve opens, pack overheat, no low pressure detected by the pressure switch of turbo fan. 81. Air conditioning system is operating, “FAULT” light on pack valve pushbutton
switch comes on when: (B1)
a. Air temperature at down stream of ACM-Air Cycle Machine) is greater than 204 C degree.
b. Low pressure detected by the pressure switch of turbo fan. c. Both (a) & (b). .(D/O 21-10)
82. Choose wrong answer: (B1)
a. The left pack supplies the cabin only, the right pack supplies the cockpit only. .(D/O 21-51)
b. The right pack supplies the cabin only.
c. The left pack supplies the cabin (35%) and cockpit(65%). 83. Air cycle machine consists of: (A, B1)
a. Turbine wheel. b. Compressor wheel.
c. Turbine wheel and Compressor wheel mounted on common shaft which is supported by air bearings.(D/O 21-51)
84. In AUTO-mode , Temperature in Cockpit and Cabin can be adjusted: (B1) a. from 16ºC to 32 ºC in each zone.(D/O 21-61)
b. from 20ºC to 32 ºC in each zone. c. from 18ºC to 36 ºC in each zone.
85. Cockpit/cabin Temperature Controller controls: (B1)
a. Torque motor of temperature control valve and the recirculation fan speed. (D/O 21-61)
b. Torque motor of temperature control valve. c. The recirculation fan speed.
86. In AUTO-mode, Cockpit/cabin Temperature Controller receives signals from: (B1)
a. Zone temperature sensors. b. Duct temperature sensors.
87. The OVHT light comes on (on TEMP SEL pushbutton switch of Compartment temperature control panel) means: (B1)
a. Duct temperature > 88 ºC. b. Duct temperature < 92 ºC.
c. Duct temperature ≥ 92 ºC. (D/O 21-61) 88. In Manual mode: (B1)
a. Zone temperature is manually controlled by appropriate manual selector.(D/O 21-61) b. Zone temperature is automatically controlled by cockpit/cabin temperature controller. c. Zone temperature can not control and it is set at pre-selected value.
89. When foot level temperature drops below 13ºC, the recirculation fans: (B1) a. Run at low speed.
b. Run at high speed until foot level temperature reaches 18ºC. (D/O 21-22) c. Run at high speed all the time.
90. Aircraft is on ground and powered by Ground Power Unit, and if both engines are stopped: (B1)
a. OVBD valve closes.
b. OVBD valve fully opens. (D/O 21-23) c. OVDB valve opens in intermediate position.
91. Aircraft on ground, engine 1 stopped, electrical power ON, T>52ºC : (B1) a. The extract fan runs at high speed, under floor vent valve closes, overboard valve
opens. (D/O 21-23)
b. The extract fan runs at normal speed, under floor vent valve opens, overboard valve closes.
c. The extract fan stops, under floor vent valve closes, overboard valve opens in intermediate position.
92. FAULT light on EXHAUST MODE pushbutton switch comes on, means: (B1) a. Extract fan failure.
b. Extract fan Overheat occurs.
c. Extract fan failure or Extract fan Overheat occurs.(D/O 21-23) 93. A DUMP function is used: (A, B1, B2)
a. In case of emergency depressurization (full open signal).(D/O 21-35) b. In case of ditching.
c. In both cases (a) and (b).
94. A DITCH function is used: (A, B1, B2) a. In case of emergency depressurization. b. In case of ditching. (D/O 21-31) c. In both cases (a) and (b).
95. To avoid a bump at landing the automatic mode controls the cabin altitude to have a value: (A, B1, B2)
a. Equal to selected landing altitude minus 530 ft. b. Equal to selected landing altitude plus 300 ft.
c. Equal to selected landing altitude minus 300 ft. (D/O 21-31) 96. Overpressure relief allows the valve to open when: (A, B1, B2) a. ∆P reaches 6.35 PSI. (D/O 21-31)
b. ∆P reaches 6.50 PSI. c. ∆P reaches 0.50 PSI
97. Cabin pressure and rate of change are obtained through: (B1, B2) a. A manual pneumatic controller (in Manual mode) only.
b. An automatic digital controller (in Auto mode) or a manual pneumatic controller (in Manual mode). (D/O 21-31)
c. An automatic digital controller (in Auto mode) only.
98. The automatic digital pressure controller receives several parameters, such as: (B1, B2)
a. Landing elevation, take off elevation, aircraft static pressure(from ADC), TAT(Total air temperature)
b. Landing elevation, take off elevation, aircraft static pressure (from ADC), cabin pressure. (D/O 21-31)
c. Landing elevation, take off elevation, aircraft static pressure(from ADC), cabin pressure, TAT(Total air temperature)
99. During automatic digital pressure controller test, the following items are checked: (B1, B2)
a. Electropneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; digital controller electrical circuitries.
b. Pneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; landing gear and pack valves microswitches, digital controller electrical circuitries.
c. Electropneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; landing gear and pack valves microswitches, digital controller electrical circuitries. (D/O 21-31) 100. The test of automatic digital pressure controller is performed by depressing the
test pushbutton. The test is OK if: (B1, B2) a. No light comes on.
b. The digits displayed on the front face of the controller switch ON to indicate alternatively: 18800 and -8800.(D/O 21-31)
c. The digits displayed on the front face of the controller switch ON to indicate alternatively: 18000 and -8800.
ATA 22
111. The yaw actuator is located (B2) a. In the wing center box.
b. In the rear unpressuried compartment (MTM 22 P.122) c. Inside the rudder.
112. The yaw actuator controls the rudder when: (B2) a. The AP is engaged
b. YD is engaged only
113. Manual disengagement of the AP is achieved by: (B2) a. Using STBY & NORMAL PITCH TRIM (MTM 22 P5) b. Using AIL.TRIM
c. Using RUDDER TRIM.
114. Manual disengagement of the YD is achieved by: (B2) a. Using the AP quick disconnect SW.
b. Pressing the GA pushbutton on the power lever.
c. Applying a force greater than 30daN on rudder pedals. (TM 22 P11)
115. The purpose of the STBY pushbutton SW on the AFCS control panel is: (B2) a. To control the bank angle (HI or LO)
b. To engage FD mode.
c. To disengage FD mode. (MTM 22 P13)
116. The DH Audio warning is generated by the: (B2) a. MFC.
b. AFCS system.
c. GPWS system. (MTM22 P29)
117. AP is automatically disengaged in the: (B2) a. Icing condition.
b. Stall condition. (MTM 22 P27. DO 22-10-00 P7) c. Bad weather.
118. YD is automatically disengaged: (B2) a. In stall condition.
b. In icing or bad weather.
c. At touch down during landing. (DO 22-10-00 P16) 119. The AFCS computer is located in: (B2)
a. Racks 90VU
b. Racks 80VU (DO 22-10-00 P2) c. Forward electronic rack.
120. The GA pushbutton SW is located on: (B2) a. Power lever. (MTM 22 P.73)
b. Condition lever.
c. Captain instrument panel.
121. GUIDANCE light is illuminated in case of: (B2) a. Cat 2 in valid
b. EXCESS DEV warning.
c. Both of a & b are correct. (MTM22 P34)
122. In the heading select mode, if the ADU indicates "HDG SEL LO" the bank angle limit is: (B2)
a. 15o (MTM 22 P26)
b. 27o
123. GA mode can be disengaged by action on the: (B2) a. Quick release p.b.
b. TCS p.b. (MTM 22 P.73) c. GA p.b.
124. The pitch, roll & rudder actuator are: (B2) a. Interchangeable. (MTM22 P125)
b. Not identical
c. Both of a & b are correct.
125. Action on CPL p.b. on AFCS control panel, you can: (B2) a. Change the coupled side. (MTM 22 P. 19)
b. Engage the AP.
c. Both of a & b are correct
126. The AFCS computer interfaces with SGU, AHRS, ADU & ADC through: (B2) a. ARINC 429
b. ARINC 629
c. ASCB (Avionic Standard Communication Bus) (MTM22 P.2) 127. Which is the correct statement: (B2)
a. When AFCS is operating in FD mode (FD only), AFCS computer provides information through FD bars on EADI which allow an automatic guidance of the aircraft.
b. When AFCS is operating in FD mode (FD only), AFCS computer provides information through FD bars on EADI which allow a manual guidance of the aircraft. (MTM22 P.8) c. There are not information on EADI. In this mode, the AFCS computer is not powered. 128. FD mode (lateral or vertical) can be disengaged: (B2)
a. By a second action on the corresponding p.b. HDG, NAV, APP, BC – IAS – VS – ALT. b. By action on STBY p.b.
c. Both of a& b are correct. (MTM22 P.10)
129. With AP not engaged, YD automatic disengagement results in: (B2) a. "YD DISENGAGED" steady on ADU.
b. "AP/YD DISENGAGED" steady on ADU.
c. "YD DISENGAGED" flashing on ADU. (MTM22 P.12) 130. In AP mode, the TCS function declutches the: (B2) a. Roll & pitch servo actuators. (MTM22 P.15)
b. Roll, pitch & yaw servo actuators. c. Roll servo actuator only.
131. GA mode can be engaged by: (B2) a. Action on both GA p.b.
b. Action on only one GA p.b.
c. Both a &b are correct. (MTM22, P.120) 132. The Roll actuator is located in the: (B2) a. Left wing side.
b. Center part of the wing (MTM22 P.125) c. Right wing side.
133. The function of the BANK p.b. on ACP: (B2) a. to clear the upper mode if it is engaged before. b. To change bank angle limit value. (MTM22 P.26) c. To engage FD function.
134. Which bank angle limit value is automatically selected upon energization: (B2) a. Hi (MTM22 P.26)
b. Low
c. The value stored in AFCS computer memory. 135. GA mode selection disengages: (B2) a. AP (MTM22 P.72)
b. YD c. AP/YD ATA-23
136. The frequency of VHF: (B2)
a. 118.0MHz. – 136,975MHz. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page: 7.) b. 118,0 MHz – 130,975MHz.
c. 2,00 MHz – 20, 0 MHz.
137. Power Supply for VHF#1 (B2) a. DC Bus 1
b. DC Bus 2.
c. DC Emergency Bus. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 6.)
138. When TX annunciator in VHF control panel illuminates: (B2) a. Receiver is receiving.
b. VHF is transmitting. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 8.) c. VHF is remotely tuned.
139. Which statement is NOT correct: (B2)
a. Six preset frequencies can be stored in preset display window of VHF.
b. The function of SQ OFF in selector of VHF control panel is disable the receiver squelch circuit.
c. ACT button in VHF control panel is controlled for brightness. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 9)
140. When performing the test in VHF, if display in control panel showed DIAG message and code 03: (B2)
a. No fault detected.
b. Fault detected. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page: 15) c. None of above.
141. The priority for Passenger Address announcement between Cockpit and Attendant: (B2)
b. Attendant announcement is first priority. c. Both of them are the same priority.
142. To make Passenger Address announcement by Attendant: (B2)
a. Lift off the hand set in Attendant panel, press PA switch, and press PTT switch in Attendant handset. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 22)
b. Lift off the hand set in Attendant panel, press PA switch in Audio Control Panel, press PTT switch in Attendant handset.
c. Lift off the handset in Attendant panel, press INT switch, press PTT switch in Attendant handset.
143. Which statement is correct: (B2)
a. The audio level of Passenger Address is increased by 6 db as soon as an engine is running, via the contacts of the corresponding engine low oil pressure relay. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 23)
b. Cockpit announcements are given priority over cabin attendant announcements via pulse generator.
c. There are three loudspeakers are in cockpit ceiling. 144. To make a call from Cockpit to Mechanic: (B2) a. The horn is sound. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 37) b. The doorbell is sound.
c. The single chime is sound.
145. The condition to erase in information recorded in Cockpit Voice Recorder: (B2) a. In all flight phases.
b. A/C on ground, Press Erase switch.
c. A/C on ground, Parking Brake set, Press ERASE switch. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 23 page 51.)
ATA 24
146. The Main Battery is charged by (B1,B2) a. DC Bus 1
b. DC Bus 2 (MTM24 p73) c. DC Emer Bus
147. AC on ground, no engine running, no EXT. power, the DC GRND HDL Bus is supplied from (B1,B2)
a. The HOT EMER BAT Bus
b. The HOT MAIN BAT Bus (MTM24 p11) c. The DC SVCE Bus
148. The 45% NH signal (starter cut out) is sent to the GCU from the (B1,B2) a. Speed sensor incorporated in S/G (MTM24 p16)
b. BPCU c. HES
149. Rated nominal voltage of the Starter/Generator is (B1,B2) a. 28V
b. 30V (MTM24 p17) c. 24V
150. GFR (Generator Field Relay) is incorporated in (B2) a. BPCU
b. MFC
c. GCU (MTM24 p33)
151. The Generator Under speed protection is the one of the functions of (B2) a. BPCU
b. MFC
c. GCU (MTM24 p24)
152. The BTC (Bus Tie Contactor) is controlled by (B1,B2) a. BPCU (MTM24 p44)
b. GCU c. MFC
153. The SC (Starter Contactor) is controlled by: (B1,B2) a. BPCU
b. GCU (MTM24 p15) c. MFC
154. Nominal capacity of Main Battery is: (B1,B2) a. 45 Ah
b. 15 Ah
c. 43 Ah (MTM24 p73)
155. In the AC CF system the BTR (Bus Tie Relay) is controlled by (B1,B2) a. BPCU
b. MFC (MTM24 p108) c. GCU
156. In flight, with the 2 SG’s failed, or on the ground with the Batt. ON only (no EXT power, no eng running), the INV2 is supplied by: (B1,B2)
a. DC Bus 2
b. HOT MAIN BAT Bus
c. None of a & b are correct (MTM24 p.115) 157. ACW GEN’s are driven by (B1,B2) a. Eng. AGB
b. Propeller RGB (MTM24 p.119) c. Both a & b are correct
158. How many BTC’s (Bus Tie Contactor) are there in the ACW electrical system (B1,B2)
a. 1
b. 2 (MTM 24 p) c. 3
a. On ground only with the main buses not energized (battery only) (MTM24 p15) b. In flight, after take off
c. Anytime
160. An ACW SVCE Bus can be supplied from (B1,B2) a. The EXT power
b. The ACW Bus 1, if the EXT. Power is not available and if the 2 ACW generators are operational
c. Both a & b are correct (MTM24 p5)
161. What is the meaning of the BCC (B1,B2) a. Battery Charging Contactor (MTM24 p8) b. Bus Contactor Controller
c. Bus Cut-off Contactor
162. The GC (Generator Contactor) is controlled by the: (B1, B2) a. BPCU
b. GCU (MTM24 p15) c. MFC
163. The DC GEN is driven by: (B1, B2) a. Engine AGB (MTM24 p7)
b. Propeller RGB
c. Both of a & b are correct
164. The EPC (external power contactor) is controlled by (B1,B2) a. GCU
b. BPCU (MTM24 p45) c. MFC
165. What is the purpose of the DC Electrical generating power feeder system (B1,B2) a. To provide warning and/or maintenance signal only when the AC is on ground (MTM24 p64)
b. To provide warning and/or maintenance signal only when the AC is in flight c. It can provide warning at any time when the DC Gen is in generation mode 166. Normal capacity of the Emer Batt. (B1,B2)
a. 13 Ah
b. 15 Ah (MTM24 p73) c. 43 Ah
167. What is an internal Battery over temperature (B1, B2) a. >1000C
b. >810C
c. >710C (MTM24 p76)
168. In normal condition, AC STBY Bus is supplied from (B1,B2) a. Static inverter 1 (MTM24 p102)
b. Static inverter 2 c. Both a & b are correct
169. What is the inverter’s nominal power in continuous operation (B2) a. 500 W
b. 500VA (MTM24 p106) c. 750VA
170. What is the ACW GEN normal frequency range (B1, B2) a. 400Hz ± 10%
b. 400Hz ± 10Hz
c. From 341 to 488 Hz (MTM24 p119)
171. Open phase protection is one of the functions of (B2) a. GCU ACW (MTM24 p120)
b. BPCU ACW c. MFC
172. ACW SVCE Bus is controlled by (B2) a. BPCU DC
b. BPCU ACW (MTM24 p133) c. GCU ACW
173. The HES (Hall Effect Sensor) is used in ACW system for the purpose (B1, B2) a. Over load, Open phases and differential current protection
b. Over/under voltage protection and current measuring
c. Both a & b are not correct (ACW Sys used CT (current transformer). Not HES) 174. AC in flight, if one ACW GEN faulty: (B1, B2)
a. Both ACW Bus 1 & ACW Bus 2 are supplied from operating ACW GEN via BTCs closing
b. ACW SVCE Bus is supplied from ACW Bus 1, ACW SVCE Bus is supplied from ACW Bus 2
c. ACW SVCE Bus is shed off (MTM24 p139)
175. You can perform the ACW system confidence check (B1, B2) a. Only on ground (MTM24 p151)
b. Only in flight c. At any time ATA 25
176. The ATR flight compartment is equipped with: (A, B1, B2)
a. A Captain seat and a First Officer seat adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto the floor structure. Observer folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack. (D/O 25-10) b. An Observer seat and a First Officer seat adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto
the floor structure. Captain folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack.
c. A Captain seat and an Observer seat adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto the floor structure. First Officer folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack.
177. Emergency evacuation of the crew is made via: (A, B1, B2) a. Emergency exit doors located in the forward passenger compartment.
c. Cargo door located on forward cargo compartment. 178. An evacuation rope is located: (A, B1, B2) a. In the upper part of electrics rack. (D/O 25-10) b. Under Captain seat.
c. Under Observer seat.
179. The Pax double seat unit consists of: (A, B1, B2)
a. A forward folding backrest assy; an ashtray on center or exterior armrest; a baggage retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a seat belt; a folding table attached to seat back.
b. A forward folding backrest assy; an ashtray on center or exterior armrest; a baggage retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a life vest stowage; a seat belt.
c. A forward folding backrest assy; an ashtray on center or exterior armrest; a baggage retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a life vest stowage; a seat belt; a folding table attached to seat back; a bumper strip on aisle side. (D/O 25-21) 180. The ATR aircraft consists of: (A, B1, B2)
a. Two cargo compartments, there’re 03 nets in FWD cargo compartment and 02 nets in AFT cargo compartment.
b. Two cargo compartments, there’re 02 nets in FWD cargo compartment and 02 nets in AFT cargo compartment.
c. Two cargo compartments, there’re 03 nets in FWD cargo compartment and 01 net in AFT cargo compartment. (D/O 25-50)
181. The heat and sound insulation blankets are made of: (B1) a. Synthetic rubber.
b. Soft cloth.
c. Glass wool flakes. (D/O 25-22)
182. How many cabin attendant seats in passenger compartment? (A, B1, B2) a. Only one cabin attendant seat is provided in AFT section.
b. Two cabin attendant seats are provided: one in FWD section the other in the AFT section. (D/O 25-21)
c. Three cabin attendant seats are provided: one in FWD section, one in the MID section and the other in the AFT section.
183. AFT section cabin attendant seat is: (A, B1, B2)
a. Located next to the cabin attendant partition in line with the aisle and attached to floor rail. (D/O 25-21)
b. Located in the housing, behind AFT partition. The seat slides towards the aisle for utilization.
c. Located in the housing, behind AFT partition and attached to floor rail. 184. FWD section cabin attendant seat is: (A, B1, B2)
a. Located in the housing, behind AFT partition and attached to floor rail.
b. Located in the housing, behind FWD partition. The seat slides towards the aisle for utilization.
c. Located next to the cabin attendant partition in line with the aisle and attached to floor rail. (D/O 25-21)
185. The cabin seat number may change by: (B1)
a. Varying seat pitch and furnishing present in cabin aft area (galley, coat-room or partition).
b. Varying seat pitch, location of forward partition and furnishing present in cabin aft area (galley, coat-room or partition). (D/O 25-21)
c. Varying seat pitch only.
186. How many kind of ceiling panel in the cabin? (A, B1)
a. There‘re two kinds of ceiling panel: passenger compartment ceiling panels and entrance area ceiling panels. (D/O 25-23)
b. Only one kind of ceiling panel: passenger compartment ceiling panels.
c. Only one kind of ceiling panel: passenger compartment ceiling panels and entrance area ceiling panels are the same.
187. Each overhead stowage compartment has:
a. Three attachment points: two attachments points at the upper part, attachment is ensured by means of pip pins, pinned to bracket secured to the upper hand rail; other point at the lower part, attachment is ensured by means of pin fixed on bracket secured to the lower hand-rail.
b. Four attachment points: two attachment points at the upper part, attachment is ensured by means of pip pins, pinned to bracket secured to the upper hand rail; two attachment points at the lower part, attachment is ensured by means of pins fixed on brackets secured to the lower hand-rail. (D/O 25-24)
c. Six attachment points: three attachment points at the upper part, attachment is ensured by means of pip pins, pinned to bracket secured to the upper hand rail; three attachment points at the lower part, attachment is ensured by means of pins fixed on brackets secured to the lower hand-rail.
188. Each basic PSU( Passenger Service Unit) includes: (B1, B2)
a. Two attendant call pushbuttons; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading lights; 2 or 4 air outlets. (D/O 25-25)
b. One attendant call pushbutton; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading lights; 2 or 4 air outlets.
c. Two attendant call pushbuttons; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading lights; 01 air outlet.
189. The Passenger Service Units are located: (A, B1, B2) a. On LH armrest of the double seat.
b. Under the overhead stowage compartments above the passengers. (D/O 25-25) c. On RH armrest of the double seat.
191. The purpose of the attendant call pushbutton is: (A, B1, B2) a. To call Captain when the passenger need his help.
b. To call attendant when the passenger need their help. (D/O 25-25) c. To call attendant in emergency case only.
a. Call attendant; adjust air outlets and volume of loudspeaker; turn on or turn off the reading light.
b. Call attendant; adjust volume of loudspeaker; turn on or turn off the reading light. c. Call attendant; adjust air outlets; turn on or turn off the reading light. (D/O 25-25) 193. The emergency items of equipment in the flight compartment are: (A, B1, B2) a. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; fireproof gloves; torches and life vests.
b. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; an axe; fireproof gloves; torches and life vests. c. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; an axe; fireproof gloves and torches. (D/O 25-60) 194. The emergency items of equipment in the passenger compartment are: (A, B1, B2)
a. A megaphone; first aid kits; torches and a rope. b. A megaphone; first aid kits; torches. (D/O 25-60) c. A megaphone; first aid kits; life vests; torches and a rope. 195. Emergency locator system consists of: (B1, B2)
a. A transmitter; a remote control and an antenna. (D/O 25-60) b. A transmitter and a remote control.
c. A transmitter and an antenna. 196. Several galleys exist: (A, B1, B2)
a. One main galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side, forward of the service door. One secondary galley located in the passenger
compartment aft section, on the left side, forward of entry door. (D/O 25-30) b. One main galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the service door. One secondary galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the left side, aft of entry door.
c. One main galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side, forward of the entry door. One secondary galley located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the left side, forward of the service door.
ATA 26
197. NAC OVHT system is ready to operate when: (B1, B2) a. Aircraft is on ground.
b. Aircraft is in flight.
c. Aircraft is on ground, 30 seconds after landing. (D/O 26-16) 198. NAC OVHT system monitors temperature in: (B1, B2) a. Right nacelle. (D/O 26-16)
b. Left nacelle.
c. Left and right nacelle.
199. NAC OVHT located on Crew Alert Panel light comes on when the right nacelle temperature reaches: (B1, B2)
a. 170ْ C. (D/O 26-16) b. 177ْ C.
200. In engine fire detection, “FAULT” light comes on when: (B1, B2) a. “Short circuit” occurred in engine fire detection circuit.(D/O 26-12) b. The cartridge of engine fire extinguisher bottle failed.
c. The sensing element was double broken.
201. When the sensing element of engine fire detection was single broken: (B1, B2) a. “FAULT” light comes on.
b. “FAULT” light doesn’t come on.(D/O 26-12) c. Both (a) and (b) are not correct.
202. In engine fire detection, when a fire is detected: (B1, B2)
a. Resistance of fire sensing element reduces and capacitance of fire sensing element increases. (D/O 26-12)
b. Resistance of fire sensing element increases and capacitance of fire sensing element reduces.
c. Both resistance and capacitance of fire sensing element increase.
203. In case of single or double break of the engine fire sensing element: (B1, B2) a. The fault is always indicated to the crew.
b. The fault is not indicated to the crew any time.
c. The fault is indicated to the crew during the pre-flight test only. (D/O 26-12) 204. In engine fire detection, the fault signal activates when: (B1, B2)
a. There is a variation in resistance of the sensing element not accompanied by a variation in capacitance. (D/O 26-12)
b. There is a variation in resistance of the sensing element. c. There is a variation in capacitance of the sensing element.
205. What’s the kind of smoke detector located in Avionic Compartment? (B1, B2) a. Ambient detector.
b. Duct detector.(D/O 26-10) c. Both (a) and (b) are not correct.
206. Lavatory fire extinguisher is activated automatically when temperature of heat source reaches: (B1, B2)
a. 77ْ C.(D/O 26-25) b. 70ْ C.
c. 100ْ C.
207. The whole engine fire detection system is supplied from: (B1, B2) a. DC EMER BUS. (D/O 26-10)
b. DC STBY BUS. c. DC ESS BUS.
208. In flight, FWD cargo, lavatory and aft cargo smoke detection circuit can be tested by: (B1, B2)
a. Action on “SMK TEST” pushbutton switch located on ceiling panel of the cockpit. (D/O 26-10)
209. What’s the kind of smoke detector located in Lavatories Compartment? (B1, B2) a. Photoelectric cell detector.(D/O 26-10)
b. Duct detector.
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
210. Where are two fixed fire extinguisher bottles installed? (B1, B2) a. In engine.
b. After the fire-wall into the fairing between the engine nacelle and the wing. c. In the wing-to-fuselage junction fillet. .(D/O 26-20)
211. When engine fire handle is pulled: (B1, B2)
a. All LP fuel shutoff valve, air bleed valve, pressure regulating and shut off valve, de-icing shut off valve close; AC & DC generators de-energize; SQUIB legend comes on.(D/O 26-21)
b. SQUIB legend comes on.
c. LP fuel shutoff valve closes and SQUIB legend comes on.
212. What do you check during engine fire extinguisher bottle removal? (B1) a. The pressure gage pointer must be in the green range.
b. Its weight corresponds to the weight noted on the placard. c. Both (a) & (b). (D/O 26-21)
213. What action do you carry out in case of engine fire detection? (B1)
a. Place the condition lever in OFF position and squib the first bottle by pressing AGENT 1 pushbutton switch.
b. Place the power lever in idle position, place the condition lever in OFF position, pull engine fire handle, squib the first bottle by pressing AGENT 1 pushbutton switch. (D/O 26-21)
c. Squib the first bottle by pressing AGENT 1 pushbutton switch.
214. When engine #2 fires, press AGENT 1 pushbutton switch then: (B1) a. Fire extinguisher bottle corresponding to engine # 1 discharges.
b. Fire extinguisher bottle corresponding to engine # 2 discharges. (D/O 26-21) c. Both fire extinguisher bottles discharge.
215. The DISCH warning light comes on when: (B1)
a. The pressure inside corresponding fire extinguisher bottle drops below 325psi.
b. The pressure inside corresponding fire extinguisher bottle drops below 215psi. (D/O 26-21)
c. The pressure inside corresponding fire extinguisher bottle drops below 225psi. 216. What is the function of SQUIB TEST switch? (B1, B2)
a. Discharge fire extinguisher bottle.
b. Check of the enabling electrical continuity of the percussion resistances. (D/O 26-21) c. Check of pressure inside fire extinguisher bottle.
217. Aileron trim actuator located: (B1)
a. Left aileron. (MTM Volume 1, ATA27, page 9.) b. Right aileron.
c. Both aileron.
218. The control of aileron is done: (A, B1, B2) a. By control wheel. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27, page 9.) b. By control column.
c. By pedal.
219. The purposes of TLU: (B1, B2)
a. To limit rudder travel at high speed. (MTM Volume 1, ATA27, page 23.) b. To limit rudder travel at low speed.
c. To limit damper function for rudder.
230. The TLU switch in overhead panel includes: (B1,B2) a. Two position: AUTO- MANUAL.
b. Three position: HIGH SPEED-AUTO-LOW SPEED. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27, page 31.)
c. Two position: ON–AUTO-OFF.
231. The signal of aileron position transmitter sends to: (B1,B2) a. The indicator in flight Deck.
b. The FDAU. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27, page 15.) c. Both of above.
232. In all trim actuators of flight control system, there are two electric motor, one electric motor is not used if installing in: (B1,B2)
a. Rudder trim and Elevator trim. b. Aileron trim and Elevator trim.
c. Aileron trim and Rudder trim. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27, page 17.) 233. Which of the following cases are given warning alert: (B1,B2) a. Flaps asymmetry.
b. Pitch asymmetry.
c. Pitch disconnected. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27 page 48, 67, 83.) 234. The flaps system includes: (B1,B2)
a. 02 flap valve block, 04 actuators. b. 01 flap valve block, 02 actuators.
c. 01 flap valve block, 04 actuators. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27 page82.) 235. The hydraulic system supply for flaps is came from: (A,B1,B2) a. Green system.
b. Blue system. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27 page 78) c. Both hydraulic system
236. When flaps asymmetry occurs: (B1,B2) a. The flaps are returned to up position.
c. The flaps remain in reached position. (MTM Volume 1, ATA 27 page 80.)
237.The function of the cable tension regulator is to maintain cable tension between: (B1)
a. 20-25 daN. (DO 27-11) b. 30-35 daN.
c. 40-45 daN
238. When turning the control wheel to the right: (B1) a. The left Trim tab goes up. (DO 27-11)
b. The left Trim tab goes down.
c. The left Trim tab does not go up or down, it goes with aileron because it is controlled by electrical motor.
239. When pressing on one of two Roll trim swiches: (B1,B2) a. Trim actuator will be supplied for acting the left tab.
b. Trim actuator will be supplied for acting the right tab. c. Trim actuator will not supplied. (DO 27-12) 240. Control wheel travel is limited by: (B1) a. Left stop only.
b. Right stop only
c. Left and right stop. (DO 27-12)
241. The aileron trim actuator is identical to those used for: (B1) a. Rudder trim. (DO 27-12)
b. AP actuator. c. TLU actuator.
242. The descicant cartridge in the aileron trim actuator is used to: (B1,B2) a. Absorb ambient humidity. (DO 27-12)
b. Check actuator temperature. c. Check actuator external condition.
243. When pushing on the captain right pedal on ground: (B1) a. Rudder tab goes to the right. (DO 27-21)
b. Rudder goes to the right and Rudder tab goes to the left. c. Rudder tab does not move because it is spring tab.
244. Releasable Centering Unit (RCU) is automatically centered when: (B1,B2) a. Trim command is applied. (DO 27-21)
b. Yaw damper is active. c. Pedals are free.
245. Rudder trim is performed by: (B1) a. Varying the position of the rudder.
b. Varying the neutral position setting of the rudder tab with respect to the rudder. (DO 27-21)
246. The tab installed on the rudder is: (B1) a. Balance tab.
b. Servo tab.
c. Spring tab. (DO 27-22)
247. When aircraft speed is more than 185 Knots , rudder deflection is limited: (B1,B2)
a. Automatically by TLU and RCU.
b. By TLU switching to HI SPD position. (DO 27-23) c. By TLU switching to LO SPD position.
248. In case both ADC fail the FAULT light is on: (B1,B2) a. To indicate that TLU system is inoperative.
b. To inform pilots that both ADC and TLU are operative.
c. The rudder deflection can still be limited when aircraft speed is more than 185 Knots. (DO 27-23)
249. Rudder damper is inspected for: (B1) a. Cleanliness.
b. Oil level in the damper. (DO 27-70) c. Air pressure in the damper.
250. When pushing on the Elevator trim switches on the first officer control wheel: (B1,B2)
a. The left trim actuator is suplied to move the left tab and the right tab is moved through flexible shaft.
b. Both left and right trim actuators are supplied. (DO 27-32)
c. The left trim actuator is suplied to move the left tab and the right tab is moved through Pitch Uncoupling Mechanism.
251. The elevator trim value is supplied by: (B1, B2) a. Position transmitter installed on control surfaces. b. Right trim actuator position transmitter. (DO 27-35) c. Left trim actuator position transmitter.
252. The shift between the left and right trim actuator is performed by: (B1,B2) a. FDAU.
b. DFDR.
c. MFC. (DO 27-32)
253. There is green sector on elevator trim indicator: (B1,B2)
a. The pointer must not be out of this sector when take off. (DO 27-32) b. The pointer must not be out of this sector when landing.
c. The pointer must not be out of this sector when cruzing. 254. When the left AOA sensor is failed: (B1,B2)
a. The stall warning system is failed. (DO 27-36) b. The right stick shaker is still opeartive.
c. The right stick shaker and the stick pusher are still operative to prevent aircraft from stalling.
255. When stick pusher is operating it: (B1,B2)
a. Pushes elevator control linkage in nose-down direction. (DO 27-36) b. Pushes elevator control linkage in nose-up direction.
c. Causes vibrattion to the control columns.
256. The angle-of- attack limit value depends on: (B1,B2) a. Aircraft speed.
b. Aircraft configuration and flight conditions. (DO 27-36) c. Engine power.
257. The flap when extended is kept by: (B1)
a. Mechanical pins between inboard and outboard flap and by the shaft between two inboard flaps.
b. MFCs cutting supply to extension solenoid to connect blue pressure to the return. c. Hydraulical lock. (DO 27-54)
258. When flap is desired to set to 20 degres position: (B1)
a. Set flap lever to 30 degrees position, when flap reaches 20 degrees set flap lever to 15 degrees position.
b. Flap can not be set to 20 degrees position. (DO 27-51)
c. Set flap lever to 30 degrees position, when flap reaches 20 degrees switch off hydraulic pumps to cut the pressure for flap control.
259. Flap position indicator is indicated by: (B1,B2) a. Left position transmitter. (DO 27-55)
b. Right position transmitter.
c. Both left and right position transmitter.
260. Inboard and outboard flaps on each wing are connected by: (B1) a. Torque shaft.
b. Flexible shaft.
c. Push-pull rod. (DO 27-54)
261. How many hydraulic actuators for flap actuation? (B1) a. 2.
b. 4. (DO 27-54) c. 6.
262. Flap operating speed is limited by: (B1)
a. Restriction unit in Flap Valve Block. (DO 27-54) b. Restriction unit in extension actuator.
c. Restriction unit in retraction actuator.
263. An EXT electromagnetic flag on the flap position indicator indicates: (B1,B2) a. Energization of extension solenoid valve. (DO 27-51)
b. Energization of retraction solenoid valve. c. Indicator failure.
264. Spoilers are controlled by: (B1,B2) a. Control wheel. (DO 27-61)
b. Control column. c. Pedals.
265. When turning the control wheel to the right end: (B1,B2) a. The left spoiler moves up.
b. Both left and right spoiler move up.
c. The right spoiler moves up. (DO 27-65)
266. Spoiler extension is initiated for aileron deflection of: (B1,B2) a. 4.5 degrees.
b. 3.5 degrees.
c. 2.5 degrees. (DO 27-61) ATA 28
267. Where are the fuel tanks located on the wing of the aircraft? (A, B1, B2) a. Between RIB#3 and RIB#24.
b. Between RIB#4 and RIB#23.√ (D/O 28-00) c. Between RIB#4 and RIB#24.
268. How many kilograms is the fuel maximum capacity? (A, B1, B2) a. 5500.
b. 4800.
c. 5000.√ (D/O 28-11)
269. Where is the feeder tank located on the wing of the aircraft? (B1, B2) a. Between RIB#4 and RIB#5. √ (D/O 28-21)
b. Between RIB#0 and RIB#4. c. Between RIB#23 and RIB#24.
270. How many liters is the capacity of feeder tank? (B1, B2) a. 200. √ (D/O 28-21)
b. 220. c. 150.
271. Where is the vent surge tank located on the wing of the aircraft? (A, B1, B2) a. Between RIB#24 and RIB#25.
b. Between RIB#22 and RIB#23.
c. Between RIB#23 and RIB#24. √ (D/O 28-21)
272. What is the purpose of the tank venting system? (A, B1, B2)
a. To ensure tank venting in all operating phases in flight and on the ground.
b. To recover fuel entering the vent line and evacuated outwards in case of skidding. c. Both (a) & (b).√ (D/O 28-12)
a. On the lower surface of the vent surge tank. √ (D/O 28-12) b. On the upper surface of the vent surge tank.
c. On the lower surface of the feeder tank.
274. What is the purpose of the NACA intake? (B1, B2) a. To keep constant pressure in the fuel tank.
b. To enable a slight overpressure of approximately 20mb(0.3psi) to be maintain in the fuel tank.
c. To enable a slight overpressure of approximately 20mb(0.3psi) to be maintain in the fuel tank and limit overpressure in the tank. √ (D/O 28-12)
275. Each feeder tank is equipped with: (B1, B2) a. One electric pump and two jet pumps. √ (D/O 28-12) b. Two electric pumps and one jet pump.
c. One electric pump and one jet pump.
276. When both engines are running, both the corresponding electric pumps will run if: (B1, B2)
a. The crossfeed valve is opened.
b. The fuel quantity in each tank is at low level. c. Both (a) & (b). √ (D/O 28-12)
277. What is the purpose of the feeder jet pump? (B1)
a. To supply fuel to the corresponding engine during all flight phases.
b. To maintain the feeder tank full in all flight configurations. √ (D/O 28-12) c. Both (a) & (b).
278. LO LVL light comes on when: (B1, B2)
a. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 160KG. √ (D/O 28-42) b. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 260KG.
c. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 150KG. 279. Fuel mass is measured by: (B1, B2)
a. Six capacitance probes installed in each feeder tank.
b. Six capacitance probes installed in each tank. √ (D/O 28-42) c. Five capacitance probes installed in each tank.
280. In order to close fuel LP valve, what do you do? (B1, B2) a. Pull the corresponding engine fire handle. √ (D/O 28-24) b. Place the corresponding condition lever at FUEL SO position. c. Both (a) & (b).
281. Each tank is equipped with; (A, B1, B2) a. Two manual magnetic indicators. √ (D/O 28-43) b. Four manual magnetic indicators.
c. Three manual magnetic indicators.
282. When the two REFUEL VALVES switches are in NORM position, the refuel/defuel valves are opened by: (A, B1, B2)
b. Placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in DEFUEL position. c. Both (a) & (b).
283. How do you know the refuel/defuel valves were opened? (A, B1, B2)
a. By two indicator lights identified VALVE/LH/OPEN and VALVE/RH/OPEN located on the REFUELING panel come on. √ (D/O 28-43)
b. By placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in REFUEL position. c. By placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in DEFUEL position. 284. What is the function of crossfeed system? (A, B1, B2)
a. To allow both engine to be fed by one tank. b. To allow one engine to be fed by both tanks c. Both (a) & (b). √ (D/O 28-23)
285. After starting engine, the electric pump is de-energized when: (B1) a. Pressure supplied by engine feed jet pump reaches 8.7 psi. √ (D/O 28-21) b. Pressure supplied by feeder jet pump reaches 8.7 psi.
c. Pressure supplied by electric pump reaches 8.7 psi.
286. Low pressure in the engine feed system is detected by: (B1, B2)
a. The electric pump auto control pressure switch installed on the engine feed jet pump outlet duct.
b. The fuel feed low pressure switch installed downstream of the LP valve. √ (D/O 28-21).
c. Both (a) & (b). ATA 29
287. The aircraft is provided with: (A, B1, B2) a. Two independent hydraulic systems. √ (DO 29-00) b. Three independent hydraulic systems.
c. Four independent hydraulic systems.
288. During all normal conditions, both hydraulic systems operate: (A, B1, B2) a. Alternatively providing 3000psi supply pressure.
b. Simultaneously providing 3000psi supply pressure. √ (DO 29-00) c. Simultaneously providing 1500psi supply pressure.
289. The blue hydraulic system supplies: (B1) a. Nose wheel steering, flaps.
b. Spoilers, propeller brake for right engine.
c. Nose wheel steering, flaps, Spoilers, propeller brake for right engine, emergency and parking brakes. √ (DO 29-12)
290. The blue hydraulic system uses: (B1, B2) a. One 115V ACW pump.
b. One 28 DC pump.
c. One 115V ACW pump, one 28V DC pump. √ (DO 29-00) 291. The green hydraulic system supplies: (B1)
a. Landing gear extension/retraction, normal braking. √ (DO 29-11) b. Emergency and parking brakes.
c. Flaps extension/retraction.
292. The green hydraulic system is pressurized by: (B1, B2) a. Its own electric pump normally.
b. The blue electric pump, through the cross-feed valve (It need to be reconfirmed), in case of failure of its electric pump.
c. Both (a) & (b).√ (DO 29-11)
293. The green pressure module internal pressure line is equipped with: (B1) a. A check valve; a relief valve.
b. A check valve; a pressure filter; a relief valve. √ (DO 29-11) c. A check valve; a bypassing filter; a relief valve.
294. The green pressure module internal case drain line is equipped with: (B1) a. A check valve; a relief valve.
b. A check valve; a bypassing filter. √ (DO 29-11) c. A check valve; a bypassing filter; a relief valve.
295. Each pressure module external casing is equipped with: (B1, B2) a. A low pressure switch; an overheat sensor.
b. A thermal switch; a pressure transmitter.
c. A low pressure switch; an overheat sensor; a pressure transmitter. √ (DO 29-11)
296. The LO LVL light (on Blue & Green hydraulic system control panel 26VU) comes on when: (B1, B2)
a. Fluid quantity below 8.5 L
b. Fluid quantity below 2.5 L √ (DO 29-31) c. Fluid quantity below 4.0 L
297. The OVHT light (on Blue & Green hydraulic system control panel 26VU) comes on when: (B1, B2)
a. Temperature in case drain line reaches 121ºC. √ (DO 29-33) b. Temperature in return line reaches 121ºC.
c. Temperature in supply line reaches 121ºC.
298. Pressure relief valve, that provides pressure relief in case of pump regulating system failure, will: (B1)
a. Open if pressure reaches threshold 3553 PSI. √ (DO 29-11) b. Open if pressure reaches threshold 3133 PSI.
c. Open if pressure reaches threshold 3000 PSI. 299. The cross feed valve is: (B1)
a. A spring-loaded opened, electrically actuated.
b. A spring-loaded closed, electrically actuated. √ (DO 29-21) c. A spring-loaded closed, pneumatically actuated.
300. What is the reason of closing the cross feed valve in case of a fluid low level in one of two reservoir sections? (B1)
b. To prevent the total loss of both systems fluid. √ (DO 29-21) c. Both (a) & (b).
301. Cross feed valve (X FEED valve) opens when: (B1) a. X FEED pushbutton is in ON position.
b. LO LVL detection, X FEED pushbutton is in ON position.
c. X FEED pushbutton is in ON position, no LO LVL detection. √ (DO 29-21) 302. The auxiliary electric pump can be controlled by: (B1, B2)
a. Pushbutton switch located on overhead panel. b. Momentary switch located on pedestal. c. Both (a) & (b). √ (DO 29-20)
303. The auxiliary electric pump is supplied by: (B1, B2) a. 28V DC. √ (DO 29-20)
b. 115V AC. c. 115V ACW
304. AUX PUMP runs in AUTO mode when: (B1, B2)
a. AUX PUMP pushbutton is pressed, at least one engine running.
b. Propeller brake disengaged, landing gear lever in “ DOWN” position, pressure on blue system < 1500 PSI.
c. AUX PUMP pushbutton is pressed, at least one engine running, propeller brake disengaged, landing gear lever in “ DOWN ” position, pressure on blue system < 1500 PSI.√ (DO 29-20)
305. How can you release propeller brake with both engines not running and no ground power unit? (B1, B2)
a. Press pushbutton switch of auxiliary electric pump located on overhead panel. b. Press pushbutton switch of blue electric pump located on overhead panel. c. Press momentary switch located on pedestal. .√ (DO 29-20)
306. During hydraulic pump running, the corresponding LO PR light comes on when: (B1, B2)
a. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 1500 +/- 100 psi. √ (DO 29-32) b. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 3000 +/- 100 psi.
c. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 1800 +/- 100 psi. ATA 30
307. Pneumatic used in de-icing system is supplied by: (A, B1) a. Engine HP compressor. √ (D/O 30-11)
b. Engine LP compressor.
c. Engine LP or HP compressor depend on power lever position. 308. The isolation valves are used to: (B1)
a. Isolate the engine or airfoil de-icing system in case of engine fire.
b. Isolate the engine or airfoil de-icing system in case of leak or rupture in the airfoil or engine system air duct.
