MODULE 7 : MAINTENANCE PRACTICE 1. Small instrument terminations may be made by
a) Soldering a split wire loop b) Soldering half loop c) Unsoldered split wire loop
2. A suitable cable for use in fire protection system would be? a) Flame
b) Glacial c) Unifire F
3. Heavy duty cable runs can be reduced by using a) Heavy duty relays
b) Lower voltages c) Superior voltages
4. The sequence of tests carried out on an aircraft electrical circuit is always a) Continuity, bonding, functional
b) Continuity, insulation, functional c) Bonding, insulation, continuity
5. The minimum insulation value allowed on a 28V DC machine is a) 2.0 mega ohms
b) 0.2 mega ohms c) 0.5 mega ohms
6. A meter has a resistance of 10000 ohms/volt when selected to the 10V range. Reading 0.5V load is
a) 1 000 ohms b) 100 000 ohms c) 50 000 ohms
7. The conductor in tensile cable a) Copper
b) Silver plated copper c) Nickel plated copper 8. Copper cable fittings are
a) Not fitted to aluminium cables b) Fitted to aluminium cables c) Available in 4-10 A rang only
9. The current rating of 14 gauge cable compared to a 18 gauge cable is a) Less
b) More c) Same
10. The advantage of copper cable is a) High permeability b) No magnetic field
c) Low resistance to current flow 11. Over twisting of multi-strand cable causes
a) The strands to flare b) The diameter to increase
c) A gap between insulation and conductor 12. Bonding is used to
a) Isolate lightning strike damage
b) Isolate components electrically and make static potential constant c) Safely dissipate static discharges
13. When crimping using a hydraulic crimping tool the crimp is completed correctly when a) The pressure relieve valve open
b) The ratchet releases
c) The correct imprint is on the crimp
14. Bonding measurement of a material with an anodic coating the resistance a) Is taken into account
b) The coating must be penetrated c) Is neglible
15. Loss of electrical insulation will show
a) Open circuit between supply and earth b) Open circuit in supply
c) Short circuit between supply and earth 16. Correct bend radius for a cable loom is not less than
a) 3 times outside diameter of cable loom b) 5 times outside diameter of cable loom c) 8 times outside diameter of cable loom
17. A cable is marked to ATA 100 standard 1E6B22N B indicates a) B phase of 3 phase supply
b) Circuit function c) Cable segment
18. The diameter of an aluminium electrical cable is
a) Greater than a copper cable of the same current rating b) The same as a copper cable of the same current rating c) Less than a copper cable of the same current rating 19. A coaxial cable is used for
a) Small DC signals b) Sensitive AC signal c) Square wave signals only
20. The hole in the base of a Daniels crimp is for a) To allow visual inspection of soldered joints b) To allow solder to enter hole
c) To ensure correct length of cable
21. A high resistance crimped connection can be found by a) Continuity test
b) Milivolt drop test c) Insulation test
22. If a white powder is formed on aluminium this makes the metal a) A better conductor
b) An insulator c) A worse conductor
23. High resistance in heavy current connections causes a) Excess power dissipation at connection b) Damage to power source
c) Breakdown of cable insulation
24. The requirements for the design of cable looms are stated in a) CAIPs
b) BCARs
c) Airworthiness notices
25. To prevent electrical interference an unscreened aerial should be separated a) 28 inches
b) 8 inches c) 18 inches
26. A cable routed outside the pressurized area of an aircraft could be subjected to a temperature of
a) Minus 80°C b) Minus 56°C c) Minus 180°C
27. Where ever possible cables connected to apparatus shall be arranged to run from the apparatus
a) Upwards b) Parallel c) Downwards
28. Where possible the distance from the terminal to the nearest point of support should not exceed
a) 6 inches b) 8 inches c) 10 inches
29. The length of strapping supplied for use with a binding tool is a) 24 inches
b) 24 feet c) 12 inches
30. The size of a drain hole provided in a cable conduit should be a) ½ inches
b) 1/16 inches c) 1/8 inches
31. Wire splices in a loom should be staggered to keep the loom a) Of equal resistance
b) As small as possible c) A standard capacitance
32. The resistance and continuity of a cartridge is tested using a) Insulation tester
b) Lamp and battery c) Safety ohmmeter
33. The cartridge insulation test is carried out by connecting the tester a) To all pins and the cartridge body
b) Between connections
c) To any connection and the cartridge body 34. When a cartridge is life expired the
a) Cartridge and head are replace b) Cartridge only is replaced
c) Cartridge and extinguisher are replaced 35. A 250 V megger should never be used on
a) AC motors
b) Lead acid batteries c) Electronic equipment 36. Electrical symbols are found in
a) Standard practices b) Introduction
c) Chapter 24 electrical power
37. Securing wire bundles information is found in a) Introduction
b) Chapter 24 electrical power c) Standard practices
38. Which type of diagram shows cable codes or wire numbers? a) Wiring diagram only
b) Schematic diagram
39. Zone numbers which help to locate a particular component are found in a) Wiring diagram only
b) Both schematic and wirings diagram c) Schematic diagram
40. Which part of the structural repair manual gives information on special protective treatments
a) Fuselage Chapter 53 b) Wings Chapter 57
c) Structures- General Chapter 51
41. An AVO meter measures AC square wave. What is indicated? a) True RMS
b) Higher than RMS c) Lower than RMS
42. ATA 100 manual layout the airframe SYSTEM group occupies a) 51-57
b) 5-12 c) 20-49
43. Which element in the ATA number 24-16-01 refers to the chapter? a) 24
b) 01 c) 16
44. Service bulletins are issued by the a) CAA
b) Manufacturer c) Aircraft operator
45. In maintenance manual description and operation is covered in page block a) 101-199
b) 201-299 c) 1-99
46. Overhaul manuals are compiled and supplied by a) The aircraft manufacturer
b) The component manufacturer c) Chapter 24 Electrical Power
47. Securing wire bundles information is found in a) Introduction
b) Chapter 24 electrical power c) Standard practices
48. Which type of diagram shows cable codes or wire numbers? a) Wiring diagram only
b) Schematic diagram
49. Zone numbers which help to locate a particular component are found in a) Wiring diagram only
b) Both schematic and wirings diagram c) Schematic diagram
50. Which part of the structural repair manual gives information on special protective treatments
a) Fuselage Chapter 53 b) Wings Chapter 57
c) Structures- General Chapter 51
51. Overhaul manuals are compiled and supplied by a) The aircraft manufacturer
b) The component manufacturer c) Chapter 24 Electrical Power
52. Bonding of metal for lightning strike on composite materials a) Does not need bonding as frame is an insulator b) Have cages with secondary bonding arrangements
c) Is bonded by connecting together with primary bonding connections 53. When using a bonding tester
a) The single probe is permanently connected b) The dual probe is permanently connected c) Both probes is permanently connected
54. Before conducting an insulation test all filaments should be a) Bridged
b) Removed c) Earthed
55. An acceptable resistance value for a galley lighting circuit is a) 2 mega ohms
b) 1 mega ohms c) 5 mega ohms
56. To find details of electrical connector assembly you would refer to a) Chapter 20 and 91 of the appropriate manual
b) Chapter 20 of the appropriate manual c) Chapter 20 and 94 of the appropriate manual 57. Standard circuit symbols will be found in
a) ATA 200 specification b) ATA 100 specification c) British Standard 3939
58. In practice circuit symbols used in production of aircraft wiring diagrams will a) Always be found in aircraft maintenance manual chapter 20
b) Always be found in standard specification c) Normally be found in standard specification
59. The final element of a schematic wiring diagram will normally be a) Issue 1, 2, 3 etc
b) Sheet 1, 2, 3 c) 101, 201, 301 etc 60. A service bulletin with a red top
a) Originates from company quality department b) Is an alert bulletin from the manufacturer c) Originates from CAA
61. Which of the following parts of an ATA 100 series code for wires and cables refers to an ATA chapter number
a) The wire number b) The wire number prefix c) The code suffix letters
62. Two wires are connected to a common terminal. Which part of their ATA 100 wire codes will be different?
a) The segment letter b) The wire number prefix c) The wire number
63. If an ATA 100 wire code has a five digit wire number it means that a) The wire is part of parallel system
b) The wire is part of a very large system c) The wire is not part of the system 64. If a wire has a V suffix it means that it is part of
a) An earth work
b) A single phase system c) A three phase system
65. Another name for a crimping barrel is a a) Bush
b) Itongue c) Ferrule
66. A properly crimped cable should have good electrical a) Resistance
b) Conductivity c) Insulation
67. A crimp barrel extension is provided to secure the a) Eye end
b) Conductivity c) Insulation
68. Which of the following cables is most flexible throughout its temperature range? a) Efglas
b) Unifire F c) Tersil
69. Which of the following cables has a conductor of tinned copper strands? a) Tersil
b) Nyvin c) Efglas
70. A cable is marked Tersil 22 the 22 refers to a) The current rating
b) The current/weight ratio
c) The America Wire Gauge of the conductor
71. Which one of the following cables if heated excessively could give off toxic fumes a) Nyvin
b) Efglas c) Tersil
72. Which of the following cables is most flexible throughout its temperature range? a) Unifire F
b) Tersil c) Efglas
73. Which of the following cables it has a conductor of tinned copper strands a) Nyvin
b) Efglas c) Tersil
74. Copper cables end fittings are a) Fitted to aluminium cables b) Not fitted to aluminium cables c) Available in 4-10 Amp rangesonly 75. The preferred method of terminating cables is
a) Soldering b) Clamping c) Crimping
76. Silver soldering may be used on a) Bonding jumper leads b) EGT compensating leads c) Gyroscoping instruments
77. The Nyvin type of cable used on aircraft will normally be used for a) High temperature areas
b) High frequency circuit c) General wiring
78. When aluminium cables are being crimped it is essential to use an inhibitor to a) Prevent oxidation
b) Form a bond between lug and cable c) Prevent interaction between metals
79. An AMP hand crimping tool has insulation adjustment pins. Position 1 indicates a) Loosest
b) Tightest c) Medium
80. The use of in-line splices in aircraft electrical circuits is
a) Unrestricted provided the task is carried out using approved tools b) Permitted in all circuits except fire and thermocouples
c) Restricted by an associated design authority 81. Crimping tools are periodically tested on the basis of
a) Elapsed calendar time only
b) Elapsed calendar time or number of crimps performed
c) A combination of numbers of crimps and the year of manufacturer of the tool 82. High voltage checks on identification marked thin walled cables are called for by
a) BCAR section J
b) A civil airworthiness inspection procedure c) Airworthiness Notices
83. Aircraft cable identification purposes letter coding of cable manufacturer will be listed in a) British Standards
b) BCAR section J
c) BCAR section D or JAR 25
84. Aircraft cable current ratings go down when cables are mounted in looms because a) Of high induced EMF’s between conductors
b) Conductor cores get hotter if cables are bunched
c) Insulation properties will be increased between conductors 85. A cable is marked 2426-0021 in ATA 100 series style
a) The cable is part of the air conditioning system’ b) The cable is part of the fire warning system c) The cable is part of the electrical circuits
86. When preparing cable for fixing terminations the conductor strands are twisted a) Tightly with pliers
b) To reform the original lay c) Tightly by hand
87. Cables should be marked at intervals of not more than a) 15 inches throughout their length
b) 18 inches throughout their length and 6 inches at each end c) 15 inches throughout their length and 3 inches at each end 88. The spacing between any unscreened cable and any aerial lead should be
a) 18 inches b) 12 inches c) 24 inches
89. If no tail connection is required the metal braid screening on cables should be a) Frayed turned back and bound with tinned copper
b) Carefully cut off
c) Pricked out folded lack and bound with copper 90. Crimped terminals are more satisfactory because
a) Less skill is required to make the connection b) Special tools are not required
c) Connections are stronger
91. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys is a) Magnetic flow
b) Ultrasonic c) Electro-flux
92. When inspecting a component which is subjected to the hot fluid process, the examination for defects should be carried out
a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet b) When the item is quite hot
c) When the item is quite cool 93. The NDT not used on austenitic steel is
a) Magnetic flux b) Electro flux c) Dye penetrate
94. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must be a) Allowed to cool room temperatures as slowly as possible
b) De-magnetized before returning to service
c) Allow to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible 95. When using dye penetrate at +4°C
a) The temperature has no effect
b) The canister must be locally warmed before use c) The penetrate tends to precipitate
96. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys is a) Magnetic flow
b) Ultrasonic c) Electro-flux
97. When inspecting a component which is subjected to the hot fluid process, the examination for defects should be carried out
a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet b) When the item is quite hot
c) When the item is quite cool 98. The NDT not used on austenitic steel is
a) Magnetic flux b) Electro flux c) Dye penetrate
99. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must be a) Allowed to cool room temperatures as slowly as possible
b) De-magnetized before returning to service
c) Allow to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible 100. When using dye penetrate at +4°C
a) The temperature has no effect
b) The canister must be locally warmed before use c) The penetrate tends to precipitate
101. The higher the gauge number, the ... the wire diameter. a) Larger
b) Smaller c) Longer
102. PVC insulated wiring is no longer used due to its flammability and production of toxic gases, which are corrosive, during combustion.
a) b) False c) True
103. A fuse is wired in parallel with the circuit load a) False
b) True c)
104. The term ... as applied to circuit breakers, means the breaker cannot be reset as long as the overload condition exists.
a) Trouble-free b) Trip-free c) Won’t reset
105. Reed switch contacts open or close as a function of being placed in close proximity to a
a) Fluid substance b) Electrical source c) Magnetic field
106. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by a) The use of a pressure/ heat exchange b) Compressing the air charge in accumulator c) Compressing the fluid in the reservoir
107. The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to
a) Collect air from the hydraulic fluid, thus reducing the requirement for frequent bleeding
b) Relieve excess pressure
108. If the hydraulic system accumulator has a low air pressure, it will cause a) Rapid pressure fluctuations during operation services
b) Rapid movement of the operating jacks c) Slow build up of pressure in the system
109. When checking a hydraulic accumulator initial air pressure, the hydraulic system pressure
a) Should be at the normal working pressure b) Should be released
c) Is not important
110. If 1500 psi hydraulic pressure is pumped into an accumulator, with a pre-charge air pressure of 1000 psi the gauge will read
a) 2500 psi b) 1000 psi c) 1500 psi
111. If the insulation is split on a flexible hydraulic-pipe, the pipe is a) Unserviceable and must not be used
b) Serviceable and can remain in use c) Scrap
112. Bleeding of a hydraulic system is carried out a) To completely drain the system
b) To remove foreign matter from the system c) To remove air from the system
113. In a hydraulic system, sluggish operation of the services may be caused by a) Air in system
b) Air in the accumulator at too high a pressure c) Air trapped in the reservoir under pressure 114. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with
a) Methylated spirits
b) The same type of hydraulic fluid as use in the system c) Any clean hydraulic fluid
115. The symbol with the skull and crossbones attached to pipelines indicates a) That these pipelines are only used to carry oxygen
b) The such pipelines must never be used in pressurized areas
c) The injury or damage could result if the laid down precautions are not observed before disconnecting such a pipe
116. Some types of quill drive incorporate a wasted portion in their length a) To provide clearance of the splines
b) To allow the drive to shear in the event of component failure c) To keep the weight factor low
117. To check a flexible pipe for obstruction, fluid should be passed through the pipe a) In direction of normal flow, at a pressure equivalent to 1.5 times normal working
pressure
b) In the direction indicated on the outer casing at a pressure equal to a 12 inch head of fluid
c) In both directions, at a pressure equal to a 12 inch head of fluid 118. A liquid is said to be more viscous than another
a) When it offers more resistance to flow under the same condition than the other b) When it offers less resistance to flow under the same condition than the other c) When it will float on top of the other
119. In a variable delivery hydraulic pump, lubrication is provided by a) A self contained oil system from the engine
b) An internal fluid bleed across the pump c) Greased packed bearing
120. What would be used to check the bore of a flexible hydraulic pipe a) A ball bearing 90% of the bore of the end fitting
b) A ball bearing 95% of the bore of the pipe c) A ball bearing 90% of the bore of the pipe
121. _____________ is used to identify bronze, it produces white powder a) Citric acid
b) Nitric acid c) Phosphoric acid
122. ____ is used to identify aluminum, it turns black when copper is in alloy. a) Boric acid
b) Nitric acid c) Caustic soda
123. The three principle types of hydraulic fluid (ester, mineral and vegetable) a) Are distinguishable by colour
b) Are not distinguishable by colour
c) Are distinguishable by colour only when they come from the same manufacturer 124. A high pressure relief valve, incorporated in a hydraulic system will operate at
a) Normal working pressure to control the hydraulic pump output]
b) A pressure higher than normal working pressure, if the normal pressure limiting device
c) Less than normal working pressure, to prevent over loading the hydraulic pump 125. A hydraulic metering valve, or one way restrictor, in a hydraulic system
a) Meters the flow in both directions b) Allows to flow in one direction only
126. Adding too much accelerator to a composite mix will a) Have no effect on its strength
b) Decrease the mix strength c) Increase the mix strength
127. What material is used for cargo bay liners a) Nomex
b) Kevlar
c) Resin reinforced fibre glass
128. What does an embossed ring on the head of a bolt indicate? a) High tensile steel, cold forged
b) Low tensile steel
c) High tensile steel, machined
129. Normalizing of solid rivets used in the construction of metal airplanes require heat treatment at temperature of
a) 359 ± 5°F b) 495 ± 5°C c) 495 ± 5°F
130. What is the indication of fretting corrosion on aluminum alloy? a) White powder
b) Brown powder c) Black powder
131. What chemical is used to identify aluminum alloy a) Copper sulphate
b) Caustic soda c) Nitric acid
132. When is a locking plate used as a locking device in preference to a tab washer? a) When the nut is removed from an inaccessible place
b) When the nut is removed infrequently c) When the nut is removed frequently
133. An aluminum alloy, snap head rivet, violet anodic finish with the identification 'O' has a material specification
a) L 86 b) L 18 c) L 37
134. Alclad can be identified by using a) Nitric acid
b) Caustic soda c) Selenious acid
135. Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are constructed from parts that have been a) Tested to destruction
b) Manufactured by British Aerospace c) Manufactured to approved drawings
136. Corrosion on aluminum: Remove with nylon brush, neutralize with _____________, protect with aluchrome 1200 and paint 2 layers of zinc chromate.
a) Citric acid b) Phosphoric acid c) Nitric acid
137. To remove corrosion from steel use a wire brush and a) Boric acid
b) Nitric acid c) Caustic soda
138. For corrosion on _________ use 2 oz chromic & 2 drops of sulphuric acid a) Magnesium
b) Titanium c) Aluminium
139. _____ ____on aluminum alloy produces black and on steel brown powder a) Filiform corrosion
b) Freeting corrosion c) Exfoliation corrosion 140. Filiform corrosion is/are
a) Layers of corrosion b) Dissimilar corrosion c) Worm casts
141. Exfoliation corrosion is/are a) Worm casts
b) Layers of corrosion c) Fretting corrosion
142. Inter granular corrosion is caused by false heat treatment. On stainless steel exhaust to detect
a) Measure tensile strength b) Test material hardness
c) Measure magnetic permeability 143. Crevice corrosion due bad design and
a) Bad sealing
b) Wrong heat treatment c) To close spacing
144. On aluminum corrosion remove corrosion with aluminum wool a) And steel wool
b) But no steel wool c) And a wire bush
145. After aluminum corrosion is removed treat first with a) Paint
b) Sealant
c) Aluchrome 1200
146. Less noble material is anodized due a) Filiform corrosion
b) Dissimilar corrosion c) Fretting corrosion
147. Standard Aircraft paint is _________ paint a) Doped
b) Enamel c) Polyeurethan
148. Acid paint remover is ____________ on Aircrafts a) Not allowed
b) Allowed c)
149. _____________ paint remover on composite material a) You may use
b) Do not use c)
150. Prior to install a de-iced boot roughen surface and clean with a) Acetone
b) Varsol c) MEK
151. Control cables 7x7 or 7x19 are lubed with ________ based lube a) Carbon
b) Lanolin c) Ester
152. Control cable spool is ___ times diameter of cable a) 20
b) 25 c) 40
153. Preload a control cable by ___ and cut with a chisel a) 50%
b) 150% c) 200%
154. Load proof of chains is ___ of max load a) 75%
b) ½ c) 50%
155. To check if rollers in chain are seized, check a) Use magnifying glass
b) Individual rollers c) Deformation of teeth
156. Chains have no quick detach they are riveted or bolted. Maximum elongation is a) 10%
b) 2% c) 5%
157. Chains must not be twisted. To change direction use a a) Revision link b) Pulley c) Bi-planar block 158. Blue bearings a) Are overheated b) Are acceptable c) Must be x-rayed 159. Brown bearings a) Are overheated b) Are acceptable c) Must be x-rayed
160. Radial load = journal load bearings are e.g. a) Brass bearings
b) Needle bearings c) Wheel bearings 161. Thrust bearing carry
a) Radial load b) Axial load c) Torque load
162. 'Fill in slot' in bearing ________ the load carrying capacity a) Equalize
b) Increase c) Decrease
163. V-marks on bearing mean a) Bearing comes in set of 2 or 3
b) Bearing can be used for axial and radial load c) Bearing is for high rotational speed
164. Dots on bearings: 1 to 5 dots define _________ of bearing a) Hardness
b) Oversize c) Load capacity
165. Pipes: bend radii is ____ times diameter a) 4-5
b) 2-3 c) 3-4
166. Flareless B-Nut tighten by hand plus 1/6 to 1/3. Pressure test is _______ working pressure.
a) Same as b) 1.5 times c) 2 times
167. A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on pipes a) 75%
b) 90% c) 80%
168. A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on a flex hose a) 90%
b) 80% c) 75%
169. Hose must be _______________ distance a) 5% longer than
b) 3% longer than c) the same length as the
170. Leather must not be used near pipes a) Because it will not skydrol resistance b) It is not strong enough for clamps c) Because of corrosion
171. UK flare is 32° on British AGS union. US flare is a) 60°
b) 37° c) 50°
172. Flaring tool: pipe must a) Extend the cone by 2% b) Extend the cone by 2mm c) Be flush with cone
173. Bending tubes: Fusible alloy to bend (100°C) lubricate before using with _______. Block bottom and pour melted fusible alloy and immerse in water - let bubbles out.
a) Oil b) Naphta c) Kerosene
174. Tank sealant use PR1431 for surface & PR1422 for filling ; A=_____ B=____ , ½ must be worked within ½ hour. Cover with EC776 rejuvenator.
a) A = Thick, B = Soft b) A = Soft, B = Thick
c) A = hard in 1 hour, B = hard in 2 hours
175. Taper pins are used in tubular sections - _____ reamers are used for holes a) Adjustable
b) Standard c) Tapered
176. Rivets: A rivet = generic for cabin = plain ; AD rivet 2117 Alu = dimple ; D rivet 2017 Alu = raised dot ;
a) DD rivet 2024 Alu = raised circle b) DD rivet 2024 Alu = 2 raised dashes c) DD rivet 2024 Alu = raised X
177. D & DD rivets need to be heat treated max a) Once
b) 2 times c) 3 times
178. Solution treat rivets and drive within a) 2 hours
b) 3 hours c) 90 minutes
179. MS20470AD5-12 is mil std 20470 is head shape ; AD = 2117 Alu ; ____ dia ; 12/16" length.
a) 5/8” b) 5/32” c) 5/16”
180. Rivet size is __ x metal gauge a) 2
b) 2.5 c) 3
181. Rivet length is total thickness plus allowance. The allowance depends on a) The material
b) The type of shop head c) The required strength 182. Reaction and snap are
a) 1 D b) 2 D c) 1.5 D
183. Snap on countersink is a) 0.75 D
b) 0.8 D c) 1 D
184. AVDEL rivets are a) Jo-bolts
b) Pop rivets c) Deutsch rivets
185. British rivets have e.g. a) Dimples
b) Dot
c) Colour coding
186. To drill holes for cutting thread use ______________ for drill size to drill hole a) Caliper
b) Zeus book or table c) Ruler
187. Cutting thread: BA = British Association Tab has a) 4 tabs
b) 3 tabs
c) only 2 instead of 3
188. Max bow of a straight tubular member is a) 1:600
b) 1:500 c) 1:800
189. Carbon is added to steel to a) Increase ductility
b) Increase hardness c) Decrease brittleness
190. TIG welding Tungsten Inert Gas welding or MIG use e.g. a) Oxygen as inert gas
b) Hydrogen as inert gas c) Argon as inert gas
191. Soldering: 60% lead & 40% tin plus flux. Soldering iron tip is made of a) Brass
b) Copper c) Steel
192. Silver solder is used for ____________ it consists of tin, lead, antimony and silver
a) General purpose solder b) Low temp solder c) High temp solder
193. Brazing: Stick together and a) Fill gaps
b) Weld together
c) Use inert gas to prevent oxidation
194. O2 cylinders for welding are black and hoses are blue - Acetylene cyl are maroon and have _______ and hose is red.
a) Withword thread b) LH thread c) RH thread
195. Nitrogen bottles are grey with a black neck - air bottles are a) Black with a white collar
b) Blue c) gray
196. Nitrogen for tires is required for aircraft a) Over 2730 kg
b) Over 5700 kg c) Over 13, 600 kg
197. O2 filling station may be LH thread ; O2 cyl is ____________________ for A/C use
a) Black and has a silver neck b) Green and has a white neck c) Black and has a white neck
198. Duraluminum is Alu-copper alloy = hard ; y-alloy of aluminum is used for a) Pistons
b) Gears
c) Flexible brackets
199. 2024 = alu/copper ; 7075 = Alu/Zinc ; T2 = _______ ; heat treatment T2 to T10 a) Age hardened
b) Annealed
c) Surface hardened
200. Alu patches: Solution treat rivets and drive within ________, heat maximum ________.
a) 2 hours and 2 times b) 3 hours and 2 times c) 2 hour and 3 times
201. Testing Alu use 10% caustic soda
a) Duraluminum turns white and aluminum turns black b) Aluminum turns white and duraluminum turns black c) Aluminum turns brown and duraluminum turns black
202. To identify steel use copper sulphate
a) Steel turns black and stainless does not change b) Stainless steel turns red and steel does not change c) Steel turns red and stainless does not change 203. To identify bronze use Nitric acid
a) It has white precipitation b) It has golden precipitation c) It bubbles
204. After cold working use __________ to relief stress a) Age hardening
b) Normalizing c) Tempering
205. Heat treatment: Anneal = ______, ______ & Temper a) Increase brittleness and increase ductility
b) Harden and soften c) Soften and harden
206. Brinell, Rockwell & Vickers are hardness test methods. Brinell test uses a a) Diamond
b) Ball c) Cone
207.
When installing V-clamps. Re-inspect for a) Proper nut usedb) Proper gap
c) Proper seating of seal
208. Split pins and tab washers can be reused a) Never
b) After inspection c) Only once
209. _________ is maximum length of unsupported safety wire a) 2.5 inch
b) 3 inch c) 4 inch
210. Drilling titanium use a) Low feed and low speed b) High speed and low feed c) High feed and low speed
211. __ teeth minimum should always contact when using a hack saw. Teeth should point forward.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 5
212. Hack saw blades are measured in a) Teeth per metre
b) Teeth per cm c) Teeth per inch
213. Chalk when used with a file a) Gives a fine finish
b) Gives a gray colour c) Make less noise
214. Taper ratio for large drills is a) 1:50
b) 1:20 c) 1:30
215. If large drills do not fit in machine a) Lathe drill shaft till it fits
b) Use an extension c) use morse adapter 216. Store rubber away from
a) Motors and air conditioning b) Motors and light
c) Air conditioning and light
217. Rate of cooling and temperature are _________ points of heat treatment a) Are non-essential
b) Non-critical c) The critical
218. A caliper with a scale is in inches 0.1" and in 40th 0.025" ; Main scale divisions = 0.6" (24 x 0.025) = 24/25 is
a) An Old English Caliper b) A New English Caliper c) A metric caliper
219. A caliper with 49/25 - 1.2 : 25 is a) Old English Caliper
b) The current English Caliper System 220. New English Caliper is
a) 24/25 b) 49/25 c) 49/50
221. Metric micrometer accuracy is a) 0.002mm 49/50
b) 0.02mm 49/50 c) 0.2mm 49/50
222. Micrometer: Barrel is _____ and thimble ______ a) Fixed and floats
b) Turns and fixed c) Fixed and turns
223. A metric micrometer has ___ on thimble a) 50
b) 40 c) 30
224. Calipers and Micrometers are calibrated a) Every 12 month
b) Every 6 month c) Every 8 month
225. Calipers and Micrometers prior to use a) Use test piece
b) Assure temperature is within normal range c) Check for 0 alignment
226. Internal micrometers (stick micrometers) expand and have a) T-handle
b) Replaceable extension rods c) Replaceable gap rods
227. Drawings: For latest drawing see design companies a) General drawing book
b) Drawing book c) Master drawing book
228. British Standard for drawings is a) BS 308
b) BS 328 c) BS 318
229. A drawing has 4 signatures: Drawer, Stress engineer, double check for stress & a) Design engineer
b) Approval c) Company
230. A drawing must have: Title, Drawing number, issue number and a) CAA approval
b) Issuing company c) Date of issue
231. Any changes to a drawing must be accompanied by a new issue number and a) Approval
b) Date
232. Drawings: In all cases where interchangeability is affected _____ drawing is required
a) A new drawing may be used b) No new
c) A new
233. Orthographic projection -single part- ha minimum ________ views for drawings a) 2 dimension
b) 3 dimension c) 1 dimension
234. First angle orthographic projection = UK looking from _____ unfolded a) Top
b) Front c) Left
235. US Plan view is from a) Left
b) Front c) Top
236. Sections have hatching lines a) At 60° spaced 4mm
b) At 45° spaced 4mm c) At 45° spaced 6mm
237. Third orthographic projection is top a) Left
b) In front c) On top
238. Pictorial drawing: Oblique is a) 30°, 40°, 60°
b) 30°-30° c) 30°-70°
239. Pictorial drawing: Isometric is a) 30°-70°
b) 30°-30° c) 30°, 40°, 60°
240. Dimension line in new system number is a) Below line
b) Above line c) On line
241. Information about NDT is found in a) AWN 45
b) AWN 94 c) AWN 96
242. Dye check with field kit only , Temp limit is a) Above 0°C
b) 4°F c) 4°C
243. Dye check: on a pressure vessel spray penetrate a) Inside and developer on outside
b) Outside and developer inside c) Outside and developer outside
244. After penetrate has been cleaned off apply developer and check for crack and a) Make a decision
b) Recheck after 20 minutes c) Recheck after 5 minutes
245. Magnetic particle check fluid is a) Engine oil
b) Kerosene c) Paraffin oil
(For question no 246 – 250, please refer to this diagram)
246. The Point angle of a standard drill is a) 118° on either side of centre
b) 59° on either side of centre c) 70° on either side of centre 247. Drill size E is
a) 3/8 inch b) 5/15 inch c) ¼ inch
248. The chisel edge angle is a) 125 to 135°
b) 118°
249. The lip relief angle or heel angle is a) 25 to 25°
b) 12 to 15° c) 6 to 10°
250.
If large drills do not fit in machine a) Lathe drill shaft till it fitsb) Use an extension c) use morse adapter
251. What is the purpose of the cutting edge on the flute of a drill? a) To assist in cooling
b) To reduce friction
c) To prevent drilling oversize holes
252. When filing _________ gives a fine finish. a) Light oil
b) Talcum c) Chalk
253. Taper ratio of larger drills is a) 1:20
b) 1:30 c) 1:40
254. ______________ on a bearing 1 to 5 define over size of bearing. a) X-es
b) Dots c) Dashes
255. For radial load or journal load a ______________ is used. a) Shoulder bushing
b) Thrust bearing c) Wheel bearing
256. For weight and balance passengers, cargo and fuel are a) Variable load
b) Disposable load c) Basic weight
257. For weight and balance crew and special equipment are part of a) Basic weight
b) Disposable load c) Variable load
258. For weight and balance aircraft and basic equipment are part of a) Basic weight
b) Disposable load c) Variable load
259. The leads of a bonding tester a) Are standard leads
b) Have critical length c) Must be colour coded
260. TIG and MIG welding: IG stands for ______________ welding. a) Intense gas
b) Isolated group c) Inert gas
261. Maintenance action which brings units to approved standard to extend operation life is
a) Repair b) Overhaul c) Modification
262. Maintenance action which restores units to a serviceable condition as per an approved standard is
a) Modification b) Overhaul c) Repair
263. Examination of a unit to establish conformity with approved specification is a) Inspection
b) Controlling c) Checking
264. Removal and replacement of an approved part is a) Repair
b) Replacement c) Renewal
265. Another word for modification is a) Renewal
b) Overhaul c) Alteration 266. Stress is the
a) Indicate the aircraft has reached Mach 1 b) Load per unit area acting on a material
c) Permit a high rate of descent from cruise level, in emergency
267. A symmetrical airfoil accelerating through Mach 1. The shock wave forms a) At the leading edge and moves to the highest point of the chamber
b) At the leading edge and moves to the trailing edge
268. A symmetrical airfoil accelerating through Mach 1. The shock wave forms a) At the highest chamber on both upper and lower surfaces, then travels rearwards
to the trailing edge
b) At the leading edge, then travels along the upper surface to the trailing edge c) At the leading edge, then travels along the lower surface to the trailing edge 269. The effect at high speed of vortex generators fitted to the upper surface of an
airfoil is a) Increase M crit.
b) To promote mixing in the boundary layer and delay boundary layer separation c) To reduce sensitivity to strong gusts
270. On subsonic aircraft when approaching M crit. a) The C of P moves forward causing nose to pitch up b) Aircraft altitude does not change
c) The C of P moves rearward causing a nose down pitch 271. The web angle of a twist drill is
a) 59° b) 130° c) 12°
272. Buttress threads are used
a) Transmit power in both directions b) On nuts and bolts
c) To transmit power in one direction
273. The electroplating process that forms oxide film on the surface of aluminium alloy is known as
a) Anodizing b) Galvanizing c) Electroplating
274. The Vernier Height Gauge uses the same principle as the a) Micrometer
b) Vernier caliper c) Bevel protractor
275. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organizations approved by
a) SBAC
b) British Standard Institute c) CAA in accordance with BCAR 276. Reamers are used to
a) Drill accurate holes
b) Enlarge holes to an accurate dimension c) To make holes oversize
277. Expanding reamers are used to ream a) Holes in metal that as been heated b) Tapered holes
c) Holes of different diameters by adjusting the position of the blades 278. Multi-Start threads
a) Increase the lead without increasing the pitch b) Increase the lead and pitch
c) Increase the lead and decrease the pitch 279. Pure aluminium is
a) Not resistance to corrosion b) Highly resistant to corrosion c) Reasonably resistant to corrosion
280. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing, are painted a) Grey with a white collar
b) Black with grey collar c) Black with white collar
281. Hatching lines are usually drawn at a) 60°
b) 45° c) 70°
282. If a design amendment is made on a drawing a) No change in issue number or date is necessary
b) The old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added c) A new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing 283. In third angle projections, each view
a) Represents the side of the object nearest to it in the adjacent view b) Is drawn with the axis inclined, usually at 30°
c) Represents the side of the object removed from it in the adjacent view
284. Which pictorial projection one face in true elevation and lines in depth normally drawn 30° or 45° to the horizontal
a) Perspective b) Oblique c) Isometric
285. A spring washer is used a) With a tab washer b) By itself
c) With a plain washer
286. Nickel alloy steel split pins can be used, a) Repeatedly provided they remain a good fit b) Only once because the legs are spread and bent c) With a spring washer and stiff nut
287. One revolution of the thimble of the English Micrometer produces a linear movement of the spindle of
a) 0.001 in b) 0.040 in c) 0.025 in
288. The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread is a) 0.5mm
b) 0.2mm c) 1.0mm
289. The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into a) 25 equal divisions
b) 50 equal divisions c) 40 equal divisions 290. The standard taper is
a) 1:20 b) 1:600 c) 1:46
291. ATA Specification 100 is the
a) American FAA specification and controlling the manufacturer of aluminum and its alloys
b) International standardization of manuals, illustrated parts catalogue, overhaul and repair manuals, service bulletins and letters
c) Procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can be given a C of A in the transport category (passengers)
292. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloured a) Green/yellow
b) Blue c) Brown
293. When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component can be protected from damage by the sling by
a) Using a spreader bars and packing b) Using a suitable shaped sling c) Fabricating alternative lifting points 294. A dry powder extinguisher is coloured
a) Red b) Blue c) Green
295. A pre-load indicating washer is correctly located when a) The inner ring is rotated
b) The inner ring is gripped c) The outer ring is gripped
296. When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where required value falls at the
a) Bottom of the range b) Top end of the range c) Middle of the range
297. Torque loading is carried out to provide a) As tight as possible
b) Flexibility
c) Sufficient clamping without overstressing 298. High temperature solder consists of
a) Tin/lead/antimony/silver b) Lead/copper/antimony c) Tin/zinc/antimony/silver
299. Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with a) Tin and silver
b) Copper and silver c) Tin and copper
300. A flux is used in soldering to
a) Etch the metals surface for more adhesion b) Prevent solder spikes
c) Dissolve oxides
301. When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable should be cut by a) A hack saw with the cable under tension
b) Using a chisel on a flat metal surfaces c) Oxy-acetylene torch
302. When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully positioned using a) A soft steel or brass tube drift
b) A steel drift with light blows c) A soft steel brass tube drift
303. A roller bearing is cleaned by soaking and swilling in a) White spirit
b) Trichloroethetylene c) Petroleum spirit
304. To allow for shrinking, vibration and whip all straight hoses must be a) 2% longer than distance between fittings
b) 3% longer than distance between fittings c) 5% longer than distance between fittings
305. A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permits a) A positive and strong drive for transmission b) Positive drive with the gear firmly locked c) Positive drive and axial movement
306. What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrate inspection? a) It is drawn to crack by electrostatic attraction
b) It acts as a blotter to draw out the penetrate has seeped into the crack c) It seeps into the crack and makes it show up
307. What action is taken to protect integral tanks from corrosion due to micro-biological growth?
a) The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate b) Rubber liners are installed in the tanks
c) A biocidal additive is used in the fuel
308. What action should be taken on finding inter granular corrosion? a) Replace complete component part
b) De-corrode and re-protect
c) Renew corroded area by patching
309. Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal by a) Electro-mechanical action
b) Electro-chemical action c) Hydro-electro action 310. Tempering steel gives
a) Greater brittleness b) Greater hardness
c) Relief of internal stress after hardening
311. When dissimilar metals are brought together, or the same metal in different states, one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which one will suffer from corrosion?
a) The cathode b) The anode
c) Both will corrode equally
312. After welding, stainless steel is susceptible to corrosion known as a) Weld deterioration
b) Weld rot c) Weld decay
313. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to a) High temperature
b) Dry climates c) Cold climates
314. Select the metal on which corrosion forms a greenish film a) Aluminum and its alloy
b) Copper and its alloy c) Titanium and its alloy
315. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion is
a) Trans granulation b) Electrolysis c) Exfoliation
316. The artificial production of a film of hydroxide on the surface of aluminum or any of its alloys is commonly called
a) Alodizing b) Anodizing c) Parco lubrizing
317. Inter granular corrosion in structural aluminum alloy parts
a) Is not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-treated sheet aluminum b) May be detected by white powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal’ c) Cannot always be detected by surface indications
318. Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact my be best prevented by a) Priming both surfaces with a light coat of zinc chromate primer
b) Applying a non-porous dielectric material between the surfaces c) Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded 319. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of
a) Excessive anodization
b) Contact between two unlike metals c) The wrong quenching agent
320. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminum alloys which are improperly or inadequately heat treated?
a) Surface b) Stress
c) Inter granular
321. The main advantage of dye penetrate inspection is the a) Part is to be inspected does not require cleaning b) Penetrate solution works on any non-porous material c) Defect must be opened to the surface
322. In order for dye penetrate to be effective, the material being checked must a) Be non-magnetic
b) Be magnetic c) Have surface cracks
323. Which of the following metals can be inspected using magnetic particle check? a) Iron alloys
b) Aluminum alloys c) Magnesium alloys
324. In the fluorescent penetrate crack test, what period should elapse between applying the developer and viewing?
a) 5 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 10 minutes
325. How are defects indicated in the dye penetrate crack detection test? a) Yellowish green marks
b) Green lines and dots
c) Red lines on a white background
326. The British standard for engineering drawings is a) B.S. 306
b) B.S. 308 c) B.S. 309
327. Third angle orthographic projection has the plan a) Above the side elevation
b) Below the front elevation c) Above the front elevation
328. Bonding is the connection of a cable from the fuel lorry to a) The approved bonding point on the aircraft
b) A grounding rod in the ramp c) The aircraft wing
329. Grounding is the connection of a cable from the fuel lorry to a) The aircraft wing
b) A grounding rod in the ramp
c) The approved bonding point on the aircraft 330. A dead man control in fueling is a device that
a) Holds the fueling hose in place b) Opens the fuel panel
c) Controls the fuel flow
331. The effects of frozen precipitation adhering to an aircraft are a) Degraded aerodynamic performance
b) Both answer are correct
c) Degraded instrument indication
332. Frost, Ice, Snow and Slush will destroy the capability of an airfoil to create a) Heat
b) Drag c) Lift
333. De-icing is the _________ of frozen precipitation from aircraft critical surfaces a) Removal
b) Protection c) Correction
334. Another word for anti-icing is a) Removal
b) Protection c) Correction
335. Glycol testers test the a) Outside air temperature b) Viscosity of the fluid c) Freeze point of the fluid
336. When de-icing an aircraft, frozen precipitation is removed or melted by the a) Alcohol in the glycol
b) Heat and pressure c) Anti icing fluid
337. Types II and IV fluids in a two step de/anti-icing at 100% are used for a) Both de and anti icing
b) De-icing c) Anti-icing
338. Holdover time begins
a) When starting the second step in a two step de/anti-icing b) When de-icing begins
c) When anti-icing is completed 339. Anti-icing fluid is always applied to
a) The wings only b) A clean aircraft
c) All aircraft during the de-icing season
340. A means to check for clear ice on a wing is to perform a a) Blank check
b) Cockpit check c) Tactile check
341. Corrosion which attacks the crystals of the metal is called a) Filiform corrosion
b) Inter granular corrosion c) Surface corrosion
342. The three phases of eliminating corrosion are a) Cleaning, treatment and rinsing
b) Removal, treatment and rinsing c) Cleaning, removal and treatment
343. Microbiological corrosion is usually present a) In tanks
b) In the cabin
344. The most corroded part in galvanic corrosion is a) The most noble material
b) The less noble material c) At zero potential
345. Corrosion by erosion and cavitations is caused by a) Increases velocity and decrease pressure pitting b) Fretting
c) Movement of fluid
346. Passivation is what kind of protection type? a) Electro-chemical
b) Chemical c) Heat treatment
347. Cathodes protection consists of a) Creating a layer of aluminum b) Applying a layer of phosphate c) Deviating a galvanic element
348. One of the three corrosion protection methods is not a chemical process a) Anodic oxidation
b) Passivation c) inhibition
349. Dye penetrate is used for a) Passivation b) NDT testing c) Anodic oxidation 350. Ultrasonic is used a) To detect blockings b) For measurement c) To detect cracks
351. The tap test is used to detect a) Corrosion
b) Debonding or bad assembling of composites c) Water in a composite structure
352. An eddy current NDT detection system uses for indication a) A plotter
b) A photo
c) An oscilloscope
353. For which of the following tests paint stripping is not required a) Eddy current
b) A normal dye penetrate check
354. MTOM means a) Mean Take Off Mass b) Maximum Take Off Mass c) Maximum Taxi Operating Mass 355. Basic Mass consists of
a) Airplane + Crew + Baggage b) Airplane + Fuel + Load c) Airplane + Crew + Load
Module 7.7 Electrical Cables and Connectors 1 3 3 356. Using a testmeter on an anodised part
a) anodic film does not need to be removed b) consider resistance of anodic film c) always remove the anodic film
357. The minimum bonding for secondary structure is a) 1 ohm
b) 0.05 ohm c) 0.005 ohms
358. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be sprayed with a) metallic paint
b) enamel
c) aluminium paint
359. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out a) use a megger
b) use a bonding meter c) a continuity check
360. The maximum bonding resistance on a primary stucture a) should be 0.05 ohms b) should be 0.5 ohms c) should be 1 ohm 361. One megohm is a) 1,000 ohms b) 100,000 ohms c) 1000,000 ohms
362. The leads of a bonding tester a) are made of cromel and alumel
b) have critical length and their resistance must be considered
363. The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable is
a) a low reading ohmmeter b) a megger
c) a bonding meter
364. If all the prongs of a bonding meter were held together a) this should not be done, as it would destry the meter b) the meter would read full scale right
c) the meter would read zero
365. The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance is greater than a) 0.5 ohms
b) 1 ohm c) 1.5 ohms
366. The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not exceed a) 1 ohm
b) 0.5 ohms c) 0.05 ohms
367. The bonding resistance of primary structure is a) 0.05 ohm
b) 0.5 ohms c) 1 ohms
368. Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two prongs shorted together with a piece of metal. What would the the indicator read?
a) The needle is centered b) Zero to the left c) Full scale to the right
369. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding tests between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS ac or dc should not exceed
a) 0.05 ohms b) 0.5 ohms c) 1 ohm
370. What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a metal plate on which the earth device is resting?
a) 1 kiloohm / 10 megohm b) 1 megohm / 10 megohm c) 0.5 ohms / kiloohm
371. What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of an aircraft a) To ground the chasis
b) To earthen the metallic parts
372. What is the reason for a primary bonding connection of a large cross-sectional area?
a) To provide a better bonding
b) To carry lightening discharge if needed c) To improve insulation
373. When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its mounting, it should be bonded
a) With at least 2 primary connectors, one each side of the engine b) With at least 3 primary connectors
c) With at least one primary connector
374. When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester short together the three prongs of both probes and assure the reading is
a) Centered b) Infinity c) Zero
375. When an earth return terminal assembly has to be replaced which check must be carried out
a) Bonding test
b) Bonding and multivolt test c) Multivolt drop test
376. If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the procedure a) Replace leads only
b) Leads should be replaced and tested
c) Leads and tester should be returned to manufacturer for repair and calibration 377. If bridging strips or bonding cards are fractured, what action should be taken?
a) A new conductor should be fitted b) Should be replaced and tested
c) Should be returned to manufacturer for repair calibration
378. When carrying out a multi-volt drop check on a circuit, what is an approximate reading?
a) 2 mV for every 10 A flowing b) 3 mV for every 10 A flowing c) 5 mV for every 10 A flowing
379. Why is a low voltage supply used for continuity testing? a) To have less current flow
b) High voltage may destroy the unit
c) For breaking down a high resistance film that might exist between contacting surfaces
380. When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and the tanker bonded together?
a) For lightening strike protection
b) To maintain aircraft and tanker on the same electrical potential c) This is not sufficient, they must also be grounded
381. Effective continuity is not possible unless
a) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit with no series ports
b) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit c) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple series circuit with no
parallel ports
382. How would you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up on fibre glass surfaces?
a) By using bonding studs
b) By using a special conductive paint c) By imbedding a grounding wire mesh
383. When replacing a bonding connection and the original connector cannot be matched exactly
a) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a greater cross-sectional area
b) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, same size
c) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a smaller cross-sectional area
384. If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended in free air, what will it read
a) Centered b) Zero c) Infinity
385. An insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a low reading is obtained
a) Low reading is normal on a group of cables b) Break down the circuit and do further checks c) You cannot test a group of cables
386. What is a typical minimum insulation resistance value of an aircraft undercarriage bay?
a) 0.5 megohms b) 1 megohm c) 2 megohms
387. Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the following applies
a) The reading observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time should be noted and compared to the previous reading
b) Atmospheric conditions play only a role in air data computer related circuits c) Atmospheric conditions do not play a role in insulation testing
388. When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known resistance exists, what instrument would you use?
a) Megger b) Ammeter c) An ohmmeter
389. Whenever using a megger to test insulation resistance, capacitive filters should be disconnected for what reason?
a) They do not need to be disconnected b) To prevent capacitive influence on reading c) To prevent damage to filters
390. An open circuit on an ohmmeter would indicate a) Centered
b) Infinite resistance c) Zero
391. Which electrical measuring device needs a power source? a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter c) Ohmmeter
392. When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the indication is a) Max values
b) RMS values c) Normal values
393. On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the common socket? a) Black
b) Red c) Blue
394. A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing a meter in a) Parallel to the voltage source
b) In series with the component c) In parallel with the component
395. An ohmmeter can measure ac because it has a a) AC coil
b) Bridge rectifier c) Moving iron vane
396. Insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel wells should normally be not less than
a) 0.5 megohms b) 1 megohm c) 2 megohms
397. A 250 Volt megger should not be used a) On electronic equipment
b) In wheel wells
c) On capacitive equipment
398. If the leads of a megger are held apart if the handle was turned it would read a) Centered
b) Zero c) Infinity
399. When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed a) In parallel to the power source
b) In parallel to the circuit c) In series
400. Unused holes in an electrical multi-pin connector should be a) Left empty
b) Fitted with blanks c) Sealed
401. In a front release connector the pin will be
a) Released from the rear and extracted from the front b) Released from the front and extracted from the front c) Released from the front and extracted from the rear
402. The number of dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates
a) One dot is ok, more than one dot is no-go! b) The correct tool was used to effect the connection c) The incorrect tool was used to effect the connection
403. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by
a) Changing the positions of the pins b) By using the adjustment screw c) By changing the head only
404. A hole in the lowest part of an electrical cable conduit is a) To be sealed with sealant
b) To allow ventilation
c) To allow drainage of moisture
405. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is a) 50mm
b) 500mm c) 10cm
406. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables a) They must be routed separately
b) They are handled like all other cables
c) Avoid distortions to maintain the dielectric constant 407. When fitting co-axial cable connectors it is important
a) Not to damage any seals fitted b) To seal them with sealant c) To install the bonding wires
408. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by
a) By using RF filters b) By using bridges
c) Earth each alternate conductor to separate points
409. What is the minimum bend radius of loom adequately supported at a terminal block?
a) 2x b) 2.5x c) 3x
410. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the dielectric, capacitance
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
411. What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable? a) 6 x diameter
b) 8 x diameter c) 10 x diameter
412. What is wet arc tracking? a) Submerged cable routing
b) A fault caused by insulation damage and fluid contamination c) Improve area insulation
413. When inserting pins into a forward facing connector the inserting tool should be used with the gap facing
a) The outside of the connector b) The inside of the connector c) To the center
414. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure a) A running engine
b) The ignition system
c) Broken or missing static wicks
415. A crimped electrical connection is suspected to be high resistance. Corrective action should start with
a) Use a megger
b) Measure the millivots drop with a millivolts meter c) Use a bonding meter
416. What cable may be used in a temperature environment above 200°C a) Copper wire
b) Monel wire
417. A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a bend radius of no less than
a) 3 times the diameter of the wire b) 4 times the diameter of the wire c) 5 times the diameter of the wire
418. Glycol de-ice fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause a) Corrosion
b) Brittleness of insulation c) Fire
419. With a rear release connector, the pin will be a) Released from the rear and extracted from the front b) Released from the front and extracted from the rear c) Released from the rear and extracted from the rear
420. Circuit test on aircraft should be carried out in the following order a) Continuity, bonding, insulation, function
b) Bonding, continuity, insulation, function c) Insulation, bonding, continuity, function
421. After the normal function of an individual circuit has been completed and the circuit is switched off
a) You can work right away on the circuit
b) The fuse should be removed and you can work right away on the circuit c) The fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check the
isolation of the circuit
422. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector is
a) 220°C b) 260°C c) 280°C
423. What gauge of pin is a yellow plastic insert/extract tool used on a) 12
b) 14 c) 16
424. When using a heat shrink gun, the gun should get to a) Above the heat shrink value
b) 50° above the heat shrink value c) 100° above the heat shrink value
425. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 360° is a) Nylon
b) Nomex c) Teflon
426. Can an insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool a) No, they are preset
b) Depends on the manufacturer c) Yes, by adjusting the pins
427. Hydraulic crimping tooling after completing crimping, release the crimp a) When the bypass valve opens
b) Automatically when satisfactory c) Depends on the manufacturer
428. At which frequency is the calibration of the crimping tools required a) Every 6 month
b) Every 12 month c) 1000 crimps
429. When carrying out a bonding check on an anodized nut a) Has no effect
b) Resistance of the anodizing should be considered c) Remove anodizing
430. Which device is most sensitive to electrostatic discharge a) CMOS
b) MOSFET c) SCR
431. ESDS charge is dissipated by a) Using wrist straps
b) Using suitable footwear
c) Using wrist straps or suitable foot wear 432. A wrist strap has a built in resistor of
a) 1 kiloohm b) 1 megohm c) 10 kiloohms
433. What gauge of pin is a red plastic insert/extract tool used on a) 22-18
b) 14-12 c) 18-16
434. Walking on a carpet in a low humidity air environment may build up a potential of
a) 1,500 Volts b) 3,500 Volts c) 35,000 Volts
435. Once an ESDS LRU has been removed a) Standard caps may be installed
b) Only ESDS approved caps may me installed c) Only PVC caps may be installed
436. If measuring an outside measurement with a vernier caliper you a) Add the nib dimensions
b) Disregard the nibs
c) Subtract the nib dimensions
437. On Weight and Balance calculations a) Values fwd of the CG are positive
b) Values fwd of the CG are positive, aft of the CG are negative c) Values aft of the CG are positive, fwd of the CG are negative 438. Remove corrosion on a clad alloy sheet by
a) With phosphoric acid b) Using trichoathelene c) Need buffering wheel
439. Remove corrosion on a clad alloy sheet by a) Using trichoathelene
b) Nylon wheel or alu-wool and alodine 1200 treatment c) Need buffering wheel
440. Dermatitis is caused by a) Inhaling of catalyst b) Inhaling of resin
c) Contact with skin to resin 441. Taper reamers are identified by
a) Diameter of large end b) Numbers and fractions c) Diameter of small end
442. Vital point inspections are done a) After scheduled maintenance
b) On flight controls and engine controls c) By installation which can cause fatal failures 443. A fitness of flight certificate is required
a) After modification to seek approval b) After CMR is raised
c) For any work done
444. If a bearing cage is damaged a) Get cage out and place it b) Reject bearing
c) Replace balls and grease bearing
445. A release to service for aircrafts above 5730 KG is required when a) If you install the same part which was previously removed b) Using a test set
446. By testing with a VOR/ILS test set if tone delete is pushed a) Full deflection
b) Flag in view
c) Needles are pointing north
447. After indicator replacement a test with an EGT test set it has to be a) Not necessary to soak the test set
b) Soaked at ambient and calculate temp allowance c) Soaked to ambient and calibrate to 20°
448. Wire identification "x" by ATA 100 means a) A/C power
b) Warning circuit c) Ground network
449. To confirm correct combination of terminal and crimping tool has been selected a) Use go-no-go gauge
b) Check for dot cod mark c) Inspect insulation
450. Standard PIDG crimp tools have a) 1 adjustment position
b) 2 adjustment position c) 3 adjustment position Module 7 Maintenance Practices
451. How do you arrange the spacing of the rivets? a) 1.5 x diameter of the rivet shank
b) By measuring the thickness of the material c) 2 times the diameter of the rivet head 452. Worm gears are used to connect shafts
a) At right angles which lie on same planes b) At right angles which lie on different planes c) At acute angles which lie on same planes
453. What is the material on the upper and bottom surface of Alclad a) Magnesium
b) Aluminium Alloy c) Aluminium 454. What is monel?
a) Non ferrous metal containing nickel and copper b) Ferrous metal containing nickel and copper c) Non ferrous metal containing nickel and brass 455. What is Kevlar?
a) An aramid fibre b) A carbon fibre c) A glass fibre
456. When you need to remove a rivet what you do?
a) You chop the head off with a chissel and drill the shank out b) You drill the rivet completely out
c) You drill the head of the rivet and remove the head with chisel and the shank with a punch
457. When you measure internal diameter with vernier caliper? a) You subtract the thickness of the nips
b) You add the thickness of the nips c) You just read the caliper
458. Joining two dissimilar metals what chemical action is created? a) Galvanic action
b) Ionic action c) Caustic action
459. How do clean the chain when removed? a) Use degreaser
b) Use white spirit
c) Use linen cloth with paraffin
460. How do check the condition of the roller bearings?
a) By holding the outer race and rotating the outer race slowly b) By holding the inner race and rotating the outer race slowly c) By using magnetic flux inspection
461. An ac current sinusoidal wave the frequency is 1000Herts what is the periodic time?
a) 1ms b) 1000ms c) 1000s
462. Photovoltaic converts light into electricity by? a) Chemical action
b) Sunlight c) Heat
463. Lead acid cells produce electricity by a) Sunlight
b) Heat
c) Chemical action
464. Seebeck effect produces electricity by a) Heat
b) Sunlight
c) Chemical action
465. How do you measure the electrolyte? a) Hydrometer
b) Manometer c) Hygrometer
466. What is the unit of measure of electromotive force? a) Watts
b) Amperes c) Volts
467. On convectional current how are the electrons moves? a) From minus to plus
b) Opposite to the organized movement of electrons in a metal conductor c) From negative to positive
468. On primary surface the maximum allowable resistance is? a) 50 mOhms
b) 70 mOhms c) 120 mOhms
469. The CRS on Air Transports Aircraft can be signed by? a) An engineer in an approved Organization.
b) A type rated engineer
c) A type rated engineer authorized by an approved Organization.
470. Duplicate inspection is carried out when upsetting controls surface or engine controls or anything that upset’s the safety of the aircraft by?
a) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineer
b) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineer having CRS coverage c) By any inspector
Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts
471. Brown or black streaks coming from a rivet head would indicate a) Residue of lubrication
b) Rivets have been inserted with sealant c) Loose rivets
472. Rivet snap is used a) To form the rivet head
b)
To cut off excessive rivet lengthc) To hold the plates together whilst riveting 473. Drill size for 3/32 inch rivet is
a) F b) # 30 c) # 40
474. Drill size for 1/8 inch rivet is a) # 30
b) # 40 c) F
