a) anodic film does not need to be removed b) consider resistance of anodic film c) always remove the anodic film
357. The minimum bonding for secondary structure is a) 1 ohm
b) 0.05 ohm c) 0.005 ohms
358. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be sprayed with a) metallic paint
b) enamel
c) aluminium paint
359. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out a) use a megger
b) use a bonding meter c) a continuity check
360. The maximum bonding resistance on a primary stucture a) should be 0.05 ohms b) should be 0.5 ohms c) should be 1 ohm 361. One megohm is a) 1,000 ohms b) 100,000 ohms c) 1000,000 ohms
362. The leads of a bonding tester a) are made of cromel and alumel
b) have critical length and their resistance must be considered
363. The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable is
a) a low reading ohmmeter b) a megger
c) a bonding meter
364. If all the prongs of a bonding meter were held together a) this should not be done, as it would destry the meter b) the meter would read full scale right
c) the meter would read zero
365. The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance is greater than a) 0.5 ohms
b) 1 ohm c) 1.5 ohms
366. The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not exceed a) 1 ohm
b) 0.5 ohms c) 0.05 ohms
367. The bonding resistance of primary structure is a) 0.05 ohm
b) 0.5 ohms c) 1 ohms
368. Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two prongs shorted together with a piece of metal. What would the the indicator read?
a) The needle is centered b) Zero to the left c) Full scale to the right
369. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding tests between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS ac or dc should not exceed
a) 0.05 ohms b) 0.5 ohms c) 1 ohm
370. What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a metal plate on which the earth device is resting?
a) 1 kiloohm / 10 megohm b) 1 megohm / 10 megohm c) 0.5 ohms / kiloohm
371. What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of an aircraft a) To ground the chasis
b) To earthen the metallic parts
372. What is the reason for a primary bonding connection of a large cross-sectional area?
a) To provide a better bonding
b) To carry lightening discharge if needed c) To improve insulation
373. When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its mounting, it should be bonded
a) With at least 2 primary connectors, one each side of the engine b) With at least 3 primary connectors
c) With at least one primary connector
374. When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester short together the three prongs of both probes and assure the reading is
a) Centered b) Infinity c) Zero
375. When an earth return terminal assembly has to be replaced which check must be carried out
a) Bonding test
b) Bonding and multivolt test c) Multivolt drop test
376. If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the procedure a) Replace leads only
b) Leads should be replaced and tested
c) Leads and tester should be returned to manufacturer for repair and calibration 377. If bridging strips or bonding cards are fractured, what action should be taken?
a) A new conductor should be fitted b) Should be replaced and tested
c) Should be returned to manufacturer for repair calibration
378. When carrying out a multi-volt drop check on a circuit, what is an approximate reading?
a) 2 mV for every 10 A flowing b) 3 mV for every 10 A flowing c) 5 mV for every 10 A flowing
379. Why is a low voltage supply used for continuity testing? a) To have less current flow
b) High voltage may destroy the unit
c) For breaking down a high resistance film that might exist between contacting surfaces
380. When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and the tanker bonded together?
a) For lightening strike protection
b) To maintain aircraft and tanker on the same electrical potential c) This is not sufficient, they must also be grounded
381. Effective continuity is not possible unless
a) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit with no series ports
b) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit c) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple series circuit with no
parallel ports
382. How would you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up on fibre glass surfaces?
a) By using bonding studs
b) By using a special conductive paint c) By imbedding a grounding wire mesh
383. When replacing a bonding connection and the original connector cannot be matched exactly
a) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a greater cross- sectional area
b) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, same size
c) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a smaller cross- sectional area
384. If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended in free air, what will it read
a) Centered b) Zero c) Infinity
385. An insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a low reading is obtained
a) Low reading is normal on a group of cables b) Break down the circuit and do further checks c) You cannot test a group of cables
386. What is a typical minimum insulation resistance value of an aircraft undercarriage bay?
a) 0.5 megohms b) 1 megohm c) 2 megohms
387. Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the following applies
a) The reading observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time should be noted and compared to the previous reading
b) Atmospheric conditions play only a role in air data computer related circuits c) Atmospheric conditions do not play a role in insulation testing
388. When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known resistance exists, what instrument would you use?
a) Megger b) Ammeter c) An ohmmeter
389. Whenever using a megger to test insulation resistance, capacitive filters should be disconnected for what reason?
a) They do not need to be disconnected b) To prevent capacitive influence on reading c) To prevent damage to filters
390. An open circuit on an ohmmeter would indicate a) Centered
b) Infinite resistance c) Zero
391. Which electrical measuring device needs a power source? a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter c) Ohmmeter
392. When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the indication is a) Max values
b) RMS values c) Normal values
393. On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the common socket? a) Black
b) Red c) Blue
394. A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing a meter in a) Parallel to the voltage source
b) In series with the component c) In parallel with the component
395. An ohmmeter can measure ac because it has a a) AC coil
b) Bridge rectifier c) Moving iron vane
396. Insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel wells should normally be not less than
a) 0.5 megohms b) 1 megohm c) 2 megohms
397. A 250 Volt megger should not be used a) On electronic equipment
b) In wheel wells
c) On capacitive equipment
398. If the leads of a megger are held apart if the handle was turned it would read a) Centered
b) Zero c) Infinity
399. When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed a) In parallel to the power source
b) In parallel to the circuit c) In series
400. Unused holes in an electrical multi-pin connector should be a) Left empty
b) Fitted with blanks c) Sealed
401. In a front release connector the pin will be
a) Released from the rear and extracted from the front b) Released from the front and extracted from the front c) Released from the front and extracted from the rear
402. The number of dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates
a) One dot is ok, more than one dot is no-go! b) The correct tool was used to effect the connection c) The incorrect tool was used to effect the connection
403. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by
a) Changing the positions of the pins b) By using the adjustment screw c) By changing the head only
404. A hole in the lowest part of an electrical cable conduit is a) To be sealed with sealant
b) To allow ventilation
c) To allow drainage of moisture
405. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is a) 50mm
b) 500mm c) 10cm
406. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables a) They must be routed separately
b) They are handled like all other cables
c) Avoid distortions to maintain the dielectric constant 407. When fitting co-axial cable connectors it is important
a) Not to damage any seals fitted b) To seal them with sealant c) To install the bonding wires
408. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by
a) By using RF filters b) By using bridges
c) Earth each alternate conductor to separate points
409. What is the minimum bend radius of loom adequately supported at a terminal block?
a) 2x b) 2.5x c) 3x
410. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the dielectric, capacitance
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
411. What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable? a) 6 x diameter
b) 8 x diameter c) 10 x diameter
412. What is wet arc tracking? a) Submerged cable routing
b) A fault caused by insulation damage and fluid contamination c) Improve area insulation
413. When inserting pins into a forward facing connector the inserting tool should be used with the gap facing
a) The outside of the connector b) The inside of the connector c) To the center
414. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure a) A running engine
b) The ignition system
c) Broken or missing static wicks
415. A crimped electrical connection is suspected to be high resistance. Corrective action should start with
a) Use a megger
b) Measure the millivots drop with a millivolts meter c) Use a bonding meter
416. What cable may be used in a temperature environment above 200°C a) Copper wire
b) Monel wire
417. A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a bend radius of no less than
a) 3 times the diameter of the wire b) 4 times the diameter of the wire c) 5 times the diameter of the wire
418. Glycol de-ice fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause a) Corrosion
b) Brittleness of insulation c) Fire
419. With a rear release connector, the pin will be a) Released from the rear and extracted from the front b) Released from the front and extracted from the rear c) Released from the rear and extracted from the rear
420. Circuit test on aircraft should be carried out in the following order a) Continuity, bonding, insulation, function
b) Bonding, continuity, insulation, function c) Insulation, bonding, continuity, function
421. After the normal function of an individual circuit has been completed and the circuit is switched off
a) You can work right away on the circuit
b) The fuse should be removed and you can work right away on the circuit c) The fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check the
isolation of the circuit
422. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector is
a) 220°C b) 260°C c) 280°C
423. What gauge of pin is a yellow plastic insert/extract tool used on a) 12
b) 14 c) 16
424. When using a heat shrink gun, the gun should get to a) Above the heat shrink value
b) 50° above the heat shrink value c) 100° above the heat shrink value
425. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 360° is a) Nylon
b) Nomex c) Teflon
426. Can an insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool a) No, they are preset
b) Depends on the manufacturer c) Yes, by adjusting the pins
427. Hydraulic crimping tooling after completing crimping, release the crimp a) When the bypass valve opens
b) Automatically when satisfactory c) Depends on the manufacturer
428. At which frequency is the calibration of the crimping tools required a) Every 6 month
b) Every 12 month c) 1000 crimps
429. When carrying out a bonding check on an anodized nut a) Has no effect
b) Resistance of the anodizing should be considered c) Remove anodizing
430. Which device is most sensitive to electrostatic discharge a) CMOS
b) MOSFET c) SCR
431. ESDS charge is dissipated by a) Using wrist straps
b) Using suitable footwear
c) Using wrist straps or suitable foot wear 432. A wrist strap has a built in resistor of
a) 1 kiloohm b) 1 megohm c) 10 kiloohms
433. What gauge of pin is a red plastic insert/extract tool used on a) 22-18
b) 14-12 c) 18-16
434. Walking on a carpet in a low humidity air environment may build up a potential of
a) 1,500 Volts b) 3,500 Volts c) 35,000 Volts
435. Once an ESDS LRU has been removed a) Standard caps may be installed
b) Only ESDS approved caps may me installed c) Only PVC caps may be installed
436. If measuring an outside measurement with a vernier caliper you a) Add the nib dimensions
b) Disregard the nibs
c) Subtract the nib dimensions
437. On Weight and Balance calculations a) Values fwd of the CG are positive
b) Values fwd of the CG are positive, aft of the CG are negative c) Values aft of the CG are positive, fwd of the CG are negative 438. Remove corrosion on a clad alloy sheet by
a) With phosphoric acid b) Using trichoathelene c) Need buffering wheel
439. Remove corrosion on a clad alloy sheet by a) Using trichoathelene
b) Nylon wheel or alu-wool and alodine 1200 treatment c) Need buffering wheel
440. Dermatitis is caused by a) Inhaling of catalyst b) Inhaling of resin
c) Contact with skin to resin 441. Taper reamers are identified by
a) Diameter of large end b) Numbers and fractions c) Diameter of small end
442. Vital point inspections are done a) After scheduled maintenance
b) On flight controls and engine controls c) By installation which can cause fatal failures 443. A fitness of flight certificate is required
a) After modification to seek approval b) After CMR is raised
c) For any work done
444. If a bearing cage is damaged a) Get cage out and place it b) Reject bearing
c) Replace balls and grease bearing
445. A release to service for aircrafts above 5730 KG is required when a) If you install the same part which was previously removed b) Using a test set
446. By testing with a VOR/ILS test set if tone delete is pushed a) Full deflection
b) Flag in view
c) Needles are pointing north
447. After indicator replacement a test with an EGT test set it has to be a) Not necessary to soak the test set
b) Soaked at ambient and calculate temp allowance c) Soaked to ambient and calibrate to 20°
448. Wire identification "x" by ATA 100 means a) A/C power
b) Warning circuit c) Ground network
449. To confirm correct combination of terminal and crimping tool has been selected a) Use go-no-go gauge
b) Check for dot cod mark c) Inspect insulation
450. Standard PIDG crimp tools have a) 1 adjustment position
b) 2 adjustment position c) 3 adjustment position Module 7 Maintenance Practices
451. How do you arrange the spacing of the rivets? a) 1.5 x diameter of the rivet shank
b) By measuring the thickness of the material c) 2 times the diameter of the rivet head 452. Worm gears are used to connect shafts
a) At right angles which lie on same planes b) At right angles which lie on different planes c) At acute angles which lie on same planes
453. What is the material on the upper and bottom surface of Alclad a) Magnesium
b) Aluminium Alloy c) Aluminium 454. What is monel?
a) Non ferrous metal containing nickel and copper b) Ferrous metal containing nickel and copper c) Non ferrous metal containing nickel and brass 455. What is Kevlar?
a) An aramid fibre b) A carbon fibre c) A glass fibre
456. When you need to remove a rivet what you do?
a) You chop the head off with a chissel and drill the shank out b) You drill the rivet completely out
c) You drill the head of the rivet and remove the head with chisel and the shank with a punch
457. When you measure internal diameter with vernier caliper? a) You subtract the thickness of the nips
b) You add the thickness of the nips c) You just read the caliper
458. Joining two dissimilar metals what chemical action is created? a) Galvanic action
b) Ionic action c) Caustic action
459. How do clean the chain when removed? a) Use degreaser
b) Use white spirit
c) Use linen cloth with paraffin
460. How do check the condition of the roller bearings?
a) By holding the outer race and rotating the outer race slowly b) By holding the inner race and rotating the outer race slowly c) By using magnetic flux inspection
461. An ac current sinusoidal wave the frequency is 1000Herts what is the periodic time?
a) 1ms b) 1000ms c) 1000s
462. Photovoltaic converts light into electricity by? a) Chemical action
b) Sunlight c) Heat
463. Lead acid cells produce electricity by a) Sunlight
b) Heat
c) Chemical action
464. Seebeck effect produces electricity by a) Heat
b) Sunlight
c) Chemical action
465. How do you measure the electrolyte? a) Hydrometer
b) Manometer c) Hygrometer
466. What is the unit of measure of electromotive force? a) Watts
b) Amperes c) Volts
467. On convectional current how are the electrons moves? a) From minus to plus
b) Opposite to the organized movement of electrons in a metal conductor c) From negative to positive
468. On primary surface the maximum allowable resistance is? a) 50 mOhms
b) 70 mOhms c) 120 mOhms
469. The CRS on Air Transports Aircraft can be signed by? a) An engineer in an approved Organization.
b) A type rated engineer
c) A type rated engineer authorized by an approved Organization.
470. Duplicate inspection is carried out when upsetting controls surface or engine controls or anything that upset’s the safety of the aircraft by?
a) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineer
b) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineer having CRS coverage c) By any inspector
Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts
471. Brown or black streaks coming from a rivet head would indicate a) Residue of lubrication
b) Rivets have been inserted with sealant c) Loose rivets
472. Rivet snap is used a) To form the rivet head
b)
To cut off excessive rivet lengthc) To hold the plates together whilst riveting 473. Drill size for 3/32 inch rivet is
a) F b) # 30 c) # 40
474. Drill size for 1/8 inch rivet is a) # 30
b) # 40 c) F
475. Drill size for 5/32 inch rivet is a) # 20
b) # 21 c) F
476. Drill size for 3/16 inch rivet is a) F
b) # 10 c) # 11
477. Drill size for 1/4 inch rivet is a) # 1
b) F c) O
478. Drill size for 5/16 inch rivet is a) O
b) F c) V
479. Drill size for 3/8 inch rivet is a) O
b) F c) V
480. Whilst riveting, "clearance" is necessary to a) Form the rivet head
b) Prevent pocketing (puckering) of the sheet when the rivet head is formed c) Prevent the rivet tearing through the edge of the sheet
Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts
481. How many incorrect rivets are in the pictures above a) 5
b) 6 c) 7
482. Image B: Rivet swelled between sheets because
a) Parts have not been properly held together during riveting b) There is a filler installed
c) There is sealant in the gap
483. Image B: Rivet swelled between sheets because a) Driving was too weak
b) There is sealant in the gap
c) There are chips between the sheets 484. Image B: Rivet swelled between sheets.
a) Remove rivet and correct condition b) Drive until sheets are flat
c) Rivet is ok for service 485. Image C: Rivet
a) Drive until shape is ok
b) Bucking bar was not held at the proper angle when riveting c) Must not be driven to get correct shape
486. Image C: Rivet a) Drive until shape is ok
b) Must not be driven to get correct shape
c) Cannot be hammered to proper shape when head is too thin on one side 487. Image D: Rivet
a) Is ok for service b) Rivet is too short
c) Drive upper side to get the same shape as on the lower side 488. Image D: Rivet
a) Was hit too hard during driving
b) Drive upper side to get the same shape as on the lower side c) Does not need to be replaced
489. Image E: Rivet head clinched because a) Wrong tipe of bucking bar was used
b) Rivet gun bar held at an angle when rivet was driven c) Bucking bar held at an angle when rivet was driven 490. Image E: Rivet head clinched
a) Form the rivet head b) Rivet needs to be removed
Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts
491. For interior furnishing where no high strength is required type ____ rivets are used.