MOCK TEST for UP-CPMT 2016

(1)

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 200

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :

1. UP-CPMT is consists of one paper of four subjects - Physics, Chemistry, Zoology and Botany. Each subject contains 50 questions and each correct answer carries one mark. No negative marking.

2. The exam can be written in Hindi or English language. After a candidate clears this exam there is another examination of objective type Hindi questions to check the basic knowledge of Hindi of candidate.

3. Read each question carefully.

4. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.

5. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle in the answer sheet.

6. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once marked.

7. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.

8. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

9. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing.

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MOCK TEST MOCK TEST MOCK TEST MOCK TEST MOCK TEST

for UP

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UP-CPMT 2016 -CPMT 2016 -CPMT 2016 -CPMT 2016 -CPMT 2016

Choose the correct answer :

1. Refrigerator is based on the principle of (1) Laws of thermodynamics

(2) Newton’s laws of motion (3) Digital logic

(4) Nuclear fission

2. A particle is thrown with speed u at an angle of projection  with horizontal as shown



J H K

y

O A x

h h

(i) The average velocity of particle from O to A is u cos .

(ii) The average velocity of particle from O to H (highest point) is _{1 3cos}²

2

u  .

PHYSICS

(iii) The average velocity of particle from J to K is u cos .

(iv) The angle between the velocity and the acceleration between O and H is greater than 90º, between H to A is less than 90º and at highest point is 90º.

Then correct statements are

(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii)

(3) (ii), (iv) (4) All options are correct 3. For a given velocity, a projectile has the same range R

for two angles of projection if t₁ and t₂ are the times of flight in the two cases then

(1) _{t t1 2}_R² (2) t t_{1 2} R (3) t t_{1 2} ¹

R (4) t t_{1 2} ¹₂

R

(2) 4. Three blocks of mass 3 kg, 4 kg and 5 kg are

connected to each other with light strings and are then placed on a smooth frictionless surface as shown in the figure. Let the system be pulled with a force of 12 N from the side of the lighter mass. The tensions T₁ and T₂ in the connecting strings are

3 kg 4 kg 5 kg F = 12 N T1 T2

(1) 9 N, 5 N (2) 10 N, 6 N (3) 12 N, 8 N (4) 0, 0

5. A person aiming to reach the exactly opposite point on the bank of a stream is swimming with a speed of 0.5 m/s at an angle of 120º with the direction of flow of water. The speed of water in the stream is

(1) 1 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s

(3) 0.25 m/s (4) 0.433 m/s

6. A particle is thrown with the speed u at an angle  with the horizontal. When the particle makes an angle

with the horizontal, its speed will be

(1) ucos (2) ucossec

(3) ucoscos (4) useccos

7. A body starts from rest and aquires a velocity v in time T. The work done on the body in time t will be proportional to

(1) v t

T (2)

2 2

v tT (3)

2

v t2

T (4)

2 2 2

v t T

8. A particle moves along the x-axis from x = 1 to x = 3 m under the influence of a force F = 3x² – 2x + 5 N. The work done in this process is

(1) 9 J (2) 28 J

(3) 27 J (4) Zero

9. A solid sphere of mass m and radius r is melted and given shape of a solid cyclinder of length l. The moment of intertia of cylinder about its axis is (1) ^{2 2}

5mr (2) 4 ³

3 mr

l (3) 1 ³

2 mr

l (4) 2 ³

3 mr

l

10. If moment of inertia of a body rotating with  decreases by 20% then the angular velocity increases by

(1) 20% (2) 25%

(3) 40% (4) 30%

11. The period of revolution of a satellite in an orbit of radius R is T. Its period of revolution is an orbit of radius 2R is

(1) 2

T (2) _{2 2T}

(3) _2T (4) 2T

12. In some region, the gravitational field is zero. The gravitational potential in this region

(1) Must be variable (2) Must be constant (3) Can not be zero (4) Mustbe zero

13. A solid sphere of density  (>1) times lighter than water is suspended in a water tank by a string tied to its base as shown in figure. If the mass of the sphere is m then the tension in the string is given by

(1) ⎛ 1 mg⎞

⎜  ⎟

⎝ ⎠ (2)  mg

(3) _{ }^mg₁ (4) ( – 1)mg

14. A large number of water drops each of radius r combine to form a single drop of radius R. If the surface tension is T and the mechanical equivalent of heat is J, then the rise in temperature will be

(1) ^2T

rJ (2) ^3T

rJ (3) 3T 1 1

SJ r R

⎛  ⎞

⎜ ⎟

 ⎝ ⎠ (4) ^{2T 1 1}

J r R

⎛  ⎞

⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

15. An object of weight W and density  is dipped in a fluid of density ₁. Its apparent weight will be

(1) W   





(2) ^W⎛⎜⎝^1^1⎞⎟⎠

(3)





W

  

(4) W   





(3) 16. Gas is expanded to double its volume by two different

process. If W₁ is work done for isobaric and W₂ is work done for isothermal process then ratio of W₁ to W₂

(1) ln2 (2) ¹

2 (3) 1

ln2 (4) None of these

17. For hydrogen C_P – C_V = A and for oxygen gas C_P – C_V = B. The relation between A and B is (All C_P and C_V are having same units) (1) A = 16

(2) B = A (3) 16A = B (4) B = 16 18. In V – T graph

V

T

1 2

P1

P2

(1) P₁ = P₂ (2) P₁ > P₂ (3) P₁ < P₂ (4) P₂ = 2P₁

19. In an isothermal process on an ideal gas, the pressure increases by 0.5%. The volume decreases by about (1) 0.25%

(2) 0.5%

(3) 0.7%

(4) 1%

20. Two thermally insulated vessels 1 and 2 are filled with air at temperature (T₁, T₂), volume (V₁, V₂) and pressure (P₁, P₂) respectively. If the valve joining the two vessels is opened, the temperature inside the vessel at equilibrium will be

(1)





(2)





2 T T

(3) ^{1 2 1 1 2 2}

1 1 2 2 2 1

( )

( )

T T PV P V PV T P V T



 (4) ^{1 2 1 1 2 2}

1 1 1 2 2 2

( )

( )

T T PV P V PV T P V T





21. Which of the following equation does not represent an standing wave?

(1) y2sin(4 )cos(5 )t x (2) y 5 sin(3 )sin(3 )t x (3) y11cos(2 )cos( )t t (4) y 12cos(3 )cos(3 )t x

22. A scooter sounding horn passes by a standing observer with constant velocity. The observer notes the ratio of frequency of horn before passing and after passing as 17 : 16. If speed of sound is 330 m/s, then speed of scooter is

(1) 10 m/s (2) 12.5 m/s (3) 20 m/s (4) 15 m/s

23. A simple pendulum of length l and mass m oscillates with small amplitude. If constant force f is applied on bob of mass m in downward direction, the time period of oscillation becomes

(1) 2

 ml mg f

(2) 2 ml

 mg f

 (3) 2 ml

 f mg



(4) 2 l

 g

24. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, Which makes a angle  with the horizontal. The surface charge density  of the sheet is proportional to

 +

+



B S

(1) tan  (2) cot  (3) cos  (4) sin 

(4) 25. If an electron enters into space between the plates of

parallel plate capacitor at an angle  with the plates and leaves at an angle  to the plates, the ratio of its kinetic energy while entering the capacitor to that while leaving will be

(1) sin 2

sin

⎛ ⎞

⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠ (2)

cos 2

cos

⎛ ⎞

⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

(3) cos 2

cos

⎛ ⎞

⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠ (4)

sin 2

sin

⎛ ⎞

⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

26. The spatial distribution of the electric field due to charges (C, D) is shown in figure. Which one of the following statement is correct?

C D

(1) C is positive and D is negative and C > D (2) C is negative and D is positive and C = D (3) Both are negatively but C > D

(4) Both C and D are positive but C < D

27. Two equal charge q are placed at a distance 2d and a third charge –2q is placed at the midpoint. The potential energy of the system is

(1)

2 0

q

8 d (2)

2 0

6q 8 d

(3)

2 0

7q 8 d

  (4)

2 0

9q 8 d

28. Find the capacitance for the given arrangement A

B

A/2 A/2 k1 k2

k3 d d/2

(1) ^{1 2 3 0}

1 2 3

k k k A

k k k d

⎛ ⎞ 

⎜   ⎟

⎝ ⎠ (2)





1 3 2

k k 2k A

k k 2k d

⎛  ⎞

⎜   ⎟

⎝ ⎠

(3)





1 2 3

k k 2k A

k k 2k d

⎛  ⎞

⎜   ⎟

⎝ ⎠ (4) ^{1 2 3 0}

1 2 3

2k k k A

k k k d

⎛ ⎞ 

⎜   ⎟

⎝ ⎠

29. Two capacitors C₁ and C₂ in a circuit are joined as shown. If V_A = V₁, V_B = V₂, the potential of point P is

B

C1 C2

AV1 V2

P

(1) 1 V V





2 

(2) ^{2 1 1 2}

1 2

C V C V C C



 (3) ^{1 1 2 2}

1 2

C V C V C C



 (4) ^{2 1 1 2}

1 2

C V C V C C





30. The resistance of a wire at 20°C is 20 and at 500°C is 60 . At what temperature, resistance will be 25 ?

(1) 50°C (2) 60°C (3) 70°C (4) 80°C

31. If each resistance in the figure is of 9 , then reading of ammeter is

9 V+ –

A (1) 5 A

(2) 8 A (3) 2 A (4) 9 A

32. A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting

(1) Low resistance in series (2) High resistance in parallel (3) Low resistance in parallel (4) High resistance in series

33. A solenoid consists of 100 turns of wire and has a length of 10 cm. The magnetic field inside the solenoid when it carries current of 0.5 A will be (1) 6.28 × 10^–4 T

(2) 3.14 × 10^–4 T (3) 6.28 × 10^–5 T (4) 3.14 × 10^–5 T

(5) 34. Find the angle through which a magnet is to be rotated

from rest position when it is suspended in a magnetic field so that it experiences half of the maximum couple.

(1) 60º (2) 45º (3) 30º (4) 90º

35. A proton, a deutron and an -particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular trajectories in a constant magnetic field. If r_p, r_d, and r_, denote respectively the radii of trajectories of these particles then

(1) r_ = r_p < r_d (2) r_ > r_d > r_p (3) r_ = r_d > r_p (4) r_p = r_d < r_

36. Ratio of the magnetic field at points P and Q is

N S

2 m

P Q

4 m

(1) ¹ 4 (2) ⁴ 1 (3) ₈¹ (4) ⁸ 1

37. If absolute temperature of paramagnetic substance is increased by 3% then percentage change in its susceptibility is

(1) + 3%

(2) + 1.5%

(3) – 3%

(4) – 1.5%

38. What is self induction of a coil which produces 10 mV, when current in it changes from 10 A to 5 A in 4 second?

(1) 2 mH (2) 4 mH (3) 8 mH (4) 1 mH

39. A transformer is used to light a 100 W - 100 V lamp from 220 V mains. If main current is 0.5 A, efficiency of transformer is

(1) 50.9% (2) 89.9%

(3) 90.9% (4) 80.9%

40. An electromagnetic wave travels along z-axis. Which of the following pairs of space and time varying fields would generate such a wave?

(1) E_x, B_y (2) E_z, B_x (3) E_z, B_y (4) E_y, B_z

41. Keeping the incident ray fixed, if the mirror is rotated through an angle , about an axis in the plane of mirror, then the reflected ray rotates through an angle

(1)  (2) 2

(3) 2

 (4) Zero

42. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is 80 cm. What is the focal length of eye-piece to get magnification of 20?

(1) 3 cm (2) 4 cm

(3) 5 cm (4) 2 cm

43. The slits in a Young's double slit experiment have equal width and the source is placed symmetrically with respect to the slits. The intensity at the central fringe is I₀. If one of the slits is closed then intensity at this point will be

(1) I₀ (2) I₀/ 4 (3) I₀/ 2 (4) 4I₀

44. Figure shows plane waves refracted from air to water using Huygen's principle a, b, c, d, e are length on the diagram. The refractive index of water w.r.t. air is

a b

c

d e

air

water

(1) a/e (2) b/e

(3) b/d (4) d/b

(6) 45. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light

of wavelength  incident on the surface of metal of work function () is

(1)

1/2

max 2(hc )

V m

⎡   ⎤

 ⎢⎣  ⎥⎦ (2)

1/2

max (hc )

V m

⎡   ⎤

 ⎢⎣  ⎥⎦ (3)

1/2

max (hc )

V ⎡   ⎤

 ⎢⎣  ⎥⎦ (4)

1/2

max hc

V m

⎡ ⎤

 ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

46. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom, which transition shown represents the emission of a photon with the highest energy?

n = 4 n = 3 n = 2 n = 1 I

II

III 40 mm IV

(1) I (2) II

(3) III (4) IV

47. What is the number of  and  particles emitted in the following radioactive decay?

200 168

90X 80Y

(1) 8 and 6 (2) 6 and 8

(3) 8 and 8 (4) 6 and 6

48. Current in the circuit will be

20 

30 

20  5 V

(1) 5/40 A (2) 5/50 A

(3) 5/10 A (4) 5/20 A

49. In the following common emitter configuration an NPN transistor with current gain  = 100 is used. The output voltage of the amplifier will be

1 mV 1 k 10 k

Vout

(1) 10 mV (2) 0.1 V

(3) 1.0 V (4) 10 V

50. In a communication system the receiver uses 10³  resistor and 10 F capacitor to detect modulated wave.

Determine the maximum frequency of carrier wave which can be detected (Modulation index = 0.3) (1) _{1 Hz}

6 (2) 3 Hz

5



(3) 3 Hz 2

 (4) 5 Hz

3



51. Mass of one mole molecules of CO₂ is (1) 44 g (2) 2.65 × 10²⁴ u (3) 40 u (4) Both (1) & (2) 52. Molar mass = Vapour density × 2 is not valid for

(1) Metals (2) Non-metals

(3) Solids (4) All of these 53. Balmer series belongs to

(1) UV region (2) IR region (3) Visible region (4) All of these

54. A gas absorbs photon of 355 nm and emits at two wavelengths. If one of the emission is at 680 nm, the other is at

(1) 1035 nm (2) 325 nm

(3) 743 nm (4) 518 nm

55. Ionic radii is

(1) Directly proportional to effective nuclear charge (2) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge (3) Directly proportional to square of effective nuclear

charge

(4) Inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge

56. Which of the following has non-zero dipole moment?

(1) PF₃Cl₂ (2)

Cl

Cl (3) XeF₄ (4) Trans-N₂F₄

CHEMISTRY

(7) 57. At high pressure compressibility factor Z is

(1) Greater than 1 (2) Less than 1 (3) Equal to 1 (4) 0

58. At very high pressure van der Waals equation reduces to

(1) _{PV RT Pb } (2) _PV ^aRT₂

 V (3) _P ^RT

 V b

 (4) PV RT a

 V 59. Which of the following has H^º_f = 0?

(1) I₂(g) (2) P(black)

(3) Br₂(l) (4) O₃(g)

60. The solubility of AgCl in water, in 0.02 M CaCl₂, in 0.01 M NaCl, and in 0.05 M AgNO₃ are S₀, S₁, S₂, and S₃ respectively. Which of the following relationships between these quantities is correct?

(1) S₀ > S₁ > S₂ > S₃ (2) S₀ > S₂ > S₁ > S₃ (3) S₀ > S₁ = S₂ > S₃ (4) S₀ > S₂ > S₃ > S₁

61. The dissociation constant of weak acid HA is 4.9 × 10^–8. After making necessary approximations.

Calculate pH of 0.1 M acid.

(1) 1.155 (2) 2.155

(3) 3.155 (4) 4.155

62. The violent reaction between sodium and water is an example of

(1) Redox reaction (2) Neutralization (3) Reduction (4) Oxidation

63. In CaF₂ structure the co-ordination numbers of calcium and fluoride ions are

(1) 8 & 4 (2) 6 & 8 (3) 4 & 4 (4) 4 & 8

64. Among the solutions which shows the lowest osmotic pressure?

(1) 0.10 M NaCl (2) 0.05 M CaCl₂ (3) 0.04 M K₃[Fe(CN)₆] (4) 0.03 M FeCl₃

65. If thin slice of sugar beet is placed in concentrated solution of NaCl, then

(1) Sugar beet will lose water from its cells (2) Sugar beet will absorb water from solution (3) Neither absorb nor loose water

(4) Sugar beet will dissolve in water

66. If H_mix and S_mix are positive, then the condition is for (1) Ideal solution

(2) Non-ideal solution

(3) Non-ideal negative deviation (4) None of these

67. In Daniel cell, if Ag rod is placed in cathodic compartment, then

(1) E_cell changes

(2) Zn⁺² ions concentration increases (3) Cu⁺² ion concentration decreases (4) No change occur

68. If ^º ₂ ^º ₂

A / A B /B

E   2.40 V, E   0.75 V and

º C /C2

E   1.5 V, then which reaction has Gº = +ve?

(1) C + B⁺² C⁺² + B (2) B + A⁺²  B²⁺ + A (3) A + C⁺²  A⁺² + C (4) None of these 69. A substance undergoes first order

decomposition involving two paral- lel first order reactions as

k₁ = 1.25 × 10^–4 s^–1

B

C k1

k2

A

k₂ = 3.80 × 10^–5 s^–1

The mole percentage of B in the products is

(1) 23.17 (2) 77

(3) 30.16 (4) 69.84

70. Which of the following isobar is correct for chemical adsorption?

(1) mx

T At constant P

(2) mx

T At constant P

(3) x m

T At constant P

(4) x m

T At constant P

(8) 71. Which of the following electron displacement effect is

temporary in nature?

(1) Inductive Effect

(2) Resonance or Mesomeric Effect (3) Electromeric Effect

(4) Hyperconjugation Effect

72. Which of the following alkene is having highest number of -Hydrogens?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

73. ^{1% basic}_KMnO

4 A, A is

(1) OH

OH

(2)

OH OH (3)

OH

OH (4) Both (1) & (2) 74. Which of the following alkyne gives Tollen’s test?

(1) CH₃ – C C – CH₃ (2) CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃ (3) CH₃ – CH = CH₂ (4) CH  CH

75. The term “MIC” means (1) Methylcyanide (2) Microscope (3) Methyl Isocyanate (4) Methyl salicylate

76. The stratosphere extends from height above sea level is (1) 10 to 50 km

(2) 50 to 60 km (3) 55 to 95 km (4) None of these

77. In the reaction

Br

CH – CH – CH – Br_{3 2} (i) X mole NaNH 2

(i) C H Br 2 5

3 2 5

CH   C C C H The value of [X] is (1) One

(2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

78. A compound C₄H₁₀O does not react with Na. With excess of HI, it gives only one type of alkyl halide.

The compound is (1) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH (2) CH₃CH₂CH₂—OCH₃ (3) CH —CH—CH —CH_{3 2 3}

OH

(4) CH₃CH₂—O—CH₂—CH₃

79. The correct stability order of the following three quinones is

O O

O O

O O

I II III

(1) I > III > II (2) I = III > II (3) I = II > III (4) III > II > I

80. Which of the following carboxylic acids decarboxylate easily?

(1) O–

COOH

(2)

CH COOH2

(3)

NO2

COOH NO2

O2N

(4) n-C₄H₉COOH

81. Which of the following has minimum pK_a value?

(1) FCH₂COOH (2) Cl₃CCOOH

(3)

COOH

(4)

OH

NO2

NO2

O2N

82. CH —N C₃ ^LiAlH4 X; X is

(1) CH₃—NH—CH₃ (2) CH₃—NH₂ (3) CH₃—CH₂—NH₂ (4) CH —N—CH_{3 3}

CH₃

(9) 83. Reagent used in Hofmann–Bromamide reaction is

(1) Br₂/Na (2) Br₂ + KOH

(3) NBS (4) KBr + NaHCO₃

84.

OH

CH —CH—CN₃ ^{(1) LiAlH}_{(2) H O} ⁴ X

2 ; X is

(1)

O CH —C—NH_{3 2}

(2)

OH

CH —CH—CH_{3 2}—NH₂

(3)

OH

CH —CH—CH —NH_{3 2 2} CH₃

(4) All of these

85. The calorific values of fats, carbohydrates and proteins vary in the order

(1) Fats > Carbohydrates > Proteins (2) Fats > Proteins > Carbohydrates (3) Carbohydrates > Proteins > Fats (4) Proteins > Carbohydrates > Fats 86. Terylene is the polyster of

(1) Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid (2) Melamine and formaldehyde

(3) Vinyl chloride and formaldehyde

(4) Hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid

87. ^{n neutron}_{p proton}^⎛⎜ ^⎞⎟

⎝ ⎠ ratio is maximum for (1) Protium (2) Deuterium

(3) Tritium (4) Hydrogen

88. Number of total diatomic hydrogens possible by using all three isotopes of hydrogen is

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

89. Order of density of alkaline earth metals (1) Be < Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba

(2) Ba > Sr > Be > Mg > Ca (3) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba (4) Be < Mg > Ca < Sr < Ba

90. Oxidation number of N in hydrazine may be

(1) –3 (2) +4

(3) +3 (4) –2

91. Total number of bonds between P and O in P₄O₁₀

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 16 (4) 10

92. Spelter is

(1) Impure Cu (2) Impure Zn

(3) ZnO (4) CuO

93. Near the top of a blast furnace employed for the extraction of iron, the metal oxide are reduced to spongy iron by

(1) Carbon (2) CO

(3) CO₂ (4) Limestone

94. Electrolytic reduction process is used for the purification of

(1) Alkali metal (2) Alkaline earth metals (3) Non-metal (4) Both (1) & (2) 95. German silver is an alloy of

(1) Copper, zinc and nickel (2) Copper and silver (3) Copper and tin

(4) Copper, zinc and silver 96. Calomel and lunar caustic are

(1) Hg₂Cl₂, AgNO₃ (2) HgCl₂, AgNO₃ (3) AgNO₃, Hg₂Cl₂ (4) Ag₂NO₃, HgCl₂ 97. 2PbS + 3O₂ 2PbO + 2SO₂

The above process is called

(1) Roasting (2) Calcination (3) Smelting (4) Leaching 98. The formula of ferrocene is

(1) [(⁵ – C₅H₅)₂Fe] (2) [Fe(CN)₆]^–3 (3) [Fe(CN)₆]^–2 (4) [Fe(CO)₅] 99. Vitamin B-12 contains

(1) Cobalt (2) Mg

(3) Iron (4) Nickel

100. Which colour ppt formed when Zn reacts with DMG?

(1) Red (2) White (3) Yellow

(4) No ppt formed

(10) 101. Archaebacteria live in some of the most harsh

habitats due to the

(1) Presence of muramic acid in cell wall (2) Absence of motile structure

(3) Presence of nucleoid with introns

(4) Presence of branched chain of lipid in cell membrane

102. In Whittaker’s system of classification, multicellular transducers with tissue/organ grade of organisation, are included in how many kingdoms?

(1) Only one kingdom (2) Two kingdoms (3) Three kingdoms (4) Four kingdoms

103. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. taxonomic categories.

(1) Dicotyledone, Monocotyledonae, Insecta (2) Poales, Sapindales, Muscidae

(3) Brassicaceae, Poaceae, Hominidae (4) Triticum, Mangifera, Musca

104. Complete the following analogy Sponge : Archaeocytes : Hydra :

(1) Cnidoblasts (2) Nematocysts (3) Interstitial cells (4) Choanocytes

105. The Aristotle’s lantern of Echinoid is an apparatus that function as

(1) Respiratory (2) Excretory (3) Masticatory (4) Photoreceptors

106. Unsegmented body, calcareous shell, feather like gills, rasping organ “Radula” and body divisible into head, visceral hump and foot are characteristics of phylum _____?

(1) Arthropoda (2) Mollusca (3) Echinodermata (4) Hemichordata

107. Buccal diverticulum of hemichordates is found in (1) Proboscis (2) Collar

(3) Trunk (4) Gills

108. Spermathecae are present in (1) Male cockroach in 6^th segment (2) Female cockroach in 6^th segment

(3) Male cockroach in 5^th segment

(4) Female cockroach in 5^th segment 109. Haversian system is characteristic feature of

(1) Epiphyses of mamalian bone (2) Compact bone of mammals (3) Spongy bone of mammals (4) Diaphyses of frog bone

110. The wall of alimentary canal possess different layers.

Mark the exact arrangement from inner to outer side in stomach region

(1) Mucosa  submucosa  oblique muscle

circular muscle  longitudinal  serosa (2) Serosa  longitudinal  circular  oblique

submucosa  mucosa

(3) Mucosa  submucosa  circular  oblique  longitudinal  serosa

(4) Mucosa  circular  longitudinal  submucosa

 oblique  serosa

111. Which of the following is a brush bordered enzyme that acts on starch fragments in the intestine?

(1) Lactase (2) Sucrase

(3)  dextrinase (4) Amylopsin

112. Maximum amount of water reabsorption per unit surface area occur in which part of alimentary canal?

(1) Jejunum (2) Duodenum

(3) Ileum (4) Large intestine 113. A chemosensitive area of brain is situated adjacent

to the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to (1) Less O₂ concentration in venous blood (2) Less CO₂ concentration in arterial blood (3) More CO₂ concentration in arterial blood (4) Less H⁺ concentration in CSF

114. Total volume of air, a person can expire after a normal inspiration is

(1) Inspiratory capacity (2) Expiratory capacity

(3) Functional residual capacity (4) Vital capacity

ZOOLOGY

(11) 115. The blood group in which both antigens (A and B)

present on the surface of RBC is

(1) A (2) B

(3) O (4) AB

116. The cuspid valves are connected below to the walls of ventricles by means special thread like structure called

(1) Columnae carnae (2) Moderator band (3) Chordae tendinae (4) Trabeculae carnae

117. If the systolic blood pressure is 130 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is 70 mm of Hg, what will be the mean arterial blood pressure?

(1) 90 mm of Hg (2) 100 mm of Hg (3) 60 mm of Hg (4) 50 mm of Hg

118. Mark the correct match w.r.t. abnormal constituents of urine and corresponding condition.

(1) Ketonuria – Diabetes mellitus

(2) Albuminuria – Due to injury in urinary tract (3) Glycosuria – Diabetes insipidus

(4) Haemoglobinuria – Glomerulonephritis

119. The part of tubular system of nephron involves passive absorption of Na⁺ ion in

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Descending limb of loop of Henle

(3) Thin segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle (4) Distal convoluted tubule of nephron

120. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. cortical nephron in human kidney.

(1) They are about 85 percent of total nephron (2) Their glomeruli lie in the outer cortex

(3) Loops of Henle are very short, without vasa recta (4) They mainly control plasma volume when water

intake is less

121. In striped muscles, cross bridges rapidly dissociates when

(1) ADP and inorganic phosphate separates from myosin head

(2) ATP attaches to myosin head (3) Calcium binds to tropomyosin

(4) Troponin tropomyosin complex masks the active binding sites for myosin on the actin filaments 122. The joint between the carpal and metacarpal of the

thumb, is an example of (1) Hinge joint

(2) Saddle joint (3) Pivot joint (4) Ellipsoid joint

123. All the following structures are found in an electrical synapse, except

(1) Gap junction (2) Synaptic vesicles (3) Presynaptic membrane (4) Post-synaptic membrane 124. Select the correct statement.

(1) Action potential is determined largely by Mg-phosphate

(2) Action potential is determined largely by K⁺ ions (3) Action potential is determined largely by Ca⁺⁺ ion (4) Resting potential is determined largely by K⁺ ion 125. Blind person can observe any object better with the help of touch. It is due to more developed sensory perception of touch situated in

(1) Frontal lobe (2) Parietal lobe (3) Temporal lobe (4) Occipital lobe

126. Following hormones are present in hypothalamo hypophyseal portal vein, except

(1) Somatostatin (2) Somatotropin

(3) Prolactin inhibiting hormone (4) Melanocyte releasing hormone

(12) 127. Penile urethra passes through

(1) Between two corpora cavernosa (2) Corpus spongiosum

(3) Between Corpora cavernosa and Corpus spongiosum

(4) Corpora cavernosa

128. Mark the odd one w.r.t. second messenger of hormones.

(1) cGMP (2) DG (3) ATP (4) IP₃

129. The secondary follicle transforms into a tertiary follicle, which is characterised by

(1) The follicle gets surrounded by a new theca layer (2) A fluid filled cavity called antrum

(3) The formation of secondary oocyte and a large polar body

(4) Cells of follicle are without the receptor for LH 130. Foetal ejection reflex is first sign of parturition. The

signals for parturition originate from the (1) Mother heavy weight of foetus (2) Fully grown foetus and placenta (3) Mother and developed foetus both (4) Corpus luteum

131. Which of the following barrier method does not fully protect against S.T.Ds?

(1) Condoms (2) Cervical vaults (3) Diaphragms (4) Both (2) & (3)

132. ART helps to overcome infertility by applying any of the following techniques, except

(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT (3) IVF (4) MTP

133. If a character is controlled by a gene which has 3 alleles, then how many genotypes are possible in population?

(1) 6 (2) 27 (3) 15 (4) 9

134. If parents are aaBBCcDd and aabbccdd, then phenotypic ratio in the resulting progeny will be (1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

135. If a colourblind man married to a woman whose father was colourblind, what proportion of his sons will be colourblind?

(1) 100%

(2) 50%

(3) 25%

(4) 0%

136. Complete linkage in a dihybrid cross can be identified by

(1) F₂ phenotype ratio as 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) F₁ phenotype ratio as 2 : 1 (3) Test cross ratio of 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) F₂ genotypic ratio as 1 : 2 : 1

137. Removal of primer strand during auto-catalytic function of DNA occurs by exonuclease activity in

(1) 3’ 5’ by korenberg enzyme (2) 5’ 3’ by DNA polymerase I (3) 5’ 3’ by DNA polymerase III (4) 3’ 5’ by DNA polymerase I and III

138. Choose odd one out w.r.t. enzymes involved in post transcriptional processing.

(1) Guanyl transferase (2) Ribonuclease-P (3) SnRNPs (4) Translocase

(13) 139. Which of the following statement is correct for the

genome of  174?

(1) 2693 base pairs

(2) 10,770 phosphodiester bonds (3) 5386 glycosidic linkages (4) 40% GºC pairs 39

140. Which of the following are best examples of the evidence for evolution?

(1) Homology and analogy

(2) Fossil record and molecular record (3) Homology and vestigeal structures

(4) Vestigeal structures and biogeographical evidences

141. Darwin’s finches of different galapagos islands varied yet they were closely related to each other, such an evolutionary process is called

(1) Artificial selection (2) Adaptive convergence (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Parallel evolution

142. Who amongst the following left behind very elaborate cave paintings showing the attainment of a form of culture not unlike our own?

(1) Neanderthal man (2) Cromagnon man (3) Heidelberg man (4) Peking man

143. Bam HI cuts the DNA between bases G and G only when the sequence in the DNA is

(1) ⁵GGATCC³’ (2) ⁵’AGGCCT³’ (3) ⁵’CCTGGA³’ (4) ⁵’CGGCCG³

144. Which of the following is direct method of gene transfer?

(1) ‘Disarmed pathogen’ vectors, when allowed to infect the cell, can transfer the recombinant DNA into the cell

(2) Electroporation

(3) With the help of Agrobacterium tumefacirns (4) Plasmid vector

145. Cell mediated immunity is responsible for rejection of organ transplant or graft. Which of the following graft has maximum differences in their MHC antigens and could be rejected easily?

(1) Autograft (2) Isograft (3) Xenograft (4) Allograft

146. Choose incorrectly matched pair.

(1) Gluconic acid – Penicillium chrysogenum (2) Cyclosporin A – Mortierella renispora (3) Large holed Propionibacterium

swiss cheese sharmanii

(4) Butter milk – Lactobacillus acidophilus 147. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab

by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams. It is an example of

(1) Inbreeding (2) Out crossing (3) Cross breeding (4) Interspecific breeding 148. Mark incorrect match.

Branch Produce obtained

(1) Apiculture – Honey and wax (2) Lac culture – Shellac

(3) Sericulture – Bombyx mori (4) Pisciculture – Fishes

149. The current species extinction rates are estimated to be 100 to 1000 times faster than in pre-human times due to

(1) Mass extinction (2) Background extinction (3) Natural extinction (4) Sixth extinction

150. Although India has only 2.4 percent of the world’s land area, its share of the global species diversity is an impressive

(1) 8.1%

(2) 12%

(3) 2%

(4) 70%

(14)

BOTANY

151. Which cell organelle plays a significant role in origin of plasmodesmata?

(1) Golgi body (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Lysosome (4) Mitochondria

152. Which of the following is absent in pit areas?

(1) Primary wall (2) Secondary wall (3) Middle lamella (4) Plasma membrane 153. Fluid Mosaic model of plasma membrane was

proposed by

(1) Danielli and Davson (2) J.D. Robertson (3) Singer and Nicolson (4) Purkinje 154. Unicisternal dictyosomes are found in

(1) Plant cells (2) Fungi (3) Bacterial cells (4) Algal cells

155. The movement of chrmosome towards the equatorial line during metaphase is called

(1) Terminalization (2) Congression (3) Bouquet formation (4) Disjunction 156. Correct sequence of stages in cell cycle is

(1) G₁ – G₂ – S – M (2) S – G₁ – G₂ – M (3) M – G₁ – G₂ – S (4) G₁ – S – G₂ – M 157. Splitting of centromere and separation of sister

chromatids occur in

(1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase (3) Prophase (4) Telophase 158. Which one is correct for ectomycorrhiza?

(1) Called VAM (2) Orchid – Boletus (3) Pinus – Boletus (4) Pinus – Glomus 159. Mycorrhiza is

(1) Commensalism between fungi and root of plants (2) Mutualism between fungi and algae

(3) Mutualism between fungi and stem of higher plants

(4) Mutualism between fungi and root of higher plants

160. Lichen is symbiotic association of

(1) Autotrophic component with large amount and heterotrophic with less amount

(2) Autotrophic fungi and heterotrophic algae (3) Autotrophic algae and heterotrophic fungi (4) Heterotrophic algae and heterotrophic fungi

161. Lichen is indicator of

(1) Soil pollution (2) Water pollution (3) SO₂ pollution (4) CO₂ pollution 162. Litmus paper obtained from

(1) Mycorrhiza (2) Rocella (3) Parmelia (4) Chlorella

163. Common algae and fungal partner of lichens are (1) Green algae and Basidiomycetes

(2) Brown algae and Ascomycetes (3) Red algae and Basidiomycetes (4) Green algae and Ascomycetes 164. Colchicine is obtained from a member of

(1) Solanaceae (2) Liliaceae (3) Fabaceae (4) Brassicaceae

165. An example of seed with endosperm, perisperm and caruncle is

(1) Cotton (2) Coffee

(3) Lily (4) Castor

166. Persistent calyx is character of plants belonging to family

(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae (3) Cruciferae (4) Asteraceae 167. Commercial cork is obtained from

(1) Quercus/oak (2) Betula/birch (3) Salix/willow (4) Mangifera/mango 168. Functional xylem of a woody tree is

(1) Sap wood (2) Spring wood (3) Autumn wood (4) Heart wood 169. Sap wood is

(1) Physically inactive but physiologically active (2) Physiologically dead but physically active (3) Physically as well as physiologically active (4) Physically as well as physiologically inactive 170. Cuticular transpiration is maximum upto

(1) 1.5% of total transpiration (2) 60% in most of the plant (3) 50% in herbaceous plants (4) 90% in most of the plants

(15) 171. Which of the following light induces maximum opening

of stomata?

(1) Red light (2) Green light (3) Blue light (4) Yellow light

172. In which of the following plants, there will be no transpiration?

(1) Plants lives in desert

(2) Aquatic plants with floating leaves (3) Plants growing in hilly regions (4) Aquatic submerged plants

173. Application of phenyl mercuric acetate(PMA) results in

(1) Reduced photosynthesis (2) Decreased respiration (3) Reduced transpiration (4) Killing of plants

174. Requirement of trace elements by plants is (1) In excess of 10 mmole kg^–1 ofdry matter (2) Less than 10 mmole kg^–1 of dry matter (3) In excess of 0.1 mmole kg^–1 of dry matter (4) Less than 0.1 mmole kg^–1 of dry matter 175. Which of the following is a macronutrient element?

(1) Potassium (2) Zink

(3) Copper (4) Manganese

176. Which substance undergo decarboxylation firstly in aerobic respiration?

(1) PGAL (2) Pyruvic acid

(3) -KGA (4) Acetyl Co-A

177. Isomerization takes place in (1) Kreb’s cycle

(2) Oxidative phosphorylation (3) Glycolysis

(4) Link reaction

178. How many oxidative decarboxylation occur in aerobic respiration?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 6

179. In chloroplast, chlorophyll is present in the (1) Stroma

(2) Outer membrane (3) Inner membrane (4) Thylakoids

180. Which one of the following categories of organisms do not evolve oxygen during photosynthesis?

(1) Red algae

(2) Photosynthetic bacteria (3) C₄ plant with kranz anatomy (4) Blue green algae

181. Which pair is wrong?

(1) C₃ plant - Maize

(2) First stable product of Calvin cycle - PGA (3) First stable product of C₄ cycle - OAA

(4) Kranz Anatomy - C₄ plant

182. Which of the following hormones plays an important role in ripening of fruits?

(1) Auxins (2) Ethylene

(3) ABA (4) Gibberellins

183. Hormone responsible for preventing seed germination during drought is

(1) ABA (2) IAA

(3) NAA (4) Zeatin

184. Photoperiodic stimulus is preceived by (1) Meristematic cells (2) Flower (3) Mature leaves (4) Seeds

185. Which of the following is monocarpic and perennial?

(1) Wheat (2) Rice

(3) Radish (4) Bambusa tulda

186. Find the incorrect match.

(1) Rhizome - Banana (2) Tuber - Potato (3) Leaf bud - Agave (4) Bulb - Onion

187. Ploidy of the cells of the nucellus, MMC the functional megaspore and female gametophyte respectively are (1) n, 2n, 2n and n (2) 2n, 2n, n and n (3) 2n, n, 2n and n (4) n, 2n, 2n and 2n 188. A typical mature female gametophyte is

(1) Uninucleate (2) Binucleate (3) Trinucleate (4) Octanucleate

189. In embryo sac, ______ have special cellular thickenings at the ______ tip called filiform apparatus, which plays an important role in guiding the pollen tube for entry in embryo sac

(1) Antipodals, chalazal (2) Synergids, micropylar (3) Antipodals, micropylar (4) Synergids, chalazal

(16)

  

190. Largest cell of embryo sac is

(1) Central cell (2) Synergid cell (3) Egg cell (4) Antipodal cell

191. A behavioural strategy of adaptation is called echolocation is found in

(1) Butterfly (2) Bats (3) Praying mantis (4) Arctic tern

192. Adaptation is an attribute of organisms that enables them to survive and reproduce in their habitat which (1) May be morphological

(2) May be physiological (3) May be behavioural (4) All of these

193. The success of mammals is due to (1) Presence of mammary glands (2) Efficient osmoregulation (3) Efficient thermoregulation (4) Efficient migration

194. Which of the following is not a functional aspect of an ecosystem?

(1) Decomposition (2) Productivity (3) Stratification (4) Energy Flow

195. Which of the following is the most productive ecosystem?

(1) Deep sea (2) Coral reef

(3) Desert (4) Mountain top

196. Which one is correct percentage of green house gases?

(1) N₂O-6%, CO₂-86%

(2) Methane-20%, N₂O-18%

(3) CO₂-40%, CFC-30%

(4) CFCs-14%, Methane 20%.

197. Which particle size is most harmful to human health as determined by Central Pollution Control Board?

(1) 1.00 m or less (2) 2.5 - 5.2 m (3) 2.5 m or less (4) 1.5 m or less 198. ________ are used in electrostatic precipitators

(1) Catalyst (2) Absorbers (3) Electrodes (4) Chemicals

199. Which has high rate of biomass production?

(1) Cow (2) Buffalow

(3) Methylophilus methylotrophus (4) Pig

200. Virus free clones are obtained from (1) Shoot tip culture

(2) Haploid culture (3) Anther culture (4) Emoryoids

(17) 1. (1)

2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (1) 36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (1)

41. (2) 42. (2) 43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (3) 50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (2) 56. (1) 57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (1) 64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (4) 71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (3) 76. (1) 77. (2) 78. (4) 79. (4) 80. (3)

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81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (2) 85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (3) 92. (2) 93. (2) 94. (4) 95. (1) 96. (1) 97. (1) 98. (1) 99. (1) 100. (1) 101. (4) 102. (1) 103. (2) 104. (3) 105. (3) 106. (2) 107. (1) 108. (2) 109. (2) 110. (3) 111. (1) 112. (4) 113. (3) 114. (2) 115. (4) 116. (3) 117. (1) 118. (1) 119. (3) 120. (4)

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161. (3) 162. (2) 163. (4) 164. (2) 165. (4) 166. (1) 167. (1) 168. (1) 169. (1) 170. (3) 171. (3) 172. (4) 173. (3) 174. (2) 175. (1) 176. (2) 177. (3) 178. (2) 179. (4) 180. (2) 181. (1) 182. (2) 183. (1) 184. (3) 185. (4) 186. (3) 187. (2) 188. (4) 189. (2) 190. (1) 191. (2) 192. (4) 193. (3) 194. (3) 195. (2) 196. (4) 197. (3) 198. (3) 199. (3) 200. (1)