PTCB Exam Review #2
1. Which of the following medications is exempted from being dispensed in a “child-resistant” container according to the Poison Prevention Act?
a) Amoxicillin b) Digoxin c) Levothyroxine d) Nitroglycerin
2. A pharmacy tech receives a prescription order that has the following directions: “4 gtt in each ear tid.” How many drops will a patient use each day?
a) 8 b) 12 c) 16 d) 24
3. A pharmacy tech receives a prescription with the following signa: “1 supp pr qd.” What is the route of administration?
a) Applied to the skin b) By mouth
c) By rectum d) By vagina
4. A physician has prescribed clarithromycin 500 mg PO bid for 10 days for community-acquired pneumonia. How many 250 mg tablets will the pharm tech need to dispense for this patient? a) 20
b) 40 c) 60 d) 80
5. What is the generic name for Serevent Diskus? a) Albuterol
b) Beclomethasone c) Salmeterol d) Tiotropium
6. How many grams of hydrocortisone powder should the pharm tech weigh to prepare 1 pound of a 0.25% hydrocortisone cream?
a) 1.14 g b) 1.2 g c) 113.5 g d) 120 g
7. Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of diabetes? a) Januvia
8. A pharm tech is reviewing a prescription and observes the abbreviation Rx. What is the meaning of the pharmacy abbreviation “Rx” found on this prescription?
a) Generic substitutions b) Number of refills c) Take this drug d) Write on label
9. Which of the following products can be purchased as an exempt narcotic if all conditions outlined by the federal Controlled Substances Act are met?
a) Butorphanol nasal
b) Chlorpheniramine/hydrocodone c) Codeine/guafenesin
d) Phenobarbital
10. All of the following are contained on a prescription label EXCEPT: a) Directions for use
b) Name and address of the pharmacy c) Prescriber’s name
d) Prescriber’s telephone number
11. Which of the following medications carried a boxed warning? a) Enalapril
b) Gabapentin c) Ergocalciferol d) Latanoprost
12. Which of the following organizations track medication errors? a) CDC, VAERS
b) DEA, FDA c) FAERS, USP d) ISMP, NCCMERP
13. Which of the following drug classifications have been deemed potentially inappropriate for use in older adults?
a) Calcium channel blockers b) Corticosteroids
c) Decongestants d) Hypnotics
14. Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label “Avoid Alcohol; May Cause Drowsiness”?
a) Brimonidine tartrate b) Cephalexin
c) Furosemide d) Lorazepam
15. Which of the following drug classifications is contraindicated if a patient has high blood pressure?
a) Antacids b) Antitussives
d) Nighttime sleep aids
16. A pharm tech is reviewing the interaction of grapefruit juice on a variety of prescription medications. Drinking grapefruit juice will decrease the effect of which of the following medications?
a) Amiodarone b) Atorvastatin c) Carbamazepine d) Losartan
17. Which of the following is the brand name for celecoxib? a) Celebrex
b) Celexa c) Cymbalta d) Clozaril
18. Interpret the signa for the following prescription: Naprosyn 500 mg #30
1 tab PO 12h for osteoarthritis a) Take one tablet every 12 hours
b) Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours
c) Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours as needed for arthritis d) Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours for osteoarthritis
19. Which type of drug recall may cause temporary health problems and have a low risk of creating a serious problem?
a) Class I b) Class II c) Class III d) Class IV
20. Which of the following medications should have the auxillary label “Take with Food”? a) Ampicillin
b) Captopril c) Lansoprazole d) Prednisone
21. Which of the following drug classifications requires a patient product insert be given to a patient when receiving a prescription?
a) ACE inhibitors b) Beta blockers c) Estrogens
d) Proton pump inhibitors
22. Which of the following vaccines should be protected from light? a) DTap
b) Hep A c) PCV 13 d) Zostavax
a) Atrial fibrillation b) Fever
c) Gastrointestinal bleeding d) Hypotension
24. A prescription for 40 tablets of hydrocodone/acetaminophen is presented to the pharmacy. The pharmacy only has 20 tablets in stock. Within what time frame must the pharmacy provide the remainder of the prescription to the patient?
a) Within 24 hours b) Within 72 hours c) Within one week d) Within six months
25. Which of the following medications should be refrigerated? a) Epogen
b) proQuad c) Varivax d) Zostavax
26. Which drug schedule is meperidine classified? a) Schedule II
b) Schedule III c) Schedule IV d) Schedule V
27. Which of the following may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin? a) Apple juice
b) Cranberry juice c) Grapefruit juice d) Orange juice
28. All of the medications listed are indicated for asthma EXCEPT: a) Albuterol
b) Ipratropium c) Isoniazid d) Salmetrerol
29. What type of medication error occurs when a medication is prepared incorrectly? a) Compliance drug error
b) Monitoring drug error c) Prescribing error
d) Wrong drug-preparation error
30. Which of the following is memantine indicated? a) Alzheimer dementia
b) HIV
c) Hypoglycemia d) Psoriasis
31. Which of the following is a means of identifying a patient’s medications prior to being admitted to the hospital?
b) Medication-related action plan c) Medication reconciliation
d) Medication therapy management
32. A patient presents the following prescription for prednisone 10 mg; how many tablets should be dispensed?
Prednisone 10 mg: 60 mg PO QD for 2 days; 50 mg PO QD for 2 days; 40 mg PO QD for 2 days; 30 mg PO QD for 2 days; 20 mg PO QD for 2 days; 10 mg PO QD for 2 days; 5 mg PO QD for 2 days a) 14 tablets
b) 36 tablets c) 43 tablets d) 45 tablets
33. Which of the following insulins has a duration of action of 20-24 hours? a) Aspart
b) Detemir c) Lispro
d) Neutral protamine Hagedorn
34. Accupril and Aciphex are examples of which of the following? a) Confused drug names
b) Medication using tall man lettering
c) Medications that maybe therapeutically substituted d) Nonproprietary drugs
35. What piece of legislation requires drug utilization evaluation (DUE) be performed with each prescription?
