3. CPFF 4. Fixed Cost
225. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project Management is in progress.
1. Request Seller Process 2. Plan Contracting 3. Select Sellers
4. Contract Administration
226. Process Analysis is a function of:
1. Performance Analysis 2. Quality Metrics
3. Process Improvement Plan 4. Quality Improvement Plan
227. Root Cause Analysis relates to:
1. Process Analysis
2. Quality Audits
3. Quality Control Measurements 4. Performance Measurements
228. Trend Analysis is often performed using:
1. Cause and Effect Diagram 2. Control Charts
3. Pareto Chart 4. Run Chart 5. Scatter Diagram
229. A Pareto diagram can be best described as:
1. Cause and Effect Diagram 2. Scatter Chart
3. Control Chart 4. Histogram
230. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings.
The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example of:
1. Inspection
2. Statistical Sampling 3. Flowcharting 4. Control Charting
231. Reserve Analysis a technique NOT used in:
1. Cost Estimating 2. Cost Budgeting 3. Cost Control
4. Estimating Activity Duration
232. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?
1. Cost Variance
2. Management Overhead
3. Management Contingency Reserve 4. Schedule Variance
233. Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:
1. Develop Project Management Plan process 2. Cost Estimating process
3. Cost Budgeting process 4. Cost Control process
234. A particular project in the domain of civil construction requires that every on-site worker be insured. Which of the following inputs BEST conveys this requirement to the Cost
Estimation process so that the insurance cost is estimated and subsequently budgeted:
1. Enterprise Environmental Factor 2. Organizational Process Assets 3. Project Scope Statement 4. Project Management Plan
235. _____________ is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget:
1. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve 2. Management Contingency Reserve 3. Management Overheads
4. Project Management Planing
236. ___________ is not part of the Earned Value calculations.
1. Known Unknowns 2. Unknown Unknowns 3. Project Budget
4. Amount of work completed
237. What is the BEST way to make an accurate forecasting of ETC?
1. Manual Forecasting of cost of remaining work.
2. BAC – EV 3. (BAC – EV)/CPI 4. EAC - AC
238. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:
1. Project is on budget and on schedule 2. Schedule Variance Index is 1 3. There is no schedule variance 4. There is no cost variance
239. Trend Analysis is BEST described as:
1. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time 2. Examining project performance over time
3. Calculating Earned Value 4. Calculating Cost Variance
240. Which of the following is not done as part of Performance Measurements?
1. Calculating Planned Value 2. Calculating Earned Value 3. Calculating ETC
4. Calculating Cost Varianc6e
Answers:
221. C.
222. D.
223. A.
224. A.
225. A.
226. C.
227. A.
228. D.
229. D.
230. B.
231. C 232. C 233. A 234. C 235. B 236. B 237. A 238. D 239. B 240. B
241. Jeff always delivers his projects on time and within budget. He believes that his success can be explained by the fact that he makes all of the project decisions himself and then enforces those decisions with an iron hand. His management style is best described by A. Kurt Lewin’s Force Field theory.
B. McGregor’s Theory X.
C. Elizabeth Duffy’s Arousal Theory.
D. McGregor’s Theory Y.
242. One of the following items is not used in assessing the completion of the project scope.
Which one?
A. The product requirements.
B. The project management plan.
C. The project scope statement.
D. The WBS and WBS dictionary.
243. Hard logic is also known as A. Mandatory dependencies B. Preferred dependencies C. External dependencies D. Discretionary dependencies
244. Contract negotiation is the process
A. of clarifying and developing a mutual agreement on the structure and requirements of the contract.
B. of clarifying and developing a mutual agreement on the responsibilities and authorities that will govern contract administration.
C. in which parties with different interests reach an acceptable agreement through communication and compromise.
D. bargaining with the seller concerning resources, information and activities in order to come to terms that can be incorporated into the final contract.
245. A checklist is
A. an ordered listing of quality items that must be verified before the quality control step is completed.
B. an inspection list that is used when no evidence exists that the quality level of the product being submitted is better or worse than the specified quality level.
C. a technical list of measured variables or counted data for decision making in a quality process review.
D. a structured tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.
246. Developing the answers to questions such as “Who needs what information”, “What form is appropriate” and “Who is responsible for its preparation” is part of which process?
A. Communications planning B. Information distribution C. Project plan execution D. Scope planning
247. Questions such as “What products are available in the marketplace” and “What is the current balance between supply and demand” are related to what input to procurement planning?
A. Availability assessment.
B. Cost/benefit analysis.
C. Market conditions.
D. Competitive fit analysis.
248. Inspections are
A. a statistical sampling and examination.
B. activities undertaken to determine whether results conform to requirements.
C. recorded data concerning the results of inspection actions.
D. performed during the manufacturing or repair cycle to help prevent defects from occurring.
249. Which process in integration management uses inputs from the largest number of of other PMBoK processes?
A. Develop Project Management Plan.
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution.
C. Monitor and Control Project Work.
D. Integrated Change Control.
250. The cost baseline is usually not changed unless
A. the basis for the original cost estimate is found to be false and the project must be re-estimated.
B. significant cost deviations have been reported and it is desired to have future cost reports be based on an “as of” date.
C. the revision is the result of an approved scope change.
D. the time baseline is also changed.
251. Qualitative numbers A. cannot be measured numerically.
B. cannot be meaningfully added together.
C. are ones that are measured by reference to a standard that is external to the system.
D. are less reliable than quantitative numbers.
252. In estimating the total amount of material resources required for a project you must first estimate the amount of waste to be expected. You will most likely find this information in which process input?
A. Resource requirements B. Historical information C. Parametric modeling D. Supporting detail
253. Which of the following statements is not true about stakeholder analysis?
A. A methodical and logical view of the stakeholder’s information needs should be made.
B. Care should be taken to include all information that may be of interest to one or more stakeholders.
C. The analysis should consider methods and technolgies suited to the project that will provide the information needed.
D. The sources needed to meet stakeholder information needs should be identified.
254. The project plan is usually developed by
A. senior management of the performing organization.
B. the customer.
C. the project manager.
D. the project management team.
255. Which of the following is not true about error in project quality management?
A. It is an unavoidable component of all project work.
B. It is more costly than the design and planning work that would be necessary to prevent it.
C. It is a source of learning rather than a basis for disciplinary warnings or actions.
D. It is a reflection of inadequate project planning.
256. Which of the following inputs to contract administration is not based on the seller’s work deliverables?
A. Reports on what work has been started, is in progress or is finished.
B. Change requests.
C. Reports on cost, schedule and technical performance.
D. Inspection reports.
257. Doing activities in parallel that would normally be done sequentially in order to achieve project objectives or to deal with resource allocation problems is called
A. Crashing B. Accelerating C. Fast Tracking
D. Objectives management
258. Which of the following is usually not considered a goal of portfolio management?
A. To maximize the value of the portfolio by careful examination of candidate projects and exclusion of those no meeting strategic objectives.
B. To balance the portfolio among incremental and radical investments.
C. To manage the effective and efficient use of resources.
D. To ensure that the relationship between projects in the portfolio clearly reflects strategic objectives.
259. Which of the following is not true about the relationship between the activity definition processes and the WBS?
A. These processes may identify deliverables missing from the WBS B. These processes may identify inaccurate descriptions in the WBS
C. These processes may result in WBS changes that require additional scope definition work.
D. The WBS provides the key input to these processes but is not part of any of its outputs.
260. All of the following are true concerning the product description except A. it is another term for the Statement of Work (SOW).
B. it describes the ultimate end product of the project.
C. it provides important information about any technical issues that are relevant to procurement planning.
D. it is usually included in the Request for Proposal (RFP).
ANSWERS:
241. B, McGregor’s Theory X asserts that the average person dislikes work inherently and that effective management lies in threats, intimidation and minimal involvement of the individual in work decisions. Ward, “McGregor’s Theory X and Y”
242. A, The product requirements are the basis for assessing the completion of the PRODUCT scope.
[5.0]
243. A, “Mandatory dependencies are those that are inherent in the nature of the work being done. … [They] are also sometimes referred to as hard logic.” [6.2.2.4]
244. A, “Contract negotiation clarifies the structure and requirements of the contract so that mutual agreement can be reached prior to signing the contract.” [12.4.2.1]
245. D, “A checklist is a structured tool, usually component-specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.” [8.1.3.3]
246. A, “Communications planning involves determining the information and communication needs of the stakeholders: who needs what information, when they will need it, how it will be given to them, and by whom.” [10.1]
247. C, The procurement planning process must consider what products and services are available in the marketplace, from whom, and under what terms and conditions. [12.1.1.1]
248. B, “An inspection is the examination of a work product to determine whether it conforms to standards.” The standards are derived from the requirements as defined in the scope definition process. [8.3.2.9]
249. A, “Develop Project Management Plan” provides the integration function for all other processes in the planning group. Every planning process therefore potentially provides input to this process. [4.0]
250. C, “Budget updates are changes to an approved cost baseline. These values are generally revised only in response to approved changes in project scope.” [7.3.3.2]
251. B Qualitative numbers may also be measured numerically, so the primary distinction between qualitative and quantitative numbers is that qualitative numbers cannot be meaningfully added together. For example, if two one gallon pails of water are poured into a two gallon container, the density of water in the two gallon container remains at 1.0
252. B Parametric modeling and Supporting detail are not inputs to the cost estimating process.
Resource requirements focuses on the “quantities for each element” rather than the specific question on waste percentage. [7.1.1.2]
253. B “Care should be taken to avoid wasting resources on unnecessary information or inappropriate technology.” The ’tipping’ word in this question that makes it false is “...include ALL information…” [19.1.2.1]
254. D Senior management and the customer may be involved in some aspects of project planning (notably approval) but would not develop the project plan alone. It is an invitation for disaster for the project manager to develop the project plan without input from the team, and normally he or she would delegate significant parts of the technical planning to the team specialists. [4.3]
255. A According to the PMBOK, “The cost of preventing mistakes is always much less than the cost of correcting them…” [8.0]
256. B Change requests are an output of Contract Administration. The input is Approved Change Requests. Change requests will most often originate from the seller and only very rarely because the buyer, based on the work deliverables, wishes to make some change. [12.5.1]
257. C Fast tracking is defined as “A specific project schedule compression technique that changes network logic to overlap phases [or activities] that would normally be done in sequence.” [Glossary]
258. D There is not necessarily a relationship between projects in a portfolio. Answer D is actually one of the goals of PROGRAM management. [1.6.2]
259. D WBS updates are one of the critical outputs of the Activity Definition process. [6.1.2.1, 6.1.3.3]
260. A The product description is generally broader that a statement of work. [12.1.1.2]
hat does RDU stand for?
A. Really Dumb User B. Ready for Download Use C. Remaining Duration unassisted D. Remaining Duration
282. Who is responsible for risk identification, risk quantification, risk response development, risk Monitor and Control?
A. Project Communications Management B. Project human resource Management C. Project Procurement Management D. Project Risk Management
283. Three Point Statistical Estimating Formula Group. Expected Value = A. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) x 6
B. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6 C. (Optimistic + (4 X Most Likely) x Pessimistic ) divided by 6 D. (Optimistic + (4 + Most Likely) + Pessimistic ) divided by 6
284. Two Point Delphi Estimate, The Best and Worst Case effort calculation:
A. Calculate (Best + Worst) / 2 B. Calculate (Best +2 ) / Worst C. Calculate (2 + Worst) / Best D. none of the above
285. What does TQM stand for?
A. Time Quality Managed B. Target Quality Management C. Total Quality Management D. Time Quote Management
286. Examples of Projects include:
A. Implementing a new business procedure or process B. Constructing a building or facility
C. Designing a new transportation vehicle D. All of the Above
287. Projects are undertaken at all levels of the organization?
A. True B. False
C. Both True and False D. Neither true nor false
288. 7. ________ means that every project has a definite beginning and a definite end.
A. Overall B. Project Chart C. Temporary D. Duration
289. The smallest unit of time used in scheduling the project is known as:
A. Calendar Unit B. Scope unit C. Time Measurement D. All of the Above
290. Who should be involved in the project planning phase?
A. The Project Manager.
B. The customer.
C. The Sub-contractors/vendors.
D. The project team members.
E. All of the above.
291. The successful project managers spend most of their time:
A. Planning with their personnel.
B. Planning with top management.
C. Talking with personnel.
D. Studying project results.
292. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) contracts provide:
A. A reimbursement of allowable cost of services performed plus an agreed upon percentage of the estimated cost as profit.
B. A reimbursement of allowable costs plus a fixed fee which is paid proportionately as the contract progresses.
C. The supplier with a fixed price for a delivered performance plus a predetermined fee for superior performance.
D. None of the above.
293. Project success depends on a no. of interrelated factors, including time, cost and scope control. The success of any project depends primarily on:
A. Customer acceptance.
B. Customer satisfaction.
C. Customer compromise in defining its needs.
D. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.
294. Which of the following is the most efficient means of product quality inspection:
A. Acceptance sampling.
B. 100% inspection.
C. Variable lot inspection.
D. A and C.
295. Constructive Team Role includes : A. Investigates, clarifier and closer.
B. Compromise, blocker and closer.
C. Initiate, encourage and gate keeper.
D. Investigates, recognize and summary.
296. Pareto Analysis, cause and effect diagrams and flow charts are used in quality.
A. Control.
B. Assurances.
C. Planning.
D. Verification.
297. In a multi-cultural environment, it is critical to establish a corporate culture that facilitates:
A. Problem-solving through different approaches.
B. Learning and communication.
C. Partnerships, strong alliances and joint ventures.
D. Negotiations.
298. A condition which will lead an organization towards conflict is:
A. Conflict of interest.
B. Differentiation in organization C. Resolved prior conflicts.
D. Both A and B.
E. All of the above.
299. The contemporary view of conflict is that:
A. Conflict is bad.
B. Conflict is caused by trouble makers.
C. Conflict should be avoided.
D. Conflict is often beneficial.
E. A, B and C.
300. In general a project charter covers:
A. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedule, and any imitations that top management wants to apply.
B. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational responsibilities, detailed project schedules, estimates, and detailed procurement schedules responsibilities, a project schedule, and any limitations that top management wants to apply.
C. Project justification, background, scope, objectives, available resources, organizational apply.
D. Project scope, objectives, available resources, responsibilities, a project schedule, estimates, procurement schedules, and any limitations that top management wants to apply.
Answers 281. D 282. D 283. B 284. A 285. C 286. D 287. A 288. C 289. A 290. E 291. C 292. A 293. B 294. A 295. C 296. A 297. B 298. D 299, D 300. D