GRE
T
CAT
SUCCESS
GRE
T
CAT
SUCCESS
2004
Includes a vocabulary-building chapter
by Merriam-Webster–with Greek and
Latin roots, quizzes, and a practice exam
About The Thomson Corporation and Peterson’s
The Thomson Corporation, with 2002 revenues of US$7.8 billion, is a global leader in providing integrated information solutions to business and professional customers. The Corporation’s common shares are listed on the Toronto and New York stock exchanges (TSX: TOC; NYSE: TOC). Its learning businesses and brands serve the needs of individuals, learning institutions, corporations, and government agencies with products and services for both traditional and distributed learning. Peterson’s (www.petersons.com) is a leading provider of education information and advice, with books and online resources focusing on education search, test preparation, and financial aid. Its Web site offers searchable databases and interactive tools for contacting educational institutions, online practice tests and instruction, and planning tools for securing financial aid. Peterson’s serves 110 million education consumers annually.
GRE CAT Success is published with a CD. The CD will allow you to practice what you have learned using state-of-the-art
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10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 05 04 03
Contents
RED ALERT
Introduction to the GRE CAT . . . .
1
DIAGNOSTIC TEST. . . .
10
Analytical Writing Measure . . . .
10
Verbal Ability . . . .
11
Mathematics . . . .
19
RED ALERT
GRE Analytical Writing Measure
Strategies . . . .
37
UNIT 1
Analytical Writing Review. . . .
44
RED ALERT
Verbal Ability Strategies. . . .
51
UNIT 2
Sentence Completion Review. . . .
58
UNIT 3
Analogy Review . . . .
67
UNIT 4
Antonym Review . . . .
77
RED ALERT
Reading Comprehension Strategies. . .
87
UNIT 5
Reading Comprehension Review . . . .
93
RED ALERT
Why Study Vocabulary for the GRE? . .
107
UNIT 6
Merriam-Webster’s Roots to Word Mastery . . . .
109
RED ALERT
Quantitative Ability Strategies . . . .
167
UNIT 7
Mathematics Review . . . .
169
RED ALERT
Quantitative Comparisons Strategies . .
261
UNIT 8
QUANTITATIVE COMPARISONS REVIEW . . . .
269
RED ALERT
Data Analysis Strategies. . . .
283
UNIT 9
Data Analysis Review . . . .
284
PRACTICE TEST 1
Analytical Writing Measure . . . .
291
PRACTICE TEST 2
Analytical Writing Measure . . . .
292
PRACTICE TEST 1
Verbal Ability. . . .
293
PRACTICE TEST 2
Verbal Ability. . . .
302
PRACTICE TEST 1
Quantitative Ability . . . .
327
PRACTICE TEST 2
Quantitative Ability . . . .
337
APPENDICES
APPENDIX A
The GRE CAT Success Math Review . . . . .
358
APPENDIX B
The GRE CAT Success Stress-Busting
Guide . . . .
403
APPENDIX C
Applying to Graduate School . . . .
411
APPENDIX D
Writing a Good Personal Essay . . . .
424
CONTENTSINTRODUCTION TO THE GRE CAT
The Graduate Record Examination (GRE) General Test is primarily a multiple-choice test that most graduate schools use for admission into their graduate programs that measures your verbal, quantita-tive, and writing skills. Fortunately, because most of this test is in a multiple-choice format, you can study for it by using this book and learning some of the “tricks-of-the trade” that have been developed by educators who have helped thousands of students prepare for this and similar exams. We’ll also show you how to ace the Analytical Writing section and provide sample essays to use as models.The Graduate Record Examination Program, which is administered by the Educational Testing Service (ETS), is offered year-round at hundreds of test centers around the world. You can schedule your appointment at a time that is convenient for you. You can also retake the test up to five times in one year but no more than once in any given month.
ETS also offers Subject Tests in eight discipline areas (Biochemistry, Cell and Molecular Biology, Literature in English, Biology, Mathematics, Chemistry, Physics, Computer Science, and Psychology), each of which measures achievement in specific fields. If you are planning to take the General Test or any of the Subject Tests, you can obtain a registration packet and additional information about each test, by writing directly to:
Graduate Record Examination Educational Testing Service P.O. Box 6000
Princeton, New Jersey 08541 http://www.gre.org
Since 1999, the regular “pencil and paper” test for the Graduate Record Examination has been largely discontinued, and only the computerized version, known as the computer-adaptive test (CAT), is available in the United States and many other countries.
W
HATI
S AC
OMPUTER-A
DAPTIVET
EST?
A computer-adaptive test is—as the title says—adaptive. That means that each time you answer a question, the computer adjusts to your responses when determining which question to present next. If you answer the question correctly, you are presented with a question of increased difficulty. If you answer the question incorrectly, you will receive a question of lesser difficulty. For example, the first question in a section will be of moderate difficulty. If you answer it correctly, the computer adapts so that the next question is slightly more difficult. If your answer was incorrect, the next question will be somewhat easier. The computer will continue presenting questions based on your responses, with the goal of determining your ability level.
RED ALERT
It is important to understand that the questions at the beginning of a section affect your score more than those at the end. That’s because the early questions are used to determine your general ability level. Once the computer determines your general ability level, it presents questions to identify your specific ability level. As you progress farther into a section, it will be difficult to raise your score very much, even if you answer most items correctly. That’s because the later questions affect your score less, as they are used to pinpoint your exact score once the computer has identified your general ability level.
Therefore, take as much time as you can afford to answer the early questions correctly. Your score on each section is based on the number of questions you answer correctly as well as the difficulty level of those questions. You will receive a score on each of the sections, whether or not you complete all of the questions. If you do not answer any of the questions in a section, a “No Score” will be reported.
Because of the nature of this type of test, you must answer each question as it is presented to you before you get the next question. If you don’t answer the question, you can’t go forward. And once you answer a question, you can’t go back either, since the computer has already selected the next question, based on what you answered. Also, once you exit a section, you cannot go back.
If you are not computer literate, don’t worry. You will only be required to have basic computer skills, and fortunately, you will have a tutorial prior to taking the exam, in order to demonstrate that you are capable of taking the test. Of course, it would be helpful to practice on a computer prior to taking the actual test, especially since the Analytical Writing portion of the exam will require typing skills. At the test center, you will have up to 4 hours for your test appointment, but only 2 hours and 15 minutes are allotted for the actual exam. So you will have enough time to take the tutorial and answer most of the other questions that you will receive, along with an ETS survey.
S
CORINGThe scoring for the GRE CAT is similar to the scoring for the pencil-and-paper test. The number of correct answers is adjusted to the difficulty level of the questions you answered. As we mentioned earlier, this is why it is important to answer the first questions correctly, so that the difficulty level increases, as does your score. The final score incorporates the properties of the questions, how many questions you answered correctly, and the number of questions that you answered. Your score report will range from 200 to 800, will be separated into separate scores for each section, and will be accompanied by a percentile rank for those sections.
One advantage of the CAT exam is that you will receive your verbal and quantitative scores as soon as you complete the test, if you wish. You can cancel the test at that time before getting your scores, if you think you did poorly. If you click on the “Test Quit” box on your screen, you will exit the test, and no scores will be reported—not even for those sections you have already completed. If you decide to see your scores, you will also receive a paper report in the mail within six weeks after taking the test.
Another advantage of taking the CAT is that the test is offered year-round at hundreds of test centers around the world. You can schedule your appointment at a time that is convenient for you. You can also retake the test up to five times in one year but no more than once in any given month.
ABOUT THIS BOOK
This book has been written for you—the student—to help you prepare for this examination. It will provide you with the tools and the understanding of the overall test and guide you, step-by-step, through each of the major areas covered on this examination. There is a logical approach to this process and to the format of this book. Let’s take a closer look at this book in order to get a fuller understanding of how you can benefit from using it.
Actually, we should start at the end. At the back of the book you’ll find a CD-ROM. This disk contains practice CATs. We suggest that you go through this book first, take the paper-and-pencil tests in the book, study the review sections, and then go to the CD to take the tests, which will simulate the actual GRE experience.
First, let’s look at the basic make-up of the GRE. The test includes three major areas: Verbal (English), Quantitative (Mathematics), and Analytical Writing Assessment. You will also have one or two experimental sections that will be either Verbal or Quantitative and that do not count toward your final score. (ETS pretests questions to gather statistical information about them before using them on a real test.) Later on in this introductory section, we will cover these areas in more depth. How-ever, it is important that you understand how the test is constructed. Within the three major sections, there are different types of questions, and unlike the old written test, these questions are integrated within a section. For example, in the old exam, you would first be asked seven Sentence Completion Questions, then nine Analogies, and so on. On the CAT, these questions are integrated within the Verbal section, and you won’t know what type of question you will be asked next.
The Analytical Writing Measure was formerly a separate, independent test. However, as of October 2002, it replaced the Analytical Ability section. It is identical to the former GRE Writing Assessment test.
We have prepared this book in order to give you practice answering the different questions as well as in-depth review material. Obviously, you won’t encounter the randomized and adaptive questions in the book, so instead, we focus here on comprehension. You must first understand what the different questions are that you will encounter, in order for you to do well on the actual test.
The first part of the book is a Diagnostic Test. In actuality, we have presented three separate tests, one in each of the subject areas. Its purpose is to help you zero in on those specific topics that give you trouble. Armed with this knowledge, you can then focus your studying on those areas that need more review. The point is to save you time and effort, and it doesn’t make sense to study an entire course if you really only need to focus on one or two sections. Therefore, it is important in this studying process to take the Diagnostic Test, check your answers carefully (reading the explanations, if necessary), and then identify those areas that need additional work.
In the second section of the book, each type of question is reviewed. Various strategies for attacking each type of question are presented. Following each set of strategies, there are also addi-tional review questions in order for you to practice the material. But keep in mind that depending upon how you scored on your Diagnostic Test, you may not have to read this entire book.
Following the review section are six complete Practice Tests—two in each of the three subject areas. Depending upon the amount of time you have to study prior to taking the actual GRE, you should try to take these tests under actual conditions, if possible. Score your tests and then check the explanations of those questions you answered incorrectly.
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However you normally study, we strongly recommend that you try to follow one of the courses of study presented in the GRE Study Plans below. These plans offer approaches that will best use your available time. The plans are flexible, as any plan should be. After you take the Diagnostic Test, revise the study plan to fit your needs, weaknesses, and schedule.
Let’s take a closer look at the components of the exam, in order to prepare you for what you will encounter—assuming this is the first time you’ve picked up a GRE review book. If you’ve already taken the test and are studying to take it again or you’ve used another book prior to this, you’re probably very familiar with the different types of questions that you will encounter. In that case, skip this chapter and move on to the Diagnostic Test and the review sections.
A
NALYTICALW
RITINGM
EASUREAs we mentioned earlier, this section replaces the Analytical Ability section that was on the previous GRE exams. The Analytical Writing Measure (AWM) is identical to the former GRE Writing Assessment test that was given separately from the GRE General Test. The AWM consists of two analytical writing tasks. The first 45-minute assignment is an Issue task. The second is an Argument task. The Issue task asks you to write from any perspective on a given opinion, and you’ll have a choice from two tasks randomly selected by the computer. The Argument task asks you to critique an argument by analyzing the issues presented, how logical it is, and so on. You are not asked to take sides.
V
ERBALA
BILITYThere are four major question types in the Verbal Ability section: Analogies, Antonyms, Sentence Completions, and Reading Comprehension. There are a total of 30 questions in this section, as follows:
1. Sentence Completion—6 questions 2. Analogies—7 questions
3. Reading Comprehension—8 questions 4. Antonyms—9 questions
Each Verbal Ability test is only 30 minutes, so time is of the essence. Throughout this book, we continually stress the idea of making time count, and one of the most important time-savers is to be intimately familiar with the directions for the questions. If you have to take the time to read them over again when you take the actual GRE, you’re losing time. Keep in mind that with 30 questions to be answered in 30 minutes, you have about 1 minute to answer each question.
This portion of the GRE essentially is a test of vocabulary. The stronger your vocabulary, the easier it will be to answer the questions in the Antonyms, Sentence Completions, and Analogies. The Reading Comprehension test will measure your ability to understand reading passages, and a com-mand of vocabulary will be useful here as well. The review units will give you some strong pointers and additional practice. There are several basic skills involved in this section, and in order to do well, you must learn those skills. Our inclusion of “Merriam-Webster’s Roots to Word Mastery” will help to improve your vocabulary.
Q
UANTITATIVEA
BILITY(M
ATHEMATICS)
The quantitative section of the GRE requires a basic understanding of fundamental mathematical concepts. You are asked to solve problems and to utilize mathematical reasoning. Fortunately, most of the mathematics on this test is high school level and should not be that difficult. Unfortunately, by the time you have reached your last year in college or have been out of college for some time and are getting ready to take the GRE, you have probably forgotten most of your high school math. We have provided you with a basic math review, covering all of the topics that will be included on this portion of the test.
The mathematics section of the test includes three main areas and contains 28 questions to be answered in 45 minutes—about 11
2minutes per question. 1. Quantitative Comparisons—14 questions 2. Basic Mathematics—9 questions
3. Data Analysis—5 questions
Quantitative Comparisons
The Quantitative Comparison questions require you to be able to reason quickly and accurately about two quantities provided. Thus, not only does this section require you to have mathematical ability, but it also requires a sense of logic and reasoning. The chapter on Quantitative Comparisons offers numerous fully explained examples as well as dozens of practice questions.
Basic Mathematics
Basic Mathematics involves traditional computational skills and includes arithmetic, algebra, and geometry. Fortunately, even if your math skills are somewhat weak, you can develop strong question-answering skills, that improve your chances of accurately narrowing your choices.
Data Analysis
The Data Analysis section is a test of interpretation of charts, graphs, and tables. Much of the information is fairly clear, but many of the questions require you to analyze the material, select the data required, and then perform a variety of calculations. Don’t be misled by apparently easy answers. It’s likely that you’ll have to perform one or more mathematical operations in order to find the correct answer.
P
OINTERSThere are a few things you should keep in mind when taking the GRE CAT—some that are generic tips and other that are CAT-specific. Although these may have appeared earlier in this chapter, they are important enough for you to read them again—and learn them.
1. You do not need to be computer literate in order to take the test. You will receive a tutorial before the exam, so that you are totally familiar with the computer, word processing, answering a test question, and using the mouse.
2. You must answer every question as it is presented to you. If you don’t answer a question and accept it at the time, you cannot get the next question. As we said earlier, take more time on the early questions, since they will count for more than those at the end of the test.
INTRODUCTION TO THE GRE CAT
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3. Questions are not grouped by type within each section. Thus, you might find it disruptive to jump back and forth from one question type to another, but you should learn to develop your own method of dealing with this.
4. During the test, there is a time display that you can turn on or off. When there are 5
minutes remaining for a section, the time will automatically turn on and flash briefly to alert you. It will be helpful, though, to occasionally monitor how much time remains.
5. Use the process of elimination. One of the basic methods of answering multiple-choice questions is the process of elimination. Cross off the wrong answers and work toward the correct one. Eliminate those that are obviously incorrect. Select the one that strikes you as correct right from the start. The more choices you eliminate, the better your odds are for getting the correct answer.
Now that you have a good idea of what the exam consists of and how it is presented, it’s time to begin studying. Try to pick a study plan that makes sense to you—it’s good discipline for test prepara-tion. Then start by taking the Diagnostic Tests that follow. By the time you have completed all of the material in this book, you should be ready to score high on the actual GRE. Good luck!
GRE STUDY PLANS
There are several ways to prepare for the GRE. We offer you these different study plans to help maximize your time and studying. The first is a 10-Week Plan that involves concentrated studying and a focus on the sample test results. The second is the 20-Week Plan, or Semester Plan, that is favored by schools. Finally, the Panic Plan is for those of you who have only a few weeks to prepare. Obviously, the more time you have to prepare, the easier it will be to review all of the material and find yourself somewhat more relaxed when taking the actual exam. These plans are not set in
stone—feel free to modify them to suit your needs and your own study habits. But start immediately. The more you study and review the questions, the better your results will be.
THE 10-WEEK PLAN—
2 L
ESSONSP
ERW
EEKWeek 1
Lesson 1
Diagnostic TestTake the entire paper-and-pencil Diagnostic Test in one sitting. There are three sections: Verbal, Math, and Analytical Writing Assessment. Save the grading for Lesson 2.
Lesson 2
Diagnostic AnswersSpend the time checking all of your answers and reading through the explanations. Although these first two lessons are an enormous amount of work, it is well worth it to be able to analyze your strengths and weaknesses at this point. It will enable you to select those subject areas that you should focus on and the areas in which to spend the most amount of time studying.
Once you have determined the areas that need further study, amend this plan to suit your own needs. If you have done well on the Diagnostic Test, you might just want to take each of the Practice Tests separately or section by section, carefully checking your answers as you complete each portion of the test.
Week 2
Lesson 1
Analytical Writing MeasureRead through the first part of the Red Alert on Analytical Writing, focusing on the Issues section. Write outlines for several Issue essays. Write a response to the issue in Unit 1.
Lesson 2
Analytical Writing MeasureRead through the Red Alert part on Argument tasks. Write outlines for several Argu-ment essays. You can select any of them. Write a response to the arguArgu-ment in Unit 1.
Week 3
Lesson 1
VerbalStudy the Red Alert section for the Verbal test. Also, answer the questions in Units 2 (Sentence Completions), 3 (Analogies), and 4 (Antonyms).
Lesson 2
Reading Comprehension and VocabularyRead through the overview section for Reading Comprehension, and then answer the questions in Unit 5. Try to apply some of the Reading Comprehension strategies offered in the Red Alert. Begin to build your vocabulary with Merriam-Webster’s Roots to Word Mastery. You may find it useful to pace yourself through this review by returning to it over the remaining weeks.
Week 4
Lesson 1
Mathematics ReviewThis is the major mathematics overview section. Begin with Quantitative Ability
Strategies. It is in this Red Alert section that you can review all of the mathematics that will be covered on the test. In this first lesson, start with Arithmetic and read up to Decimals. Answer the questions that accompany each subsection.
Lesson 2
Mathematics ReviewRead and study from Decimals up to Algebra. This is somewhat complicated material, especially if you have been away from mathematics for some time. By working
through the accompanying problems, you will begin to get a feel again for the types of questions that you might encounter as well as help yourself to refresh your knowledge of the subject.
Week 5
Lesson 1
Mathematics ReviewRead from Algebra to Plane Geometry. Answer the questions and make sure you understand the answers before you move on to a new topic.
Lesson 2
Mathematics ReviewComplete the section on Plane Geometry. Study the review material and take the quiz.
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Week 6
Lesson 1
Quantitative ComparisonsThis section of the GRE seems to present a lot more problems than many of the other sections on the test, perhaps because it involves as much reasoning as it does compu-tational skills. Read through the Red Alert and answer the questions.
Lesson 2
Mathematics ReviewThis is the home stretch. Complete unit on Data Analysis. Now it’s time to move on to the practice tests and evaluate your progress.
Week 7
Lesson 1
Analytical Writing Measure Practice Test 1This is a somewhat difficult portion of the test, unless you’re an excellent writer. Write the two essays that are presented here. Check your response against the sample response.
Lesson 2
Analytical Writing Measure Practice Test 2Write the two essays that are presented here. Check your response against the sample response.
Week 8
Lesson 1
Verbal Ability Practice TestsTake the two tests and answer all of the questions you can, and then guess at those you don’t know. Circle those questions that you guessed at, so that you can zero in on those specific answers and so that you don’t delude yourself into thinking that you really knew those answers in the first place. There is a lot of work here, so it would make sense to break this and subsequent lessons into separate time periods during the day.
It is more important to understand the type of question and to make sure you have memorized the directions for every part of the test. Check all of your answers. Keep track of those types of questions that are still giving you problems.
Lesson 2
Quantitative Ability Practice TestsTake the two Mathematics tests and answer all of the questions you can. Again, circle those questions that you guessed at, so that you can zero in on those specific answers. Try to break this lesson into two separate mini-lessons.
Check all of your answers to all parts of the test.
Week 9
Lesson 1
GRE Diagnostic Test on CDTake the GRE CAT Diagnostic Test. Keep a written record of what types of questions gave you problems.
Lesson 2
GRE Untimed Practice Test on CDTake the GRE CAT Untimed Practice Test. Keep a written record of what types of questions gave you problems.
Week 10
Lesson 1
GRE CAT Test on CDThis is the computer-adaptive Practice Test. By now, you should be ready for this test-taking format. Carefully check your understanding of the answers. Take the test as many times as you need.
Lesson 2
Final ReviewIt’s time to do a final review of your understanding of all of the parts of the tests. Try to analyze everything you’ve learned by using the book and taking the paper-and-pencil and the CAT tests. What’s left to review? Consult your notes and go back to the book to reread whatever you had trouble with.
THE 20-WEEK PLAN—
1 Lesson Per Week
If you have the luxury of time, the 20-Week Plan will enable you to better utilize your study time. You can spread out your plan into one lesson a week. This plan is ideal because you are not under any pressure and can take more time to review the material in the Red Alert chapters. You will also have enough time to go back and double-check the answers to those questions that might have given you problems. The basis for all test success is practice, practice, practice.
THE PANIC PLAN
Not everyone has the time to study in the proper way for the GRE. School pressures may be great or your job may monopolize your time. You can’t do everything at once. With this in mind, perhaps we can offer a few helpful hints to get you through this period.
1. Read through the ETS test booklet and this GRE CAT Success book and memorize the directions. We’ve said it earlier, and it bears repeating. It’s a way of saving time when you take the actual test and of maximizing the time you have to work on the questions. 2. Read the introduction to this book. It will help you be prepared for the different types of
questions you will encounter and give you an idea of how much time you will have on each section of the test.
3. If you don’t have time to take the CATs, take the paper-and-pencil diagnostic GRE test as well as the Practice Tests at the end of this book. By doing so, you will have had some practice answering the types of questions that will appear on the actual test.
4. Try to take as many of the GRE CATs as you can. It will be great practice, not only for understanding how the test works, but also for more computer experience.
5. Focus whatever time you have left on those specific areas of the test that gave you the most difficulty when you took the practice tests in this book.
Whatever time you have before the exam, keep in mind that the more you practice on the actual question types that will appear on the exam, the better you will come to understand them, thereby improving your chances for a higher score.
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Diagnostic Test
ANALYTICAL WRITING MEASURE
Directions:Present your perspective on one of the issues below, using relevant reasons and/or examples to support your views. (Note: On page 27, a sample response is provided for the first issue only. While your essay will be quite
different, compare it to the sample in terms of organization, grammar, and logic.) “Students would benefit if they worked in groups rather than working alone on major class projects.”
“In today’s technological world, printed books are not as important as they once were. The computer has replaced the printed page.”
Directions:Discuss how well reasoned you find this argument. Time—30 minutes.
The following advertisement appeared in a big-city want-ad section:
“In a dead-end job? Tired of being bossed around? Want the independent lifestyle of being in business for yourself? Then telemarketing is for you! Work in the privacy of your own home, inviting clients to take advantage of our tremendous super-values, money-savers, coupon specials, and one-time-only offers! No time clock! No quotas! No deadlines! Work from our huge list of potential customers, right at your own desk or easy chair (or stay in bed!). Starter kit, first client list, phone dialogue check-off list, tips on how to keep them interested, what to do about cranks and hang-ups—the whole package comes to your mailbox in five days! Send $29.99 for your passport to financial paradise! This is how you can start being in charge of your life.”
VERBAL ABILITY
SENTENCE COMPLETION
Directions: Each of the following sentences has one or two blanks, indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. In a fit of ______, the ______ child, tired of waiting, whined to his mother that he no longer wanted the baseball player’s autograph.
(A) exhaustion. .unruly
(B) pique. .petulant
(C) crying. .apathetic
(D) rage. .indifferent
(E) insouciance. .vexed
2. Attracted to ______ at celebrations, the ______ manager fortunately resided in the building where he attended parties.
(A) charades. .aesthetic
(B) canapés. .zany
(C) potables. .bibulous
(D) parsimony. .execrable
(E) fustian. .stupefied
3. ______ by the ______ graduation requirements, the student diligently prepared for the upcoming examination.
(A) Dissuaded. .negligible
(B) Persuaded. .acrimonious
(C) Undismayed. .marginal
(D) Undaunted. .stringent
(E) Aghast. .picayune
4. Because of his ______ record of lying to police, the suspect was regarded as a(n) ______ criminal. (A) irascible. .disputatious (B) chaste. .incorrigible (C) circuitous. .insipid (D) inveterate. .habitual (E) crass. .impecunious VERBAL ABILITY 11
5. In a child’s early years, he is ______, accepting instruction and quickly learning new skills; however, by adolescence, this same child is typically not as ______. (A) quixotic. .pragmatic (B) fulsome. .acquiescent (C) docile. .malleable (D) sybaritic. .facetious (E) resilient. .truant
6. Since the terms of the proposed agreement between the vendors were ______, both businessmen were ______ and hesitant to sign.
(A) benign. .edified (B) recondite. .stymied (C) vaunted. .nebulous (D) equivocal. .exigent (E) irrefutable. .fallow
ANTONYMS
Directions: Each item below consists of a word printed in capital letters, followed by five lettered words or phrases. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is more nearly opposite in meaning from the word in capital letters. Since some of the questions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding which one is best.
1. ANATHEMA (A) boon (B) fear (C) curse (D) virulent (E) allergic 2. TAWDRY (A) salacious (B) immune (C) prized (D) odious (E) gaudy 3. ACERBIC (A) torrid (B) synthetic (C) indifferent (D) mellifluous (E) nefarious DIAGNOSTIC TEST
4. PUSILLANIMOUS (A) valorous (B) obliterated (C) satiated (D) captious (E) abstruse 5. SURFEIT (A) prosaic (B) paucity (C) succulence (D) sluggish (E) vacancy 6. SEDITION (A) treason (B) ignorance (C) patriotism (D) perfidy (E) havoc 7. REVERENCE (A) harbinger (B) presentiment (C) amulet (D) contempt (E) quotidian 8. INCHOATE (A) galactic (B) opulent (C) plenary (D) verdant (E) neophyte 9. SOPORIFIC (A) fatiguing (B) hypnotic (C) stimulating (D) innocuous (E) prodigious VERBAL ABILITY 13
READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on the content. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.
P
ASSAGE1
Line There is some evidence to suggest that Neanderthals were cannibalistic. The cave dwellers, who lived as long as 125,000 years ago, were an important link in the evolution of humankind. They had brains as large as modern man and developed a “culture” of their own that included the burying of their dead with perhaps a religious ceremonial aspect attached to the custom. In addition, they made jewelry-like ornaments that demonstrate a sense of creativity and aestheticism. However, in a recent report in Science magazine, there is evidence presented that shows that Neanderthals may have slaughtered some of their numbers and actually butchered them for the meat.
Since Neanderthals were cave-dwellers, the evidence was discovered in one such cave near the Rhone River in France. Shockingly enough, human bones were found that bore the signs of deliberate butchering. The bones were from adults, teenagers, and even children of six or seven years of age and were 100,000 years old. They were found next to deer bones. Not unlike those bones, the human bones showed signs of slashes at the joints like the elbow, foot, and ankle, indicating that muscles and tendons were deliberately cut to facilitate the removal of “meat.” Flint could have been used for this purpose. Some bones had been smashed to remove their marrow, and skulls had been broken to remove the brains.
Although this likelihood of cannibalism is substantiated by this ancient evidence, what cannot be proven is whether it was a regularly practiced custom among the Neanderthals to methodically slaughter their own kind or only practice cannibalism out of the necessity caused by famine. While many cultures through-out time and from around the world have placed a taboo on such practices, instances of cannibalism have occurred as tradition, religious ritual, or out of necessity in other places and eras. The “practice” of the Neanderthals may be one of the earliest precedence for such behavior and forever taint the image of early man as a primitive brute rather than the growing consensus that they, with a brain as large as contemporary man, were more like us than not.
1. The burying of the dead with an attendant religious ceremony would be a benchmark of cultural development because it is
(A) typical of most species to acknowledge mortality and mourn the
passing of their own kind.
(B) a ritual that has been practiced historically by humans in many cultures
throughout the world.
(C) foreign to all species that have been observed in nature.
(D) indicative of a species with the brain size of modern man.
(E) atypical of cave dwellers from the same region and time in France.
DIAGNOSTIC TEST 5 10 15 20 25
2. As used in line 6 “aestheticism” most closely means (A) the ability to manipulate metals.
(B) a capacity to polish gem stones.
(C) an ability to evaluate the financial worth of objects.
(D) an appreciation of beauty.
(E) both (A) and (B).
3. The evidence of cannibalism is supported by the fact that the bones were (A) found near the bones of deer.
(B) completely lacking tendons, muscle, and flesh.
(C) scorched from being burned over an open fire.
(D) those of children and teenagers.
(E) cut at the joints.
4. The main point of the article is that Neanderthals did practice cannibalism as (A) supported by evidence that was discovered.
(B) part of their culture.
(C) a necessity because of famine.
(D) a religious ritual.
(E) a regularly practiced custom or out of need.
P
ASSAGE2
Line In a seemingly repeating cycle, two diet “fads” seem to follow one another; the Low-Carb (carbohydrate) approach versus the High-Carb method. Currently, the former is the one in vogue with millions of people across the America eating a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. So bring on the bacon, ham, eggs, cheese and any other high-fat food, but eliminate as many carbohydrates as possible like pasta, bread, fruit, soda, and high-sugar alcoholic beverages.
The many versions of Low-Carb diets decrease carbohydrates, thereby, causing blood-sugar levels to fall. This causes the pancreas to produce less insulin. Insulin stimulates energy and without this resource, the body is forced to burn fat reserves to create needed energy. The result is a quick loss in weight. Conversely, when one eats carbohydrates they are reduced by enzymes into simple sugars. These sugars stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which allows sugars to enter tissue. Although cells use the sugar for energy, the excess sugars are stored as fat. Since many Americans, especially young people, have high-sugar diets, most of the excess is stored as fat. If blood levels can be dropped low enough, the body will burn this excess fat. While this mechanism is agreed upon by many scientists, there is some disagreement about how people lose weight on Low-Carb diets.
Most people who write the diet books are not medical doctors and have come under criticism for not understanding the process of weight loss and the harmful effects of Low-Carb, high-protein diets. According to some doctors and scientists, the reason why people lose weight on these diets is that by reducing the ingestion of carbs, there is a corresponding reduction in caloric intake; therefore, people are simply consuming less calories. Similarly, since Americans traditionally have eaten so much sugar and sugar products, when the consumption of those are reduced, caloric intake is lessened, and it results in a weight loss. In addition to the misunderstandings regarding the process of weight loss, these
VERBAL ABILITY 5 10 15 20 25 15
same doctors and scientists contend that a Low-Carb, high-protein diet can be harmful in a number of significant ways. The lack of fiber in the diet can cause constipation, weakness, nausea, as well as dehydration. Also, the high-protein diet is a great strain on the kidneys. These are major bad health effects compared to the additional side-effect of halitosis (bad breath).
The important thing to remember about “diets” is that unless they involve a change of lifestyle that can be maintained for a lifetime, they are just a “quick fix” for short-term weight loss, not a solution to an ongoing problem. In addition, even some of these short-term solutions can affect health adversely, so when one considers a change in eating habits, consulting a doctor who is a specialist in this area would be beneficial.
1. A Low-Carb diet affects the blood sugar level by
(A) having enzymes reduce the blood sugar into simple sugars, which are
more readably burned.
(B) causing the pancreas to produce less insulin, thereby lowering the
blood sugar level and the energy level.
(C) stimulating the pancreas to produce more insulin to burn excess fat
that has been stored.
(D) allowing excess sugars to be secreted so they can’t be stored as excess
fat in the cells of the body.
(E) lowering it through lack of absorption of sugar by the cells in tissue. 2. The passage implies that the debate between designers of these diets and doctors and scientists centers on the process of weight loss and adverse effects on health in regards to
(A) whether excess fat is burned or there is simply less intake of calories.
(B) the kinds of adverse health effects that may result.
(C) which diet, Low-Carb or High-Carb, is more effective for weight loss.
(D) both (B) and (C)
(E) both (A) and (B)
3. The main point of the article is that
(A) no one should try to alter their diet in an attempt to lose weight.
(B) doctors and scientists disagree with the writers of diet books.
(C) the mechanism by which Low-Carb diets work is debatable.
(D) reduction of caloric intake will result in weight loss.
(E) any change in diet must be one that can be maintained for a lifetime. 4. The overall tone of the article can be described as
(A) informative and whimsical.
(B) adversarial but supportive.
(C) informative but cautionary.
(D) supportive but cautionary.
(E) adversarial and whimsical.
DIAGNOSTIC TEST
30
ANALOGIES
Directions: In each of the following questions, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by five lettered pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
1. AMICABLE : CHARISMA :: (A) perspicacious : perception (B) stylish : panache (C) ductile : refractory (D) prolix : taciturnity (E) turgid : drought 2. DOG : CANINE :: (A) feline : cat (B) porcine : pig (C) fish : aquarium (D) vulture : vulpine (E) bear : ursine 3. SCONCE : CANDLE :: (A) rack : framework (B) citadel : dragon (C) dormer : roof (D) well : ink (E) liter : grain 4. TENACIOUS : HOLD :: (A) fortuitous : unlucky (B) wary : rash (C) tapering : invigorate (D) enervating : weaken (E) vacillating : vivify 5. METICULOUS : MESSY :: (A) particular : finicky (B) military : precise (C) pacific : muddled (D) vitriolic : scathing (E) fastidious : slovenly VERBAL ABILITY 17
6. TROWEL : MASON :: (A) artist : brush (B) spade : gardener (C) spatula : bartender (D) needle : farrier (E) decoupage : writer 7. VERACITY : FALSEHOOD :: (A) submission : subjugation (B) truth : probity (C) recalcitrant : amiable (D) slake : thirst (E) carnage : accident DIAGNOSTIC TEST
MATHEMATICS
Directions: Each of the questions 1–14 consists of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. You are to compare the two quantities and choose:
(A) if the quantity in Column A is greater; (B) if the quantity in Column B is greater; (C) if the two quantities are equal;
(D) if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Note: Since there are only four choices, NEVER MARK (E).
Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures: Position of points, angles, regions, etc., can be assumed to be in the order shown; and angle measures can be assumed to be positive.
Lines shown as straight can be assumed to be straight.
Figures can be assumed to lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
Figures that accompany questions are intended to provide information useful in an-swering the questions. However, unless a note states that a figure is drawn to scale, you should solve these problems NOT by estimating sizes by sight or by measure-ment, but by using your knowledge of mathematics.
Column A Column B
A, B, C, D, and E are consecutive even integers
1. A 18 E
2. A number between 10 and 20 A number between 15 and 25
MATHEMATICS
19
Column A Column B x 57 y 5 22 3. x2y x 2 y ABCDis a square AB 53 4. AC 5 5.
=
17 1=
32=
49 6. z 2 3z DIAGNOSTIC TESTColumn A Column B
The average of w, x, y, and z is 28, and w 1 x 5 56.
7. w 1 x y 1 z x21 x 5 20 8. x 5 a . c 9. CB AC 10. 0.81
=
0.81 a is 4 times b. 11. a b b a MATHEMATICS 21Column A Column B (9)(27)(81) 5 3x 12. x 8 (p 1 q)35 64 p . 0, q , 0 13. ?p? ?q?
Angles A and B are complementary
14. x 12
Directions: Each of the questions 15–28 has five answer choices. For each of these questions, select the best of the answer choices given.
15. What percent of 25 is
=
25? (A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 331 3% (D) 50% (E) 75%16. In the equation p 5 qr, if q is multiplied by 7 and r is divided by 7, then
pis (A) multiplied by 7 (B) multiplied by 49 (C) divided by 7 (D) divided by 49 (E) left unchanged
17. The price of a cassette deck was increased from $90 to $120. This repre-sents what percent of increase in the price of the cassette deck?
(A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 331 3% (D) 75% (E) 1331 3%
18. How many minutes would it take a typist to complete a 300-word letter if he can type 21 2words in 10 seconds? (A) 2 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20 (E) 25
19. What is the value of 2x32 y21 z if x 5 22, y 5 21, and z 5 3?
(A) 213 (B) 26 (C) 24 (D) 10 (E) 12 MATHEMATICS 23
20. In the figure above, PQRS is a parallelogram. If a 5 50, then what is the value of b? (A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 65 (D) 70 (E) 100
21. Four managers at Shop-Well receive incentive bonuses. The total amount of money available for the four bonuses is $32,000. If Manager A gets $9,000, and Manager B gets $2,000 more than each of Managers C and D, what is the amount of Manager C’s bonus?
(A) $5,000
(B) $6,000
(C) $7,000
(D) $7,500
(E) $8,000
22. If WXYZ is a four-digit number that is divisible by 2 and by 5, what is the value of Z? (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) It cannot be determined.
23. If xy Þ 0 and 15xy22 10xy35 0, what is the value of y? (A) 2 3 (B) 3 2 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 6 DIAGNOSTIC TEST
Questions 24–28 refer to the following graphs.
24. What was the amount of student aid provided through federal loans during the 2000–2001 academic year?
(A) $11,280,000
(B) $32,400,000
(C) $3,240,000,000
(D) $11,280,000,000
(E) $32,400,000,000
25. By what percent did the amount of total aid awarded increase from the 1990–1991 academic year to the 2000–2001 academic year?
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 150%
(E) 250%
26. Which of the following best describes the change in the amount of aid provided by state grants from the 1990–1991 academic year to the 2000– 2001 academic year?
(A) It remained constant.
(B) It decreased slightly.
(C) It increased slightly.
(D) It more than doubled.
(E) It more than quadrupled.
MATHEMATICS
25
27. How much more grant money was awarded through other federal programs than through federal campus-based aid during the 1990–1991 academic year? (A) $0.36 billion (B) $0.48 billion (C) $3.6 billion (D) $4.8 billion (E) $48 billion
28. By approximately what percent did the amount of money awarded through Federal Pell Grants increase from the 1990–1991 academic year to the 2000–2001 academic year? (A) 38% (B) 42% (C) 52% (D) 56% (E) 62% DIAGNOSTIC TEST
Quick Score Answers
Verbal Ability Sentence
Completion Antonyms
Reading
Comprehension Analogies Mathematics
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. C Passage 1 1. B 2. D 3. E 4. E Passage 2 1. B 2. E 3. E 4. C 1. B 2. E 3. D 4. D 5. E 6. B 7. C 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. E 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. E 25. D 26. D 27. B 28. D
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
A
NALYTICALW
RITINGM
EASURESample Response to First Issue—Score 5–6
The statement “Students would benefit if they worked in groups rather than working alone on major class projects” is a valid one for many reasons. In the era of technological advancement in classroom resources and equipment and an increasing multicultural environment in the classroom, it is especially important for students of any age to learn to utilize all available resources, especially their peers, when in an academic setting. In the following essay, I will explain three central reasons why students should, in fact, spend a sizeable amount of time working together in groups in the classroom, especially on large projects.
First, students who begin major academic projects in groups or teams develop one of the most common and most serviceable skills for idea generation—brainstorming. Partici-pating in brainstorming sessions allows students to learn to think creatively, to think quickly, and to interact appropriately with peers. Brainstorming is usually a flurry of ideas at first, then a redefining of those ideas, discussion of why an idea will or will not work, exclusion of ideas that the group believes will not work, and finally, a group decision that delineates the assigned project. Skills built by brainstorming are teamwork, listening, critical thinking, logic, compromise, communication, and organization.
Second, working as a group to test ideas or points of view is beneficial. Knowledge of the assigned project, researching skills, and reporting of ideas are all essential tasks that major academic projects require. Students working within a group or team must use their individual knowledge, research, and reporting to enhance the group project. Personal gain is a secondary benefit to the responsibility to the team. Peer pressure compels individuals to bring only their best attributes to the team project. Knowing that each idea or issue
QUICK SCORE ANSWERS
27
will be tested by the group encourages students to clearly and concisely communicate ideas and research to the team.
Third, the skills discussed above allow students to practice proficiencies that will be useful in almost any career. Placing students in situations that emulate workplaces
promotes positive reinforcement of appropriate communication skills, problem-solving facility, teamwork, compromise, and the organization and completion of both small and large tasks. Instead of reading about the workplace in a solitary assignment, students actually practice workplace skills with their group. This promotes successful activity on the job once a student has begun a career.
Of course, there are benefits to individual research and learning as well. Research can be conducted at the student’s own pace, the student can choose projects that are of great interest to him or her, and individual accomplishment is certainly a self-esteem booster for most students. However, group projects challenge the student to discover ways to learn in different styles from what he or she is used to, thereby expanding the methods of learning. Also, working in groups helps students develop problem-solving skills, since not all students are working at the same pace with the same ideas, or in the same manner. Flexibility, empathy, and responsibility are all important aspects of group learning.
For the reasons listed above, I believe that it is essential that students spend a sizeable amount of time working together in groups in the classroom. The benefits far outweigh the negative aspects, and teamwork in the classroom promotes involvement, skill building, and a sense of accomplishment.
V
ERBALA
BILITYSentence Completion
1. The correct answer is (B). Pique means “irritation” or “resentment,” while
petulantmeans “peevish.” The context clue in this sentence is “whined.”
Choice (A), exhaustion and unruly, can describe a child’s condition; however, to say “a fit of exhaustion” is illogical. In choice (C), if the child were crying, then he would not be apathetic, or “without interest or feeling.” Choice (D) offers a similar contrast. Rage does not accompany indifference. Choice (E), insouciance, or “lighthearted nonchalance,” does not logically exist with vexed, which means “irritated.”
2. The correct answer is (C). In this sentence, “celebrations” and “parties” are
context clues. Potables refer to “something suitable for drinking”; bibulous means “inclined to drink.” In choice (A), charades is a party game; aesthetic refers to “beauty.” In choice (B), canapés are cocktail food; zany means “goofy.” In choice (D), parsimony refers to “stinginess” while execrable means “detestable.” In choice (E), fustian is a “pretentious writing or speech” while stupefied means “astonished.”
3. The correct answer is (D). “Diligently prepared” suggests hard work. In choice
(D), undaunted means “undiscouraged” while stringent means “very strict.” The original sentence, then, suggests that the student takes into account the strict requirements for graduation and works hard. In choice (A), dissuaded means “advised against,” while negligible means “insignificant.” This pair does not logically complete the sentence. Neither does the pair in choice (B). Persuaded has a positive connotation, but acrimonious, which means “caustic,” has a negative connotation. The choices in (C) begin well: undismayed is appropriate for a “diligent” student; however, marginal suggests the requirements are so easy, the student does not need to study much. In choice (E), aghast means “horrified,” while picayune means “trivial.” These words are paired illogically.
4. The correct answer is (D). This kind of sentence can often be approached by
inserting some words that you can think of that will logically fit the context; then see if your choices—or at least one of them—are among those offered. Choice (D) presents inveterate, meaning “chronic” or “confirmed”; habitual is a close synonym. The choices offered in the other items are not logically paired to complete these blanks. Choice (A), irascible, means “bad tempered” while disputatious means “controversial.” In choice (B), chaste means “pure,” while incorrigible means “unmanageable.” Choice (C) offers circuitous, which means “roundabout,” and
insipid, which means “tasteless” or “dull.” Choice (E) presents crass, which means “gross” or “insensitive,” and impecunious, which means “penniless.”
5. The correct answer is (C). The context clues here are “child’s early years,” which
contrast “adolescence.” Choice (C) offers docile, which means “easily taught,” and
malleable, which means “adaptable” or “flexible.” Choice (A) offers quixotic, which means “imaginary” and “idealistic to an extreme degree”—like Don Quixote, from whose name the word is derived—and pragmatic, which means “practical.” In choice (B), fulsome means “disgusting,” while acquiescent means “agreeable.” In choice (D), sybaritic means “sensual” and facetious means “humorous.” Choice (E) offers resilient, which means “pliant,” and truant, which refers to someone who stays out of school without permission.
6. The correct answer is (B). The context clue is “hesitant.” Choice (B) presents
recondite, which means “hard to understand,” and stymied, which means “per-plexed” or “confused.” Choice (A) begins with benign, which means “harmless,” and
edified, which means “educated.” Choice (C) offers vaunted, which means “boast-ful,” and nebulous, which means “vague.” Choice (D) has equivocal, which looks like a likely choice; it means “undecided,” but exigent means “demanding.” Choice (E) presents irrefutable, which means “undeniable,” and fallow, which means “idle” or “left unplanted.”
Antonyms
1. The correct answer is (A). Anathema means “curse.” Choice (A), boon, means
“gift.” Notice that curse, the synonym for anathema, is one of the choices. Watch for this practice of including synonyms among the choices so that you won’t be misled. Choice (D), virulent, means “noxious, full of poison.” The other choices are irrelevant.
2. The correct answer is (C). Tawdry means “gaudy” or “cheap.” Choice (A),
salacious,means “lascivious” or “lewd.” Choice (D), odious, means “hateful.” See again the synonym gaudy among the choices.
3. The correct answer is (D). Mellifluous means “honey-toned” or “sweetly flowing.”
Acerbicmeans “bitter” or “harsh.” Choice (A), torrid, means “very hot” or “scorch-ing.” Choice (E), nefarious, means “wicked.”
4. The correct answer is (A). Pusillanimous means “cowardly.” Valorous is “heroic.”
Choice (B), obliterated, means “destroyed.” Choice (C), satiated, means “glutted.” Choice (D), captious, means “highly critical.” Choice (E), abstruse, means “difficult to comprehend.”
5. The correct answer is (B). Surfeit means “excess,” while paucity means “a lack
of” or “dearth.” Choice (A), prosaic, means “ordinary.” Choice (C), succulence, means “juiciness.” Choice (D), sluggish, means “moving slowly.”
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
29
6. The correct answer is (C). Sedition means “treason,” which is listed first among
the choices. Choice (D), perfidy, is closely related to sedition; it means “treachery.” Choice (E), havoc, means “commotion” or “pandemonium.”
7. The correct answer is (D). Contempt means “disdain.” Choice (A), harbinger, is a
“forerunner” or “hint of what is to come.” Choice (B), presentiment, also means “omen.” Choice (C), amulet, is a “fetish” or “magic charm.” Choice (E), quotidian, means “daily.”
8. The correct answer is (C), Plenary means “full” or “complete.” Inchoate means
“imperfectly formed” or “incipient.” Choice (A), galactic, pertains to the galaxy; choice (E), neophyte, is a “beginner.” Choice (D), verdant, means “lush and green.” Choice (B), opulent, means “rich” or “wealthy.”
9. The correct answer is (C). Soporific means “sleep-inducing.” Choice (D),
innocu-ous, means “harmless.” Choice (E), prodigious, means “gigantic.”
Reading Comprehension
Passage 1
1. The correct answer is (B). Choice (B) establishes the burying of the dead and an
attendant religious ceremony to commemorate it as a common practice among diverse cultures throughout the world. Choice (A) is incorrect because it is common knowledge that it is not typical behavior for most species to practice such a ritual. Choice (C) is incorrect because of the key word “all.” Often in multiple-choice questions, answers that state something categorically are not the right choice. Choice (C), therefore, makes too sweeping an assertion. Choice (D) is incorrect; although the Neanderthal had brains as large as modern man, there is no direct correlation between that fact and the burying of the dead with religious ceremony. Choice (E) is incorrect because although cannibalism may be the aberration in light of the new evidence discovered, burying the dead may or may not have been a common practice.
2. The correct answer is (D). The ornaments are not functional in nature but meant to
be appreciated as an expression of creativity and for their beauty. Choices (A) and (B) are incorrect because although they fit the context of “jewelry” in the sense that some jewelry consists of metals and/or gem stones and the ability to manipulate those materi-als, there is no mention of such materials in the article. Choice (C) is incorrect because in the context of Neanderthal “culture,” one can infer that there is not a monetary structure to evaluate worth. Choice (E) is incorrect because both choices have been eliminated as stated above.
3. The correct answer is (E). It states in paragraph two that the cuts at the joints
facilitated the removal of meat by cutting through tendons and muscle. Choice (A) is incorrect because it is not conclusive evidence just because the deer bones were a source of meat, too. Choice (B) is incorrect because the bones would lack all of that matter because of their age. Choice (C) is incorrect because nowhere in the article does it mention the bones being scorched. Choice (D) is incorrect because it implies that the young were eaten by the old; however, bones of adults were also found, and all showed signs of cannibalism.
4. The correct answer is (E). Researchers can only speculate as to whether
cannibal-ism among the Neanderthals was a regularly practiced custom or done out of need because of famine. While choices (A) and (B) are true, they are incomplete because they cannot definitively prove whether cannibalism was a custom or a necessity. Choice (C) is incorrect because it falsely states that famine was the cause of cannibal-ism; that relationship was not clearly established in the article. Choice (D) is
incorrect because although Neanderthals perhaps had a religious observance of death, this is not always connected to the practice of cannibalism.
Passage 2
1. The correct answer is (B). In paragraph two, the process by which the blood
sugar is lowered is described. Choice (A) is incorrect. Although it correctly states that the blood sugar level is reduced, the process is misstated. Choice (C) is incor-rect because it mistakenly states that the pancreas increases the production of insulin to burn excess fat. Choice (D) is incorrect because nowhere in the article is there an explanation regarding secretions. In paragraph three, there is mention of the adverse affect of this diet on the kidneys, but not in relation to the secretion of sugars to induce weight loss. Choice (E) is incorrect. Although it correctly refers to the lowering of the blood sugar, it misstates the process.
2. The correct answer is (E). Choices (A) and (B) are incorrect because they only
state one main discrepancy between the designers of the diets and the doctors and scientists. Choice (C) is incorrect because a Low-Carb diet is mentioned only briefly and is not compared to a High-Carb diet in terms of effectiveness. Choice (D) is incorrect. As a general “rule,” usually when there is a choice that combines choices, it is the correct choice. However, choice (D), although combining choices like choice (E), incorporates choice (C), which was already determined to be incorrect.
3. The correct answer is (E). Often, the main point of a piece of writing will be in
the concluding paragraph as it is in this example. Choice (A) is incorrect. Although the article is cautionary in regards to “fad” diets, it is not adverse to a change in diet for better health. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Although they are state-ments that are made in the article, no one of them represents the main point. They provide the evidence that supports the main point.
4. The correct answer is (C). The first three paragraphs are informative and lead to
the cautionary stance that is stated in the last paragraph. Choices (A) and (E) are incorrect because the term “whimsical” (fanciful, unpredictable) does not relate to this article at all. Choice (B) is incorrect because the article is adversarial but does not conclude by supporting a High-Carb diet. Choice (D) is incorrect because the tone is not supportive but cautionary.
Analogies
1. The correct answer is (B). A person who has charisma is amicable. In choice (B),
the same relationship exists: a person who has panache, which means “verve,” is
stylish. In choice (A), perspicacious means “keen” or “insightful”; someone with
perceptionis perspicacious. However, notice that the order has been reversed in this item. Watch out for this technique. In choice (C), ductile means “easily molded,” which is the opposite of refractory, meaning “stubborn.” In choice (D), prolix means “wordy,” which is the opposite of taciturnity, meaning “silence.” In choice (E), turgid means “swollen,” while drought means “dry” or “without water.”
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
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