AIR SYSTEMS
During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and only one pack is selected ON for air conditioning. What is the consequence?
• ! Since the trim air is off both packs will average the temperature that satisfies the zone which requires the most cooling
• ! During single pack operation the zone temperature is controlled the same as during two pack operation.
• ! With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average temperature demands of all three zones.
• ! If a passenger cabin zone trim air, or all trim air is lost, the forward and aft zone temperature demands will be averaged for control of the left pack.
When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What is correct?
• ! This indicates a failure of both the primary and standby temperature control systems. • ! Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the
backup system has occurred.
• ! This indicates one PACK has overheated and has to be reset by pushing the trip reset button.
• ! This indicates that both temperature controllers will regulate the temperature to a preset value.
When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system? • ! When T/D is reached.
• ! When retard is announced in the FMA.
• ! When descending 0.25psi below the selected flight altitude. • ! When within 15 000 feet of the landing airport.
Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?
• ! The system will be recalculating the pressurization for the departure airport
• ! The pressurization will increase its ventilation and possibly pressurization will be lost • ! The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost
• ! Nothing will happen and you will still get the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning.
From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs. • ! From the static ports
• ! From the Captain’s CDU • ! From the ADIRU’s
• ! From the EFIS control panel
Where are the bleed trip sensors installed? • ! On the 9th Stage bleed air line.
• ! On the engine side of the engine bleed air valve.
• ! Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve. • ! On the bleed air duct prior to the pack valve.
The right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light is illuminated, what area is affected? • ! The keel beam
• ! APU bleed duct • ! Left aircond bay • ! Right engine strut
What is the purpose of the recirculation fans? • ! To increase the pressure in the cabin.
• ! To decrease the air conditioning system pack load • ! If increased smoke removal is required
• ! To operate as air mixers in the mix manifold
The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning? • ! OVHT /DET
• ! AIR COND
• ! OVERHEAD
• ! As the light is in the proximity of the pilot’s perception there is no master caution for this condition.
One PACK light illuminates on recall only. What is the situation?
• ! There is FOD in the RAM AIR intake forcing the pack to shut down. • ! Both primary and secondary pack controls have failed.
• ! The primary pack control has failed and the pack is now controlled by the standby pack control
• ! Both temperature control valves have shut closed in the affected pack.
The Recirculation Fan:
• ! Is driven by a DC motor.
• ! Increases airflow at greater cabin differential pressures. • ! Reduces air conditioning pack load.
• ! Provides overheat detection downstream of the packs.
Cruising at FL 370. The motorized Overboard Exhaust valve will open if: • ! Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF. • ! Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is OFF. • ! Both pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is ON. • ! Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is ON.
The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT light illuminates. What does it indicates?
• ! The main pressurization controller is unable to maintain pressurization and has to be manually shift to manual
• ! The pressurization standby controller has failed and will automatically shift to STANDBY. • ! The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the altitude
window.
In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow is driven by? • ! A motor supplied from DC bus 2.
• ! A motor supplied from DC standby bus. • ! A motor supplied from DC bus 1. • ! Requires AC power from transfer bus 1.
What is the primary source of conditioned air for the cockpit? • ! The Right pack.
• ! The Left pack. • ! Both packs. • ! Ground air
During descent when the descent mode is activated:
• ! Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT. • ! Aircraft descends 0.50 below the selected FLT ALT. • ! Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected LAND ALT; • ! Aircraft descends 0.50 psi below the selected LAND ALT.
The maximum differential pressure is: • ! 7.90 psi
• ! 8.45 psi • ! 8.65 psi • ! 9.10 psi
What are the causes of an Amber AUTO FAIL light? • ! Loss of DC power;
• ! Excessive rate of cabin press change or cabin altitude above 15800 ft; • ! Both above statements are correct;
Given the scenario that the expected cruise level of FL310 was selected into the FLT ALT selector during preflight, but subsequently the A/C climbed to FL390, would you expect:
• ! A differential pressure of 7.45 psi maintained by the negative pressure relief valve; • ! A differential pressure of 9.1 psi maintained by the positive pressure relief valve; • ! A differential pressure of 8.35 psi maintained by the forward outflow valve;
The cabin will automatically pressurize to 0.125 PSID on the ground when: • ! Engine thrust is increased towards takeoff thrust.
• ! When the PSEU is activated.
• ! When the aircraft goes into the ground mode of the air/ground sensor.
AUTO mode active. The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when: • ! The cabin altitude exceeds 15,800ft.
• ! The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 ft/min. • ! The pressurization controller is moved to ALTN.
When both the AUTO FAIL light and the ALTN light illuminate:
• ! Pressurization has automatically switched to the ALTN system. • ! Pressurization has automatically switched to the MAN system.
• ! Pressurization has automatically switched to the opposite automatic controller.
Where do the AUTO mode controllers receive their barometric information from? • ! The captain's pitot/static system.
• ! The FO's pitot/static system. • ! The ADIRUs.
Loss of airflow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan results in illumination of the related equipment cooling OFF light. Selecting the alternate fan should restore airflow and extinguish the OFF light within approximately _____.
• ! 5 seconds • ! 30 seconds • ! 1 minute • ! 3 minutes
Where is the forward outflow valve located? • ! Just in front of the forward airstairs.
• ! Forward of the left hand air conditioning inlet. • ! There is no forward outflow valve.
The forward outflow valve:
• ! Closes automatically to assist in maintaining cabin pressure when the main outflow valve is almost closed or the recirculation fan is operating.
• ! Is motor operated and operates independently of the main outflow valve.
• ! Opens while on the ground and in flight with less than 2.5 psig cabin differential pressure. • ! has been removed from the 737-600/700 models.
Why should livestock (animals) be transported in the FWD cargo holds? • ! Because they are cooled by air from the E&E bay.
• ! Because they are heated by air from the E&E bay.
• ! The FWD cargo hold is the preferred hold, because the door is larger than the aft cargo door making loading easier
If a flight is aborted, and a return to the field of departure is made, the crew: • ! Should reset the LAND ALT selector to field ELEV.
• ! Should reset the FLT ALT selector to current aircraft altitude.
• ! Should do nothing to the pressurization panel, as the system will automatically return to the field of departure.
What is the flight level limitation for DISPATCH with one pack INOP? • ! FL410.
• ! FL250. • ! FL180. • ! FL100.
Takeoff is allowed with Pack switches in HIGH, but landing is not permitted: • ! True.
• ! False.
The Altitude Warning Horn is:
• ! An intermittent warning horn. • ! A continuous warning horn.
• ! An intermittent warning horn accompanied by a Master Caution warning. • ! A continuous warning horn accompanied by a Master Caution warning.
On hearing the Altitude Warning Horn the pilot\'s first action should be to: • ! Analyse the situation and decide on corrective action.
• ! To don oxygen masks.
• ! Initiate an emergency descent.
• ! Cancel the Altitude Warning Horn and call for the appropriate QRH checklist.
An amber AUTOFAIL indication will illuminate if one or more of the followingconditions occur: • ! A single controller failure when \'ALTN\' light is also illuminated.
• ! Loss of AC power for more than 15 seconds; Main Outflow valve DC motor fails or if the cabin altitude exceeds 13,875 ft.
• ! Cabin Altitude exceeds 13,875 ft; pressurisation differential exceeds 8.65psi or with the loss of AC power.
• ! Cabin Altitude exceeds 10,000 ft.
A decompression of the cabin will result in the following:
• ! An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft (approximately) a \'Master Caution\', plus an \'Overhead\' indication on the light/glare shield will illuminate. The overhead panel will illuminate with \'PAX OXY ON\' amber indications.
• ! An Altitude Warning Horn at 14,000 ft. The overhead panel will illuminate \'AUTOFAIL\' and \'ALTN\' amber indications on the pressurisation panel. These indications may be reset by selecting manual mode on the pressurisation selector.
• ! An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the Passenger Oxygen mask will deploy. To activate Oxygen flow to the Passengers the Crew must select the \'Passenger Oxygen Switch\' to ON.
• ! An altitude warning buzzer at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the oxygen masks will deploy and the overhead panel will show \'CREW OXY ON\'.
A flight deck ZONE TEMP light which remains illuminated after the master caution system is reset indicates:
• ! A flight deck duct overheat.
• ! A failure of the standby or primary flight deck zone controller. • ! Both above statements are correct.
• ! Insufficient trim air available from the cooling packs.
A ZONE TEMP light may be reset by the trip reset switch on the Bleed Panel. • ! True.
• ! False. This reset switch is only for PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF resets. • ! False. This reset is only for resetting a PACK trip.
• ! False. This reset switch is for BLEED TRIP OFF only.
In Cruise the air conditioning ram air doors are: • ! Fully open.
• ! Fully closed.
• ! Modulate between open and closed as required for pack temperature control. • ! Modulate as a function of airspeed.
If a PACK light can be reset by the TRIP RESET switch then: • ! The fault was caused by an overheat trip.
• ! The fault was caused by a controller fault.
• ! The fault was caused by an overheat trip or by a controller fault. • ! The pack should be selected off as per the QRH.
The ram air system provides cooling air for: • ! The cargo area.
• ! The heat exchangers. • ! The E/E.
Deflector doors are installed forward of the ram air inlet doors to prevent slush ingestion prior to liftoff and after touchdown. Deflector doors extend when activated:
• ! Electrically by the air-ground safety sensor
• ! Hydraulically when extended the main landing gear • ! Electrically (same switch as the recirculation fans).
If all zone controls and primary pack controls fail, the standby pack controlscommand the packs to produce air temperatures which will satisfy the averagetemperature demand of the two cabin zones. The trim air modulating valves will:
• ! Open. • ! Close.
If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF, the pack controls will cause the Left pack to maintain a fixed temperature of ____ and the Right pack to maintain ____ as measured at the pack temperature sensor.
• ! 20°C (68°F) and 18°C (65°F) • ! 24°C (75°F) and 18°C (65°F) • ! 18°C (65°F) and 22°C (72°F)
• ! In the mix manifold. • ! Downstream of the packs.
• ! Downstream of the packs and the mix manifold.
• ! Downstream of the packs, the trim air valve and the mix manifold.
The recirculation fan system circulates air from the passenger cabin around thelining of the forward cargo compartment. When the overboard exhaust valve isclosed, exhaust air from the equipment cooling system is also diffused to the lining of the aft cargo compartment for additional inflight heating.
• ! True • ! False
Forward cargo compartment only!
The cabin pressure controller controls cabin pressure in the following modes: AUTO (automatic) - ALT (alternate) - MAN (manual).
• ! All three modes use DC motor.
• ! Automatic mode uses AC motor while the two other modes use DC motor.
• ! Automatic and alternate modes use AC motor while the manual mode use DC motor.
Cabin altitude is normally rate-controlled by the cabin pressure controller up to a cabin altitude of ____ feet at the airplane maximum certified ceiling of ____feet.
• ! 10 000 ft and 41 000 ft. • ! 8 000 ft and 41 000 ft. • ! 12 000 ft and 41 000 ft. • ! 7 500 ft and 41 000 ft.
The air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs) provides ambient static pressure,baro corrected altitude, non corrected altitude and calibrated airspeed to bothautomatic controllers. The ADIRUs receive barometric corrections from theCaptain\'s and First Officer\'s BARO reference selectors.The automatic controllers also receive:
• ! Throttle position from both stall management computers.
• ! Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the air/ground sensors.
• ! Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the IRS.
Cabin air outflow is controlled by the outflow valve and the overboard exhaustvalve. A small amount is also exhausted through toilet and galley vents,miscellaneous fixed vents, and by seal leakage.
• ! True • ! False
If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, thePACK, MASTER CAUTION, and AIR COND System Annunciator lightsilluminate.
• ! The pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive • ! The affected pack is controlled by the \'main\' standby pack control • ! The pack will be inoperative
Manual Mode Operation: a separate DC motor, powered by the DC standby system, drives the outflow valve at a slower rate than the automatic modes. Outflow valve full range of motion takes up to 2 minutes.
• ! True • ! False
Fortunately Outflow valve full range of motion takes up to 20 seconds only. A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:
• ! The temperature mix valves to drive full cold. • ! The temperature mix valves to drive full hot. • ! An automatic shutdown of the pack.
• ! A BLEED TRIP OFF.
What systems need pneumatic power for operation?
• ! Air Conditioning, pressurization, wing anti-ice and APU. • ! Wing anti-ice, APU and engine starting.
• ! APU, engine starting, air Conditioning and pressurization.
• ! Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization, wing & engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurization.
Engine bleed air is obtained from:
• ! 4th and 9th stage of the compressor section. • ! 5th and 9th stage of the compressor section. • ! 4th and 8th stage of the compressor section. • ! 5th and 8th stage of the compressor section.
Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has automatically closed? • ! Modulating and Shutoff valve.
• ! Engine Bleed Air valve. • ! Isolation valve.
• ! 5th valve of the compressor section.
How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered?
• ! They are AC activated and pneumatically operated. • ! They are DC activated and pneumatically operated. • ! They are pneumatically activated and AC operated. • ! They are pneumatically activated and DC operated.
An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:
• ! Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open. • ! Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes. • ! Too high pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open.
• ! Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes.
What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE switch is in AUTO? • ! The isolation valve is always open
• ! The isolation valve automatically modulates between open & closed, depending on pneumatic load.
• ! Open when any Engine Bleed Air switch or Air Conditioning pack switch is positioned OFF.
What happens when the WING BODY OVHT TEST switch is pressed? • ! The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT Lights illuminate. • ! The amber PACK TRIP OFF Lights illuminate.
• ! The amber BLEED TRIP OFF Lights illuminate • ! All of the above.
When does the amber DUAL BLEED Light illuminate? • ! When the APU bleed valve is open.
• ! When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is ON.
• ! When the APU bleed valve is open, the No.2 engine bleed switch is ON and the isolation valve is closed.
• ! When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is OFF.
In the PACK TRIP OFF Non Normal Check-List, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to: • ! Reduce cabin airflow.
• ! Reduce the workload on the other pack.
• ! Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack • ! Reduce the air flow through the air mix valves.
The amber DUAL BLEED Light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do? • ! Nothing. This is normal condition before engine start.
• ! Do not start the engines, call Maintenance. • ! Do not start the engines, check MEL.
• ! Shut down the APU and use a pneumatic ground cart for engine start.
The motorized Exhaust valve:
• ! Allows for increased ventilation in the smoke removal configuration. • ! Serves as backup to the outflow valve if the outflow valve fails. • ! Is normally open in pressurized flights above 8,000 feet.
• ! All the above.
The amber DUAL BLEED light indicates apossible APU back pressure condition and thrust must be limited to IDLE.
• ! True. • ! False.
What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air? • ! It is ducted into the pneumatic manifold.
• ! It is ducted into the crossbleed manifold. • ! It is discharged overboard.
What causes the amber PACK TRIP OFF Light to illuminate? • ! Main distribution duct temperature has exceeded limits. • ! Compressor outlet duct temperature has exceeded limits • ! Turbine inlet duct temperature has exceeded limits. • ! All of the above.
The ram air system deflector doors:
• ! Are always extended when the gear is down.
• ! Extend during slow flight when flaps are not retracted.
• ! Modulate between fully extended and retracted through the entire flight. • ! Extend on the ground only.
If any individual zone is switched OFF, the Temperature Selector setting will be ignored by the temperature control system.
• ! True • ! False
The Equipment Cooling Supply or Exhaust OFF light illuminated indicates a loss of airflow from the selected cooling fan. You position the EQUIPMENT COOLING SUPPLY/EXHAUST switch on ALTERNATE
• ! No further action is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
• ! Diversion is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish. • ! Descending below FL250 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not
extinguish.
• ! Descending below FL200 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
See QRH Air Systems - EQUIPMENT COOLING OFF A leak in the APU Bleed Air Duct will be indicated by:
• ! Right WING‐BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates • ! APU BLEED light illuminates on overhead panel • ! Left WING‐BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates • ! CWS Master Caution BLEED
On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure indicates 50psi:
• ! As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal. • ! Select L pack to HIGH until pressure indications equalize.
• ! Set both packs to high for 2 minutes. • ! Set R RECIRC FAN to OFF
APU
APU operation requires the following:
• ! APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel must be IN
• ! APU fire control handle on the APU ground control panel must be IN • ! Battery switch must be ON.
• ! All of the above.
The APU Electronics Control Unit (ECU) provides:
• ! Automatic shutdown protection for overspeed conditions, low oil pressure and high oil temperature
• ! Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure and EGT exceedance • ! Automatic control of APU speed through the electronic fuel unit
• ! All of the above are correct.
The APU can supply both transfer busses: • ! On the ground only
• ! In the air only
• ! On the ground or in the air • ! Never.
APU cooling air:
• ! Enters through the air inlet door • ! Enters through the ram air system
• ! Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet • ! Is supplied by the air conditioning packs.
During APU operation, fuel is automatically heated to prevent icing: • ! True
• ! False.
Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU. • ! On the ground only
• ! In the air only
• ! On the ground or in the air • ! Never.
Because of power loss to the Electronic Control Unit (ECU) The APU generator ammeter:
• ! Remains unchanged from the B737-300 thru 500
• ! Is displayed in a digital readout format on the electrical panel • ! Displays APU generator voltage
• ! APU generator amperage is no longer displayed on the flight deck.
• ! 20 seconds • ! 30 seconds • ! 45 seconds. • ! 1 full minute
This one minute stabilization is recommended to extend the service life of the APU.
During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from 0º to 1100º C prior to normal EGT rise and the LOW OIL PRESSURE light may cycle on and off several times. These indications have no adverse effect on starting the APU. It is not necessary to monitor EGT during start.
• ! True • ! False.
Electrical power to start the APU comes from:
• ! The battery bus or the DC ground power receptacle • ! Battery power or either AC transfer bus
• ! Either the AC or DC standby bus
• ! The No.1 Transfer bus if available. If AC power is not available, battery power is used. With AC power available, the starter generator uses AC power to start the APU. With no AC power, the starter generator uses battery power to start the APU.
If the APU is the only source of electrical power:
• ! In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed
• ! In flight, the APU attempts to carry the full electrical load • ! On the ground, the galley busses are automatically shed
• ! On the ground, the main busses are shed first if an overload condition is sensed.
The APU switch OFF position has an automatic shutdown delay of: • ! 30 seconds
• ! 60 seconds • ! 120 seconds • ! 135 seconds
The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for both air conditioning packs: • ! On the ground only
• ! In the air only
• ! On the ground or in the air • ! Never.
The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up to: • ! 10 000 feet
• ! 17 000 feet • ! 25 000 feet • ! 30 000 feet
The APU start cycle may take up to: • ! 60 seconds
• ! 135 seconds • ! 3 minutes
Automatic shutdown occurs in the event of EGT exceedance. The APU may be used as a pneumatic source up to:
• ! 10 000 feet • ! 17 000 feet • ! 25 000 feet • ! 35 000 feet
THe APU will shutdown on the ground if: • ! The battery switch is placed to OFF
• ! The LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT light illuminates • ! The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights in the main tank illuminate • ! All of the above are correct.
When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a normal indication on the electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected.
• ! True • ! False.
When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a NO indication on the electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both the frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is placed on line.
If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle: • ! The FAULT light illuminates
• ! The MAINT light illuminates
• ! The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate • ! There is no light associated wih this malfunction.
In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power, all galley busses are automatically shed. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both main busses automatically shed until the load is within design limits. On the ground, the APU attempts to carry a full electrical load. If an overload condition is sensed, the APU sheds galley busses first, and then both main busses until the load is within limits.
• ! True • ! False.
The APU OVERSPEED light illuminated indicates:
• ! APU RPM limit has been exceeded resulting in an automatic shutdown
• ! The overspeed shutdown protection feature has failed a self-test during a normal APU shutdown.
• ! The first two statements are correct. • ! None of the above
If light is illuminated when APU switch is placed to OFF, light extinguishes after 5 minutes (light is disarmed when the APU switch is in OFF position).
Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
• ! LOW OIL PRESSURE • ! FAULT
• ! OVERSPEED
• ! MAINT
The APU starts, operates and can supply electrical power alone up to: • ! 41,000 feet
• ! 17,000 feet • ! 25,000 feet • ! 37,000 feet
The blue APU MAINT light means that: • ! APU may be operated
• ! APU shuts down automatically
• ! APU has to be shut down manually in flight or on ground • ! APU has to be shut down manually on ground only
Pulling up the APU fire warning switch: • ! Discharges the APU fire extinguisher
• ! Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and shuts down the APU • ! Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve
• ! Trips the generator control relay and breaker, arms the associated extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve, closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door.
When the APU is started using battery power only, there is no indication on the electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both the frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU generator is placed on line.
• ! True • ! False
AUTOFLIGHT
With VNAV engaged, the AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) pitch and A/T modes are commanded by the:
• ! MCP
• ! FMC
• ! FCC.
The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of : • ! The autopilots (A/P)
• ! The Flight Directors (F/D) • ! The Autothrottles (A/T) • ! All of the above are correct.
Normally, N1 limits and target N1 values are provided to the A/T by the: • ! A/T computer
• ! FMC
• ! IRUs
VNAV is terminated by:
• ! Selecting a different pitch mode • ! G/S capture
• ! Extending flaps beyond 15 with APP mode engaged • ! All of the above.
Moving the autopilot Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switch to the CUTOUT position will disengage the autopilot.
• ! True • ! False.
If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overriden with control column pressure, which of the following occurs?
• ! The autopilot disengages • ! LNAV disengages
• ! The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released within 250 ft of selected altitude.
• ! LEVEL CHANGE automatically engages.
If pitch is manually overridden while in ALT HOLD and control force is released within 250 feet of selected altitude, A/P pitch mode engages in ALT ACQ and returns to selected altitude in ALT HOLD mode.
The Control wheel force required to override the A/P COMMAND mode is: • ! Less than normal CWS force
• ! The same as normal CWS force.
When performing an autopilot ILS approach, the glide slope can be captured from above or below: • ! True
• ! False
When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the airplane will roll wings level when the bank angle is:
• ! 5 degrees or less • ! 6 degrees or less • ! 10 degrees or less • ! 15 degrees or less.
How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the AFDS? • ! One
• ! Two • ! Three
• ! Fours (two for each channel)
The AUTOLAND warning light is armed during dual ILS A/P approach below ____ feet. • ! 2500 feet
• ! 800 feet • ! 500 feet • ! 200 feet
What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD? • ! CWS P
• ! MCP SPD
• ! VNAV
• ! V/S
The autopilot cannot be engaged while force is applied to the control wheel. • ! True
• ! False.
In the 'ARM' autothrottle mode, the thrust lever autothrottle servos maintain thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display.
• ! True • ! False.
ARM mode = No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited. The pilot can set thrust levers manually.
LNAV terminates when:
• ! HDG SEL mode is engaged • ! Upon VOR or localizer capture
• ! All of the above are correct.
Minimum speed reversion is also available when the A/T is OFF and the AFDS is in ALT HOLD or after G/S capture.
• ! True • ! False.
Minimum speed reversion is NOT available in that case.
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust change without A/T interference? • ! GA & ARM
• ! N1 & ARM
• ! THR HLD & ARM • ! Only THR HLD
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting 'CMD' on the second autopilot during an ILS approach?
• ! 2000 feet • ! 1500 feet • ! 800 feet • ! 500 feet.
Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed below 2000 feet RA for a flight director go-around from a single autopilot ILS approach?
• ! The autopilot disengages
• ! GA mode of the Flight Director engages
• ! The autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1 • ! All the above are correct.
The airplane can be flown in the CWS mode even through the autopilot is engaged in CMD: • ! True
• ! False.
LNAV must be manually disengaged in order to capture an ILS localizer. • ! True
• ! False.
After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until: • ! 400 feet RA
• ! 800 feet RA
• ! 400 feet RA & 18 seconds after lift-off • ! 800 feet RA & 18 seconds after lift-off
If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, the pitch command target speed is: • ! V2, if airspeed is below V2
• ! Existing speed, if airspeed is between V2 & V2+20 • ! V2+20, if airspeed is above V2+20
• ! All of the above
Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV climb modes automatically engages the A/T N1 mode: • ! True
• ! False.
The airplane is in level flight at the selected altitude with ALT HOLD engaged. Changing the MCP altitude by at least 100 feet, arms the V/S mode.
• ! True • ! False
Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel disengages the autopilot.
• ! True • ! False.
Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected?
• ! VNAV
• ! VOR LOC
• ! APP • ! LNAV
During takeoff with F/D ON, the AFDS commands pitch attitude ____ degrees after ____ IAS. • ! 10 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS.
• ! 15 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS • ! 10 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS. • ! 15 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS.
Dual channel A/P operation is possible ONLY when two generators are powering the busses. • ! True
• ! False.
Pushing a CWS engage switch engages the A/P pitch and roll axes in the CWS mode and displays CWS P & CWS R on the FMAs. The A/P maneuvers the airplane in response to control pressures applied by either pilot. The control pressure is similar to that required for manual flight. If aileron pressure is released with 6 degrees or less bank, the A/P rolls the wings level and holds existing heading. The heading hold feature with bank less than 6 degrees is inhibited when:
• ! Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250 knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
• ! Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200 knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
• ! Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200 knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
• ! Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250 knots or less or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
If engaged the autothrottle will disengaged ____ after landing touchdown. • ! 2 seconds
• ! 5 seconds • ! 8 seconds • ! 10 seconds
If thrust levers become separated more than 10 degrees during a dual channel approach (before FLARE armed is annunciated), the autothrottle is then disengaged.
• ! True • ! False.
this is true but after FLARE armed is annunciated...
The autopilot flare maneuver starts at approximately ____ feet RA and is completed at touchdown. • ! 27 feet
• ! 35 feet • ! 50 feet • ! 100 feet.
During a single engine F/D go-around, F/D pitch commands ____ degrees nose up. As climb rate increases, F/D pitch commands maintain a target speed.
• ! 8 degrees • ! 10 degrees • ! 13 degrees • ! 15 degrees.
If windshear is encountered during F/D takeoff or go-around, the F/D pitch command bar provides commands to maintain V2+20 kts until vertical speed decreases to approximately :
• ! 600 fpm • ! 800 fpm • ! 1000 fpm • ! 1200 fpm
If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, both the F/D and A/P attempt to hold the airplane on altitude, or on glideslope after glideslope capture, without regard to angle of attack or stick shaker limitations.
• ! True • ! False.
Airspeed could decrease below stick shaker and into a stall if the pilot does not intervene by pushing the TO/GA switch or disconnecting the A/P and flying manually.
The AUTOLAND warning light flashed RED if:
• ! A/P disengages & ILS deviation occurs below 200 feet
• ! A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 200 feet • ! A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 500 feet
An A/T Disengage flashing light (amber) indicates airspeed error under following conditions: inflight, flaps not up & airspeed differs from commanded value by _______ and is not approaching commanded value.
• ! + or - 10 knots
• ! + 10 knots or - 5 knots • ! + 5 knots or - 10 knots • ! + 15 knots or -10 knots.
Localizer can be intercepted in HDG SEL, LNAV or CWS R. • ! True
• ! False.
The following annunciation provide the flight crew with autoland system mode and status:
• ! LAND 3 means two autopilots, two inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are operating normally for an automatic landing
• ! LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are operating normally for an automatic landing
• ! LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources and the associated sensors are operating normally for an automatic landing and rollout.
• ! LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources, the associated sensors are operating normally for an automatic landing and rollout and at least one FMS is operative.
The Autopilot Disengage Light is illuminated steady red when:1- Stabilizer out of trim below 800 feet RA on dual channel approach.2- ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go-around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation.3- Disengage light test switch held in position 2.4- Automatic ground test system fail.
• ! True. • ! False.
After localizer & glideslope capture, CWS cannot be engaged by manually overriding pitch and roll. Manual override of autopilots causes autopilot disengagement.
• ! True • ! False.
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a radio altimeter inoperative, the autopilot will disconnect ____ after LOC and GS capture.
• ! Immediately. • ! 2 seconds.
• ! Between 2 and 5 seconds depending on the altitude. • ! 4 seconds.
When a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude, the airplane levels and the pitch flight mode annunciation becomes:
• ! VNAV SPD. • ! VNAV PTH. • ! VNAV ACQ.
• ! VNAV ALT.
VNAV ALT maintains altitude.
During a single F/D go-around, with a push of either TO/GA switch: • ! F/D roll commands hold current heading.
• ! F/D roll commands hold current ground track.
• ! F/D roll commands hold current heading until passing 400 ft. The Roll Engaged Mode annunciation on the FMA is blank.
What happens with the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if SPD INTV is pushed during VNAV operations?
• ! IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows 250 kts.
• ! IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows FMC target speed.. • ! IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows slashes.
• ! IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows dashes.
Antenna switching from tail antenna to nose antenna occurs when: • ! VOR frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged. • ! LOC frequency is selected only.
• ! LOC frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged. • ! VOR frequency is selected only.
At what altitude will both A/P's automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during an ILS dual channel approach?
• ! 350 feet RA. • ! 500 feet RA • ! 50 feet RA.
• ! Will not disengage.
After a normal takeoff which pitch command can you expect? • ! V2
• ! V2 to V2+15kt • ! V2 to V2+20kt • ! V2+20kt
Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged before flaps up. (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode) Which is the correct mode on the FMA?
• ! ARM / HDG SEL / TO/GA • ! N1 / LNAV / MCP SPD • ! ARM / LNAV / FMC SPD • ! N1 / HDG SEL / VNAV
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic Go-Around, what is the correct FMA announcement? (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode)
• ! N1 / VOR/LOC / TO/GA • ! GA / LNAV / MCP SPD • ! GA / - / TO/GA
When flying on a geometrical path with VNAV engaged you push SPD INTV. What will happen? • ! VNAV SPD will engage and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
• ! VNAV PTH will remain engaged and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA. • ! VNAV PTH will remain engaged and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA. • ! VNAV SPD will engage and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
When in ALT HOLD FL80 you change the barometric setting from STD to QNH 1030. What will the aircraft do?
• ! The aircraft will climb 500 feet to the new pressure level • ! The aircraft will descend 500 feet to the new pressure level • ! You cannot change the altitude when in ALT HOLD
• ! The aircraft will continue at FL80, but the ALT readout will change.
On a normal ILS approach, when will the respective LLZ and G/S captures occur. • ! LLZ 2 dots on the expanded scale, GS 5/8 dot on the expanded scale • ! LLZ 1/2 dot on the normal scale, GS 5/2 dot below the glideslope • ! LLZ not later than 1/2 dot deviation, GS 2/5 dot below glideslope. • ! LLZ 5/8 dot deviation, GS 1/2 dot below the glideslope
You are established on the ILS at 3000´and inadvertently press TO/GA once. What will happen? • ! The A/P will disengage but the A/C will remain in approach logic
• ! The A/P will stay connected but the FMS will change to G/A logic • ! Nothing will happen since the A/C has not descended below 2000´
• ! The A/P will disconnect and A/T add thrust to reduced G/A, F/D pitch 15deg nose up
The white A/T LIM symbol appears on the upper display unit. What is correct? • ! The A/T has reach the thrust limit for the selected assumed temperature
• ! The N1 has been manually set and not by the FMC, therefore the A/T LIM will be illuminated
• ! The A/T is using the upgraded BLT performance information • ! The FMC is not providing A/T with N1 limit values
COMMUNICATIONS
How are the communication systems controlled? • ! By their respective control modulators. • ! By the Mode Control Panel.
• ! By the Audio Control Panel.
What is the purpose of the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel? • ! It selects an alternate radio.
• ! It selects a degraded mode of operation of the ACP. • ! It swaps audio control panels with the observer.
The MASK-BOOM switch allows selection of the oxygen mask microphone orthe boom microphone. The MASK-BOOM switch does not affect the operationof the hand microphone.
• ! True. • ! False.
In cased of degraded audio system operation:
• ! Audio warnings for altitude alert are not heard.
• ! Audio warnings for altitude alert and GPWS are not heard. Windshear alerts are not affected.
In cased of degraded audio system operation can access the passenger address system through the ACP (Audio Control Panel).
• ! True. • ! False.
An audio system operating in the degraded mode cannot access the passenger address system through the audio control panel. The crewmember can still use the service interphone handset and PA microphone if they are installed on the control stand.
The call system is used as a means for various crewmembers to gain the attention of other
crewmembers and to indicate that interphone communication is desired. Attention is gained through the use of lights and aural signals (chimes or horn). If the flight deck calls the cabin crew, the visual signal at called position is:
• ! Blue. • ! Pink. • ! Green.
• ! Blue then becomes red after 5 seconds.
On the Audio Control panel (ACP) the Cabin call light comes ON. It will illuminate until: • ! remains illuminated for 10 seconds.
• ! remains illuminated for 20 seconds. • ! remains illuminated for 30 seconds. • ! remains illuminated for 40 seconds.
The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:
• ! Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight.
• ! Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON.
• ! Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON or OFF. • ! Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight with parking brake ON.
The Cockpit Voice Recorder in AUTO:
• ! Always powers the CVR when DC bus 1 is powered. • ! Always powers the CVR when DC bus 2 is powered.
• ! Always powers the CVR when AC Transfer bus 1 is powered.
• ! Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
The CVR uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for maximum of: • ! 30 minutes.
• ! 60 minutes. • ! 90 minutes. • ! 120 minutes.
The Cockpit Voice Recorder in ON:
• ! Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to AUTO.
• ! Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to AUTO (after takeoff)
• ! Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to AUTO (after landing).
The CVR (orange box) is located:
• ! In the forward Electronic & Equipment bay (E&E). • ! In the aft right side of the aft cargo compartment. • ! In the flight deck (under the captain's seat). • ! In the aft galley.
When is the Cockpit Voice Recorder active? • ! Anytime the battery switch is ON. • ! In flight only.
• ! Anytime DC power is available,
• ! Anytime 115 VAC is applied to the aircraft.
Which radio does the First Officer use in the degraded mode? • ! VHF-1
• ! VHF-2 • ! Both VHFs
In the degraded mode of operation, are the ACP transmitter selectors functional? • ! Yes.
• ! No.
Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS, and windshear are not heard on an audio system operating in the degraded mode.
• ! True • ! False
When the ALT‐NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT:
• ! The ACP at that station is inoperative and the crewmember cannot communicate on any radios.
• ! The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio. • ! The ACP switches to an alternate ACP and all functions operate normally and the
crewmember can communicate on all radios.
• ! The ACP switches to standby ACP and all functions operate normally except PA and interphone.
With the Captain’s ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station:
• ! All ACP transmitter selectors remain functional, but receiver selectors are lost. • ! Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard.
• ! The flight interphone remains useable, the PA is lost. • ! VHF‐2 is the only useable radio.
The call system from flight deck to cabin operates: • ! Blue call lights and a single low‐tone chime • ! Green call lights and a two‐tone chime • ! Blue call lights and a single high‐tone chime • ! Pink call lights and a two‐tone chime
Flight Attendants may be called from the flight deck, the other attendant station, or from any passenger seat or lavatory. Master call lights in the passenger cabin identify the source of incoming calls to the attendants.
• ! True • ! False
ELECTRIC
Which of the following is false concerning the B737NG electrical system?
• ! Each Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) supplies its own and can also supply essential and non-essential loads of the opposite side bus system.
• ! The AC power sources are paralleled by an auto-paralleling system.
• ! The source of power being connected to a transfer bus automatically disconnects an existing power source.
The purpose of the AC ground service bus is to power: • ! The cabin lighting
• ! The utility outlets • ! The battery charger • ! All the above.
The TR´s ( Transformer rectifier ) convert: • ! 115 volts DC to 28 volts AC • ! 115 volts AC to 28 volts AC • ! 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC • ! 115 volts DC to 28 volts DC
Which is the power source for the AC standby bus? • ! Transfer bus 1 under normal conditions • ! Transfer bus 2
• ! AC main bus 1
• ! Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions
If the AC source powering a transfer bus fails, the transfer bus will remain unpowered. • ! True.
• ! False.
• ! True • ! False.
The TR3 cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to:
• ! Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and Flight Control Computers (FCCs)
• ! Provide more power to the AC STANDBY Bus • ! Ensure that the STANDBY DC is powered. • ! Provide more power to DC bus 1
In flight, if the APU is supplying both AC Transfer busses, positioning the BUS TRANS switch to OFF will:
• ! Cause AC Transfer bus No.1 to lose power • ! Cause AC Transfer bus No.2 to lose power • ! Cause both AC Transfer busses to lose power • ! Not cause either AC Transfer bus to fail.
The TR3 Disconnect Relay:
• ! Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director approach
• ! Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 & 2 through a diode • ! Automatically opens at glide slope capture during a Flight Director or Autopilot ILS
approach
• ! Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (+ or - 4 Volts) as dispalyed on the AC Voltmeter.
The Engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs):
• ! Are used in conjunction with a separate generator drive unit (CSD)
• ! Adjust varying generator speeds to maintain a constant frequency throughout normal range of operation
• ! Allow the generator to maintain a constant speed throughout the normal range of operation • ! Operate whenever the engine is operating and cannot be completely isolated from their
associated generator.
After the loss of all generators, a fully charged battery can furnish power to the STANDBY Bus equipment for a minimum of:
• ! 20 minutes • ! 30 minutes • ! 60 minutes • ! 90 minutes
The cross bus tie relay:
• ! Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director approach
• ! Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 and 2 through a diode • ! Opens up if BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF
• ! Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the AC voltmeter
Illumination of the GND POWER AVAILABLE light indicates:
• ! Ground power is connected and meets airplane power quality standards. • ! Ground power is connected however no airplane power quality is measured. • ! The Ground Service Bus is powered by a ground power supply.
• ! The external power bus is powered by a ground power supply.
For ground service, a ground service switch is placed: • ! On aft overhead panel on the Flight Deck • ! On aft attendant´s panel
• ! On forward attendant´s panel
• ! On external receptacle on the right side of the aircraft exterior
The GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when: • ! The GROUND POWER switch is positioned ON
• ! The GROUND SERVICE switch is positioned ON • ! The pneumatic ground cart is disconnected
• ! The AC ground power cart has been disconnected
The 115V AC Standby Bus is powered by:
• ! The 115V Transfer Bus No.1 under normal conditions.
• ! The Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions.
• ! The Battery through the Static Inverter with a failure of both engine driven generators. • ! The first & the third statements are correct.
One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is:
• ! All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System. • ! There is no paralleling of the AC power sources.
• ! There is no paralleling of any power source.
• ! An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source..
Because engine generators power the transfer busses directly, and transfer busses are connected by a bus tie system, the loss of an engine driven generator will not necessarily result in the loss of any bus(ses).
• ! True • ! False.
The modified DC system architecture resulted in the TR3 disconnect relay found in the B737-300 thru 500 being replaced with a cross bus tie relay. The cross bus tie relay opens automatically under the same circumstances as did the TR3 disconnect relay.
• ! True • ! False.
The SOURCE OFF light will illuminate:
• ! When the source selected to power the transfer bus has failed and the automatic bus transfer function has closed the BTBs to power the transfer bus from another source. • ! When the source selected to power the Transfer bus and the automatic transfer function
have both failed resulting in the transfer bus being. unpowered • ! When the TRANSFER BUS OFF light is illuminated.
• ! All of the above.
When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF:
• ! The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated
• ! Automatic switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power sources • ! The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be extinguished
• ! The Static Inverter provides 28V DC power to Transfer Bus No.1.
Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates: • ! The battery is being overcharged.
• ! Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON. • ! The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch ON. • ! The battery bus is not powered.
In the event that the airplane battery is depleted, the APU can be started using DC external power. • ! True
• ! False.
Illumination of the blue GEN OFF BUS light indicates: • ! The associated generator bus is not powered • ! The associated transfer bus is not powered
• ! The IDG is not supplying power to its associated transfer bus
• ! The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus.
When the aircraft batteries is the only source of power:
• ! The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged and the First Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays operate for a minimum of 5 minutes
• ! The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged • ! The Captain\'s inboard and the First Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays are
inoperative
• ! Both the Captain\'s and First Officer\'s PFD/ND displays remain operative but only DEU No 1 is powered until the battery is discharged
Illumination of the GEN BUS OFF light indicates: • ! The associated generator bus is not powered. • ! The associated transfer bus is not powered.
• ! The IDG is not supplying power to its associated Transfer bus. • ! The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus.
• ! True. • ! False.
The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the APU powering both Transfer busses (SELECT THE INCORRECT STATEMENT)
• ! One Transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift-off. • ! During climb, the galleys may become inoperative.
• ! Both Main busses may become inoperative above 400 feet RA or after 12 sec. from lift-off. • ! The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.
AC amperage can be observed on the AC ammeter for the source selected by the AC meter selector. • ! True
• ! False.
During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off-line. Indications that the crew should see include:
• ! A TRANSFER BUS OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light • ! A SOURCE OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
• ! Illumination of the fuel pump, probe heat, respective hydraulic pumps powered by the associated Transfer bus
• ! All of the above.
Illumination of the DRIVE light indicates: • ! IDG failure
• ! IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature • ! IDG disconnected through the drive disconnect switch • ! Any of the above.
Both AC Transfer busses can be powered simultaneously by: • ! A single IDG on the ground or inflight
• ! The APU generator while on the ground or inflight • ! Both of the above
• ! No single source can power both AC Transfer busses simultaneously
On the ground, with the battery switch OFF and STANBY POWER Switch in AUTO, the Battery Bus is:
• ! Not powered. • ! Powered by TR3.
• ! Powered by the Hot Battery Bus. • ! Powered by the Battery.
The TR UNIT will illuminate in flight if: • ! Any TR unit fails.
• ! TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail. • ! TR2 fails.
The ELEC light will illuminate in flight if:
• ! A fault exists in the AC or Standby power system. • ! A fault exists in the DC or Standby system.
• ! A fault exists in the AC, DC or the Standby system. • ! The ELEC light only operates on the ground.
What is the significance of an illuminated ELEC light? • ! One of the three TRs has failed.
• ! The DC system or standby system equipment has failed. • ! The battery is discharged.
• ! Two or more TRs have failed.
With external DC power connected to the external DC power receptacle: • ! The APU can be started using DC external power.
• ! The battery is paralleled with the DC External power source. • ! All circuits normally powered by the battery are powered. • ! There is no external DC power receptacle.
Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates: • ! The AC Standby Bus is unpowered
• ! The DC Standby Bus is unpowered • ! The Battery Bus is unpowered • ! Any of the above.
With the STANDBY switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU electrical power results in the automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate source for standby power:
• ! Inflight only.
• ! On the ground only.
• ! Either inflight or on the ground. • ! Will not occur.
In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power: • ! All galley busses are automatically shed • ! Only galley bus A & B are automatically shed • ! Only galley bus C & D are automatically shed • ! No galley busses are automatically shed
With the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO (guarded position). In flight, or on the ground, loss of all AC power. AC Standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter & DC Standby bus is powered by battery.
• ! True. • ! False.
DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery and each of the 3 TRs. The Standby power and battery bus displays only Dc voltage. Normal indication is : ______ volts
• ! 24 +/- 4 • ! 26 +/- 6 • ! 24 +/-2 • ! 26 +/-4
The DRIVE amber caution light comes on when: • ! Low oil pressure is sensed in the IDG
• ! The IDG is disconnected automatically due to high oil pressure • ! The IDG is disconnected manually with the drive disconnect switch • ! The engine is not running.
The purpose of the static inverter is to convert 24 volt DC power from the battery to 115V AC power to supply the AC standby bus during the loss of normal electrical power.
• ! True. • ! False.
The power supply to the inverter is controlled by the standby power switch and the battery switch on the overhead panel.
The two nickel-cadmium batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of _____ minutes (if fully charged).
• ! 30 • ! 45 • ! 60 • ! 75
DC busses powered from the battery following a loss of both generators are: • ! Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus.
• ! DC standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus & Switched hot battery bus.
• ! Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus (even when the battery switch is OFF).
• ! Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus. Switched hot battery bus is powered whenever the battery switch is ON.
If the TR UNIT light is illuminates in flight, it indicates that one or more TR\'s have failed and you are supposed not to use the AFDS approach mode.
• ! True. • ! False.
An illuminated TR UNIT light while on the ground indicates that at least two TRs have failed. • ! True
• ! False
What is the purpose of the GROUND SERVICE switch? • ! Provides automatic control of ground service bus. • ! Provide automatic control of ground service busses.
• ! Provide manual control of ground service bus. • ! Provide manual control of ground service busses.
Enables servicing airplane using external power without activating AC transfer busses.
Either generator or the APU can power both transfer buses. In the event a power source fails, what is required for that transfer bus to be powered by the opposite transfer bus power source?
• ! The generator switch must be OFF. • ! The battery switch must be ON.
• ! The BUS TRANS switch must be in the AUTO position.
Normal AC voltmeter indication for the APU generator with the AC busses loaded: • ! 100 to 125 volts.
• ! 110 to 125 volts. • ! 110 to 135 volts. • ! 115 to 125 volts.
Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates: • ! DC bus 1 unpowered
• ! DC bus 2 unpowered • ! AC standby bus unpowered • ! Hot battery bus unpowered
DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the battery and each of the three TRs. The standby power and battery bus displays only DC voltage. Normal indication is:
• ! 12 +/- 4 volts. • ! 24 +/- 10 volts. • ! 26 +/- 4 volts.
During primary charge cycle operation battery voltage can be as high as 30 +/- 3 volts
Both On the ground and in flight a amber ELEC light comes on to indicate that a fault exists in DC power system or standby power system.
• ! True. • ! False.
The ELEC light is inhibited in flight. Galley busses are powered from:
• ! The AC Transfer busses. • ! The generator busses. • ! The Battery bus. • ! The main busses.
How many TRs are required to power the entire DC system? • ! Any one TR.
• ! Two TRs. • ! Three TRs.
What is the source of power for TR3? • ! Transfer bus 1.
• ! Transfer bus 2. • ! AC standby bus. • ! None of above
What is the source of power for TR2? • ! Transfer bus 1.
• ! Transfer bus 2. • ! AC Standby bus • ! None of above.
The switched hot battery bus is powered whenever: • ! TR1 is powered.
• ! Transfer bus 1 is powered.
• ! AC ground service bus is powered. • ! The battery switch is ON.
The purpose of the cross tie relay is to: • ! Isolate transfer bus 1 and 2 • ! Isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 • ! Disconnect TR1 and TR3
What is the source of power for TR1? • ! Transfer bus 1
• ! Transfer bus 2 • ! AC standby bus
On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:
• ! Not powered • ! Powered by TR 3
• ! Powered by the Hot Battery Bus • ! Powered by the Battery
The main battery charger is powered through: • ! DC bus 1
• ! AC ground service bus 2 • ! AC main bus 1
• ! Transfer Bus 1
Which bus supplies electrical power to the auxiliary battery charger? • ! AC ground service bus 1
• ! AC ground service bus 2 • ! Transfer bus 2
The auxiliary battery operates in parallel with the main battery when the battery is powering the standby bus.
• ! True • ! False.
The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the first bus that is shed?
• ! Galleys on transfer bus 1 are shed first. • ! Galleys on transfer bus 2 are shed first. • ! The AC standby bus is shed first. • ! None of above.
The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is the second bus that is shed?
• ! Galleys on transfer bus 1 • ! Galleys on transfer bus 2 • ! The AC ground service bus. • ! The AC standby bus
After an overload situation has been resolved, how do you recover the galley buses? • ! It happens automatically.
• ! Move the galley power switch to OFF then ON.
• ! A ground engineer should reselect the appropriate switch in the E/E
Once disconnected, the IDG can be reconnected in flight. • ! True
ENGINES
Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position? • ! Maximum thrust position
• ! Forward thrust position • ! Idle thrust position • ! Any position
Each engine has two igniter plugs. The EEC arms the igniter plug(s) selected by the ignition select switch. The Left igniter plug receives power from the DC Standby bus while the Right igniter plug receives power from the AC standby bus.
• ! True • ! False
The Left igniter receives power from the associated transfer bus. Starter Cutout speed is:
• ! 25% • ! 46%
• ! Approximately 50% • ! Approximately 56%
An auto-relight capability is provided for flame-out protection. Whenever the EEC detects an engine flameout, both igiters are activated. A flameout is detected when:
• ! An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs
• ! An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM • ! An uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM
• ! An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM or EGT is below 200°C
At low N2 values, the oil scavenge pump may not provide enough pressure to return oil to the tank, causing a low quantity indication. Normal oil quantity should be indicated after start.
• ! True • ! False.
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers? • ! System A
• ! System B
• ! System A for engine No.1 & system B for Engine No.2 • ! System A for engine No.2 & system B for Engine No.1
The EEC drives all engine indications except: • ! Fuel flow & oil pressure
• ! Oil temperature & engine vibration • ! Oil quantity & engine vibration
• ! Oil temperature, pressure & quantity indications.
• ! Has no effect on EECs
• ! Results in a loss of signal to the affected EEC • ! Results in a loss of signal to both EECs
The EEC lights illuminate and each EEC reverts to the alternate mode to prevent engines from operating on a single source of data.
If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition & shut off fuel to the engine: • ! 15 seconds after the start valve opens during ground starts
• ! 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts
• ! 10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to idle • ! No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start.
A wet start occurs if the EGT does not rise after the start lever is moved to IDLE.
The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do? • ! Nothing, this is normal condition
• ! Do not start the engines • ! Shut down the APU
• ! Use a pneumatic ground cart for starting engines
The EEC automatically selects ground minimum idle, flight minimum idle and approach idle. Approach idle is selected in flight:
• ! Below approximately 12000 ft
• ! If flaps are greater than 1 or engine & wing anti-ice are ON
• ! If flaps are in landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine • ! Below 1500 ft, f flaps are greater than 1 or engine anti-ice is ON
This higher % RPM improves engine acceleration time in the event of a go-around. Approach idle is maintained:
• ! Until after touchdown (60 KIAS) • ! Until Reverser selection
• ! Until 84 KIAS
• ! Until after touchdown, when ground minimum idle is selected.
In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC from receiving flap or anti-ice signals, approach idle schedule begins:
• ! Below 20 000 feet MSL • ! Below 15 000 feet MSL • ! Below 10 000 feet MSL • ! Below 5 000 feet MSL.
The EGT display, both box & dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine if:
• ! An impending hot start is detected during ground starts
• ! An impending hot start is detected during ground starts or in flight starts • ! The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts
• ! The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts.
Once activated, the DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until: • ! The completion of the APU start cycle
• ! Once the APU is at governed speed, ready to acceptable load • ! An AC fuel pump pressurizes the manifold
• ! APU shutdown
What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?
• ! The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights extinguish with N1 RPM 56%
• ! The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes
• ! An immediate increase in the N1 indication due to closure of the compressor bleed valves • ! Start switch rotates to OFF and N2 RPM is stabilized (FUEL LOW PRESSURE
extinguishes)
Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at idle power. Which of the following is true? • ! Acceptable, no action is necessary
• ! Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
• ! Undesirable, and permitted obly for the completion of the flight, preferably at reduced thrust setting
• ! Unsafe and requires that the engine be shut down as soon as possible.
EEC alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal mode thrust for the same thrust lever position.
• ! True • ! False.
The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime: • ! The airplane descends below 15000 feet MSL
• ! Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT • ! Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either
engine
• ! Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
During a normal engine start:
• ! Only oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GND
• ! Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GND
• ! The EEC is not powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater that 15% N2 • ! Only round dials are visible for engine indications prior to placing the engine start switch
to GND
The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate:
• ! When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC Transfer bus • ! Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.1
• ! Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.2
