5000 Q&A

(1)

ANTI-INFECTIVE AGENTS

1- Cephalosporin mechanism of action may include: a) Inhibit protein synthesis

b) Inhibit cell wall synthesis

c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibit translation of genetic information

2- The bacteriostatic effect of sulfametoxazole may be increased by: a) Penicillin

b) Sulbactam c) Clavulanic acid d) Tarzobactam e) Trimetroprim

3-Correct statements regarding Penicillin V may include which of the following? I-β-lactamase sensitive antibiotic – acid stable

II- Has a short half-life because is rapidly excreted by glomerular filtration III- Probenecid increase penicillin’s activity

a) I only B) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

4- The only antibiotic available as chew able tablet includes: a) Penicillin

b) Amoxicillin c) Ampicillin d) Erythromycin e) Clarithromycin

5- Correct statements regarding Erythromycin ESTOLATE may include:

I- Primarily effective against gram-positive bacteria and also have activity against some Gram-negative bacteria II- It is a macro lid antibiotic very useful as alternative to penicillin for those that have Allergy to penicillin antibiotics III- Regular erythromycin is better absorbed from GIT that erythromycin estolate

a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

6- Penicillin should be administrated 1 hour before meals or 2 to 3 hours after meals in order to: I- Improve the bioavailability

II- Maximize the dissolution rate III- Avoid interaction with calcium ions a) I only

b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

7-Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Penicillins

b) Cephalosporins c) Gentamycin d) Streptomycin e) Sulfonamides

8- Examples of antibiotic that is an acid stable penicillinase resistant include: a) Amoxicillin

b) Oxacillin c) Ampicillin D) Carbenicillin e) Penicillin V

(2)

9- All of the following penicillins are acid label penicillins, EXCEPT: a) Penicillin V b) Penicillin G c) Methicillin d) Nafcillin e) Carbenicillin

10-Which of the following are/is correct regarding Tetracycline? I- Inhibit protein synthesi II- May be used in dental works III- Cannot be taken for infants less than 8 years old

11- Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of sulfametoxazole? a) Inhibit protein synthesis

b) Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism with folic acid synthesis c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibit translation of genetic information

12- Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic of all the following antibiotics, EXCEPT: a) Aminoglycosides

b) Tetracycline c) Cephalexin d) Chloramphenicol e) Clindamycin

13- Which of the following agents may interfere with the regular effect of penicillins? a) Antacids

b) Food c) Probenecid d) Aminoglycosides e) All of the above

14- Which of the following drugs cannot be taken orally? a) INH

b) PASA c) ASA d) Streptomycin e) Oxacillin

15- Example of drug used in prophylaxis of malaria includes: a) Cloroquine

b) Quinine c) Primaquin d) Quinine e) Quinidine

16- Which of the following is NOT an anti-fungal drug? a) Amphotericin B

b) Metronidazole c) Griseofulvin d) Nystatin e) Clotrimazole

17- Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include: a) Gentamycin

b) Ceftriaxone c) Norfloxacin d) Erythromycin e) Penicillin

18- Which of the following agents may best treat Meningococcal encephalitis? a) Sulfametoxazole

b) Erythromycin c) Cephalexin d) Tetracycline e) Penicillin

(3)

19- Correct statements regarding aminoglycosides may include: I- Has a half-life of 12hours

II- The effect continue remain after all drug is eliminated III- The relation plasma concentration and half-life is not clear a) I only

20- Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Gray Babies syndrome?

I- Occurs in premature and new born infants when choramphenicol is administrated during the first few days of life II- Due to inability of the infant to metabolize the drug because of glucoronyl transferase deficiency

III- Glucoronyl transferase is required to detoxify cloramphenicol a) I only

21- Correct statements regarding Pellagra include: I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin

II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia a) I only

22- Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease may be treated by which of the following agents? I- Cefixime II- Ceftriaxone III- Ciprofloxacin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

23- Nosocomial infections may be best treated by which of the following agents? I- Cephalosporin 3rd generation

II- Macrolides antibiotics III- Penicillins a) I only

24- Viral encephalitis, a CNS infection, may be best be treated by which of the following agents? a) Benzyl penicillin

b) Ceftriaxone c) Acyclovir d) Streptomycin e) Vancomycin

25- Example of drug(s) used to treat pneumonia includes: I- Ampicillin combined with aminoglycosides II-Clarithromycin III- Levofloxacin a) I only

26- Otitis extern, an ear infection may be best is best treated by: a) Ciprofloxacin eardrop

b) Gentamicin eardrop c) Prednisone eardrop d) Levobunolol eardrop e) Saline solution

(4)

27- Otitis media is an ear infection normally caused by S. pneumoniae and may be best treated by: a) Amoxicillin b) Penicillin V c) Ampicillin d) Amoxicillin clavulanate e) Oxacillin

28- First line treatment for UTI-Urinary Tract Infection may include: a) Sulfametoxazole + Trimetoprim

b) Amoxicillin clavulanate c) Penicillin procaine d) Erythromycin

e) All are very effective in treating UTI

29- Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy? a) Penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin and metronidazole

b) Clarithromycin, amoxicillin, omeprazole and metronidazole c) Clarithromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole

d) Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only

e) Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.

30- Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include: I- Lots of fluids II- Ciprofloxacin III- Metronidazole a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

31- Colitis associated with antibiotic use can best be treated by: a) Cephalosporins

b) Macrolides c) Aminoglycosides d) Vancomycin e) Penicillin

32- Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include: I- Broad-spectrum penicillins II- Cephalosporins III- Clindamycin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

33- Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax is:

a) Quinine b) Pyrimethamine c) Sulfadoxine d) Primaquine e) Quinidine

34- Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria. Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient?

a) Atovaquone only

b) Chloroquine and primaquine c) Quinine and doxacycline d) Mefloquine

e) C and D are correct

35- Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include:

a) Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit bacterial growth b) Drugs derivated from natural source that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth c) Drug with ability only to kill bacteria

d) Drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth e) All are wrong regarding antibiotics

(5)

36- Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill bacteria is normally called: a) Bacteriostatic antibiotic

b) Bactericidal antibiotic c) Bactericidal antimicrobial d) Bacteriostatic antimicrobial

e) Bacteriostatic bactericidal antimicrobial

37- Antiviral drugs act in many different ways, they can be classified in: a) RNA inhibitors only

b) DNA inhibitors only c) RNA and DNA inhibitors d) Protease inhibitors e) All are correct

38- Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Amoxicillin

b) Nafcillin c) Methicillin d) Oxacillin

e) All are very narrow spectrum penicillins 39- Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may include:

a) Amoxicillin b) Ampicillin c) Cloxacillin d) Carbenicillin e) Dicloxacillin

40- Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with β-lactamase inhibitors.

Examples of β-lactamase inhibitors is/are: I- Clavulanic acid II- Sulbactam III- Tazobactam a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

41- Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include: I- Bactericidal antimicrobial

II- Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium III- Broad-spectrum agent

42- Example of fourth generation cephalosporin includes: a) Ceftriaxone

b) Cefipime c) Cefixime d) Cefotaxime e) Cefoxitin

43- Correct statement regarding the mechanism of action of Vancomycin may include: a) Inhibit release of tRNA bound to peptyl site after peptide bond formation

b) Inhibit peptide bound formation between acylaminoacids bound to the peptyl and acceptor site c) Inhibit stage II of cell wall synthesis preventing polymerization of the linear peptideoglycan d) Inhibit DNA gyrase in the bacteria

e) Bind to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular *******s 44- Which of the following is one of the most common side effects of vancomycin?

a) Ototoxicity

b) Disulfiram like side effect c) Diarrhea

d) Weight gain e) Hallucinations

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45- All of the following are narrow spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors, EXCEPT: a) Erythromycin b) Azithromycin c) Clarithromycin d) Tetracycline e) Clindamycin

46- Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline? a) Alteration in gut flora

b) Disulfiram like reactions c) Teeth permanent discoloration d) Fanconi like syndrome

e) Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

47- Which of the following agents can be classified as macrolide antibiotics? I- Azithromycin II- Clarithromycin III- Erythromycin a) I only

48- Wrong statement regarding MACROLIDES ANTIBIOTICS include: a) Used in both gram-positive and gram-negative infections

b) Used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has allergy to penicillins c) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms

d) Increase gastric motility causing cramps and diarrhea as major side effect e) Very safe for children

49- All of the following are examples of aminoglycosides drugs, EXCEPT: a) Nystatin

b) Gentamicin c) Amikacin d) Streptomycin e) Garamycin

50- Which of the following is an anti-infective agent with lowest therapeutic index? a) Macrolide

b) Cephalosporins c) Cloramphenicol d) Aminoglycosides e) Antifungal agents

51- Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of: a) PABA

b) Folic acid c) Vitamin K d) Cyanide e) Nalidixic acid

52- Which of the following best classify metronidazole? a) Antiprotozoa

b) Antibiotic c) Antifungal d) Antiviral e) Antimicrobial

53- Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include: I- Isoniazid II- Rifampin III- Ethambutol a) I only

54- Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include: a) Niclosamide

b) Prazinquatel c) Mebendazole d) Dapsone e) Thiabendazole

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55- All are examples of antihelmintic drugs, EXCEPT: a) Niclosamide b) Prazinquatel c) Mebendazole d) Dapsone e) Thiabendazole

56- Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent? a) Miconazole

b) Clotrimazole c) Amphotericin d) Itraconazole e) Ketoconazole

57- Wrong statement regarding antifungal agents includes which of the following?

a) Polyene antifungal act binding to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular *******s b) Azoles antifungal act blocking the synthesis of ergosterol.

c) Polyene antifungal has the widest spectrum compared to any other agent

d) Side effects of antifungals include fever, chills, anorexia, headaches and muscle pain e) Side effects of antifungals cannot be treat for Tylenol due to high drug interaction. 58- Which of the following statement is RIGHT regarding influenza treatment?

I- Type A influenza is best treated by amantadine and rimantadine II- Type B influenza is best treated by oseltamivir and zenamivir III- Influenza should not be treated with antiviral agents a) I only

b) III only c) I and II only

d) II and III only e) All are correct

59- All of the following are examples of quinolone antimicrobial agents, EXCEPT a) Cephalexin

b) Ofloxacin c) Norfloxacin d) Ciprofloxacin e) Levofloxacin

60- Which of the following conditions are quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used? a) Respiratory tract infections

b) Urinary tract infections c) Gastrointestinal tract infections d) Endocarditis

e) Cerebral infections

61- Which of the following statements best describes the action of the antitubercular agent ISONIAZID? a) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium

b) Inhibit the DNA duplication of mycobacterium c) Inhibit arachydonic acids that feed mycobacterium d) Inhibit mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium e) Inhibit protein synthesis of mycobacterium

62- Which of the following complications is considered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment? a) Cardiac dysfunction

b) Mental dysfunction c) Hepatitis

d) Renal complications e) Discoloration of skin

63- The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin? a) Thiamine

b) Pyridoxine c) Folic acid d) Niacin e) Cyanocobalamin

64- All of the following are examples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT: a) Ampicillin

b) Cloxacillin c) Amoxicillin d) Bicampicilin e) All are correct

(8)

65- Which of the following is an antiviral drug used in the treatment of AIDS-HIV? I- Acyclovir II- Zidovudine III- Stavudine a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

66- Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to: I- Mutation

II- Adaptation III- Gene transfer a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

67- The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in: a) Virus

b) Gram-negative bacterias c) Gram-positive bacterias

d) Both gram-positive and negative bacterias e) Plasmodium

68- Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to: a) 30s ribosomal subunit only b) 50s ribosomal subunit only c) 70s ribosomal subunit only

d) 30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits e) 30s and 70s ribosomal subunits

69- Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow include which of the following agents? a) Tetracycline

b) Aminoglycosides c) Vancomycin d) Cloramphenicol e) Clindamycin

70- Which of the following agent is classified as lincosamide antibiotic? a) Tetracycline b) Aminoglycosides c) Vancomycin d) Cloramphenicol e) Clindamycin ANSWERS 1- B 2- E 3- E 4- B 5- C 6- A 7- D 8- B 9- B 10- E 11- B 12- C 13- E 14- D 15- A 16- B 17- C 18- E 19- D 20- E 21- E 22- E 23- A 24- C 25- E 26- B 27- D 28- A 29- B 30- E 31- D 32- E 33- D 34- E 35- B 36- C 37- E 38- A 39- D 40- E 41- D 42- B 43- C 44- A 45- D 46- B 47- E 48- C 49- A 50- D 51- E 52- A 53- E 54- B 55- D 56- C 57- E 58- C 59- C 60- B 61- D 62- C 63- B 64- B 65- D 66- E 67- C 68- D 69- D 70- E BIOCHEMISTRY

1-Glycine reaction is normally mediated by: a) Acetyl Coenzyme A

b) UDP Glucoronyl tranferase

c) PAPS- Phosphoadenosine-5-Phosphosulfate d) Sulfotranferase

e) GST-Glutathione S-Transferase

2- Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include: a) Potassium

b) Sodium c) Magnesium d) Calcium e) Chloro

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3- Which is responsible for N in vivo? a) Argenine b) Tryptophan c) Guanine d) Thiamine e) Leucine

4- Enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined: a) DNA polymerase

b) DNA gyrase c) DNA ligase d) RNA transferase e) None of the above

5- Which of the followings are types of RNA? I- RNAt - RNA transferase II- RNAm – RNA mensager III-RNAr – RNA ribossome a) I only

b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 6. Which vitamin is/are fat-soluble?

I- Vitamin E II- Vitamin K III- Vitamin B a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct

7-Which of the following vitamin is not water-soluble? a) Vitamin B

b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Folic acid e) Riboflavin

8- The most abundant metal ion in human body a) Iron

b) Magnesium c) Aluminum d) Phosphorous e) Potassium

9- Which of the following is considered the normal potassium serum in human body? a) 2.0 to 3.5mEq/L

b) 3.5 to 5.0mEq/L c) 5.0 to 7.5mEq/L d) 3.5 to 7.5mEq/L e) 3.0 to 6.0mEq/L

10- Which of the following is considered normal sodium serum in human body? a) 35 to 47 mEq/L

b) 147 to 150 mEq/L c) 135 to 147mEq/L d) 75 to 135 mEq/L e) 125 to 145 mEq/L

11- Which of the following is considered as essential vitamin for breast-feed babies? a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D e) Vitamim E

(10)

12- Which of the following hormone acts on cell wall? a) Insulin b) Prolactin c) Cortisol d) Estrogen e) Alanine

13- Which of the following vitamins has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its pteridine ring? a) Thiamine

b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin K d) Folic acid e) Pyridoxine

14- What is correct regarding the formation of proteins? a) Formed by condensation of peptic bond b) Geometric sequence of amino acids

c) The formation occurs by complexation of amino acids d) Proteins are formed from carbohydrates

e) None of the above is right

15- Which is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human body? a) Leukotriene

b) Enkephalin c) Bradykinin d) Cytokine e) Angiotensin

16- Which of the following is considered the FIRST precursor of vitamin A formation? a) Retinoic acid

b) Carotenoids c) Cobalt d) Calciferol e) Pantothenic acid

17- Biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions that maintain human life process: a) Nucleic acid

b) Amino acids c) Carbohydrates d) Oligopeptides e) Enzymes

18- Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding enzymes? I-Enzymes are proteins

II- Enzymes are catalyst because they are never altered during a reaction III- Michaelis-Menten theory describe the enzymatic reactions

19- Zwintter ion reacts with a substrate as: a) Neutral ion

b) Proton acceptor ion c) Proton donor ion d) Anionic e) Cationic

20- Correct statements regarding mutation may include: I- Cell division

II- Change in genotype

III- Change in DNA replication altering the gene a) I only

(11)

21- Which pyrimidine base is not present in DNA? a) Thiamine b) Adenine c) Uracil d) Cytosine e) Guanine

22- The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in I- RNAs II- DNAs

III- Both DNAs and RNAs a) I only

23- Shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall: a) Ribossomes

b) Endoplasmic reticulum c) Mitocondria

d) Cell membrane e) Nucleotide

24- The Michaelis-Menten equation-Enzymatic reactions will appears ZERO order when: a) The substrate concentration is much smaller than Km

b) When Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration c) When Vmax is much smaller than Km

d) When Vmax is much larger than Km e) When Km approaches Vmax 25- Which vitamin can be classified as hormone?

a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin D3 c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K e) Vitamin B12

26- False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include: a) Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver b) Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney

c) Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver

d) Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney e) Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight

27- Hydrolysis of fixed oils may yields: a) Saturated + Unsaturated acids b) Glycerol + Fatty acids c) Glucose + Fatty acids d) Fatty acids + Triglycerides e) None of the above

28- Example of compound that is phospholipids include: a) Glycogen

b) Leucine c) Lecithin d) Hyaluronic acid e) Phenylalanine

29- In an enzymatic reaction, addition of competitive inhibitor leads to: a) Increase the rate of reaction

b) Decrease the rate of reaction c) Same rate of reaction

d) Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration e) Decrease both rate and substrate concentration 30- Which of the following is the end product of ANAEROBIC reactions?

a) Pyruvic acid b) CO2 c) CO2 + H2O d) Lactic acid e) Proteins

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31- Which of the following is the end product of AEROBIC reactions? a) Pyruvic acid b) CO2 c) CO2 + H2O d) Lactic acid e) Proteins

32- Which of the following is an essential amino acid? a) Histadiol

b) Cysteine c) Methionine d) Aspartene e) Glutamine

33- Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid? a) Methionine

b) Argenine c) Leucine d) Tryptophan e) Glycine

34- Which of the following is the end product of proteins? a) Amino acids

b) Urea c) Uric acid d) Purine e) Phosphorous

35-Purine may be the end product of: a) Amines

b) Amino acids c) Uric acid d) Proteins e) Enzymes

36- In the typical cell, mitochondria may contain: I- Enzymes of Kreb’s cycle

II- Enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase III- Enzymes of fatty acid cycle

a) I only b) III only c) I and II only

37- Which of the following is the main carbohydrate of body blood? a) Sorbitol

b) Mannitol c) Frutase d) Glucase e) Lactase

38- The presence of mitochondria in the living cell can be detected by: a) Neutral reagent

b) Jenus green c) Morquis reagent d) Methylene blue e) Phenolphthalein

39- Which of the following is the only disaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism? a) Lactose

b) Maltase c) Fructose d) Glucose e) Cellulose

40- The conversion of β-carotene to vitamin A is carried out in: a) Pancreas

b) Spleen c) Liver d) Adrenal cortex e) Nefrons

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41- Keratin is an example of: a) Protein b) Peptin c) Scleroprotein d) Albuminoid e) C and D are correct

42- The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in: a) RBCs

b) Reticulum Endothelial c) Liver

d) Kidney e) Pancreas

43- Degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involves: a) Formation of bile pigments

b) Formation of urobilinogen c) Formation of biliverdin

d) Non-oxidative cleavage of phosphirin ring e) All are correct

44- Non-protein portion of hemoglobin consist of: a) Ferrous complex of protophorphirin IX b) 3 Heme unit surrounding an iron atom c) 4 Heme unit surrounding a ferric ion

d) 4 Pyrrole rings linked through a Fe³+ mol. e) All are correct

45- Which of the following amino acid is an important precursor of hemoglobin? a) Alanine

b) Proline c) Leucine d) Glycin e) Histadin

46- Which of the following is an important enzymatic reaction involved in muscular contraction? a) Glucose-6-phosphatase reaction

b) Glycogenolysis

c) ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction d) Enolase reaction

e) Glucogenolysis

47- Protein disnaturation may happen due to: a) Exposure to air

b) Shaking

c) Increase in temperature d) Chemical reagents e) All are correct

48- Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of DNA? a) DNA polymerase

b) DNA gyrase c) DNA ligase d) RNA transferase e) None of the above

49- Which pyrimidine base is not present in RNA sequence? a) Uracil

b) Thiamine c) Cytosine d) Guanine e) Adenine

50- Which of the following is the predominant intracellular element? a) Sodium

b) Magnesium c) Potassium d) Calcium e) Phosphorous

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51- Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism? a) Maltase b) Sucrose c) Glucose d) Cellulose e) Frutose

52- Heparin synthesized in the body and can be classified as: a) Monosaccharideo

b) Polysaccharide c) Disaccharide d) Oligosaccharide e) Amino acid

53- Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide: a) Glucose + frutose

b) Glucose + glucose c) Glucose + galactose d) Frutose + frutose e) Galactose + galactose

54- Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of one group to other group is called: a) Oxidoreductase enzymes

b) Transferase enzymes c) Hydrolyses enzymes d) Isomerasis enzymes e) Lyasis enzymes

55- Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by: I- Consume of energy

II- Release stored energy from carbohydrates

III-Glycogenolysis is an example of carbohydrates catabolism reaction a) I only

b) III only c) I and II only

56- The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Kreb’s cycle metabolites is an anabolic process called:

a) Glycogenolysis b) Glycolysis c) Glycogenesis d) Gluconeogenesis e) None of the above

57- GLYCOGENESIS is a process characterized by: a) The breakdown of glycogen into glucose b) The transformation of glucose to glycogen c) The breakdown of sugar into pyruvate d) The breakdown of sugar into lactate

e) The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources

58- Which of the following reactions is controlled by the pancreatic hormone INSULIN? a) Glycogenolysis

b) Glycolysis c) Glycogenesis d) Gluconeogenesis e) Anaerobic glycolysis

59- Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include: a) Carrier activated aminoacids to the ribosome

b) Specifies aminoacids sequence templant for protein synthesis c) Enable DNA fragments to be joined

d) Synthesize RNA

e) Carrier the genetic information for all the other cells 60- Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:

a) Iron b) Zinc c) Cobalt

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61- Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins? a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine e) Folic acid

62- Which of the following is the most important vitamin in pregnancy? a) Cyanocobalamin

b) Folic acid c) Pantothenic acid d) Pyridoxine e) Niacin

63- Which of the following vitamin is derivated from the amino acid tryptophan? a) Thiamine

b) Riboflavin c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine e) Folic acid

64- Which of the following vitamin has its chemical structure related to PABA? a) Cyanocobalamin

65- Vitamin that requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine: a) Cyanocobalamin

66- Which of the following vitamin is the precursor of collagen synthesis? a) Vitanin A

b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D e) Vitamin E

67- Correct statements concerning vitamin E include:

I- It is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues II- It is absorbed from the small intestine

III- Widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent a) I only

68- Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids? a) Nucleotides

b) Nucleosides c) Monosaccharides d) Purines e) Amino acids 69- Proteins are formed from:

a) Purines b) Carbohydrates c) Amino acids d) Monosaccharides e) Nucleosides CORRECT ANSWERS

1- A : Glycine reaction is a reaction mediated by acetyl Coenzyme A.

2- B : Interstitial fluid is situated between parts or in the interspaces of a tissue therefore outside the cells. Sodium is the most abundant element outside the cells therefore in the interstitial fluid.

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4- C : DNA ligase is an enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined. 5- E : All, RNA transferase, RNA mensager and RNA ribosome are types of RNAs.

6- C : All vitamins B and vitamin C are water-soluble. 7- C : Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat-soluble vitamins. 8- A : Iron is the most abundant metal ion in human body.

9- B : Normal potassium serum in human body range between 3.5 to 5.0mEq/L. 10- C : Normal sodium serum in human body range between 135 to 147mEq/L 11- D : The most essential vitamin for breast-feed babies is vitamin D. 12- A : Insulin is a hormone that acts on cell wall

13- D : Folic acid is a vitamin B9 that has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its pteridine ring. 14- A : Proteins are formed by a reaction between amino acids called condensation between peptid bonds. 15- C : Bradykinin is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human body.

16- B : Vitamin A is formed from retinoic acid that is formed from beta-carotene.

17- E : Enzymes are biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions that maintain human life process, and accelerate reactions by lowering the energy of the transition state.

18- E : Enzymes are proteins or biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions. They are called catalyst because are never altered during a reaction. Michaelis-Menten theory describes the enzymatic reactions.

19- A: Zwintter ion is a neutral ion with two charges, positive and negative, that reacts neutrally with a substrate. 20- D : Mutation is a permanent transmissible change in the genetic material, usually in a single gene.

21- C : Uracil is only present in RNAs.

22- A : The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in RNAs only. DNAs differ only in the presence of Thiamine instead of uracil.

23- B : Endoplasmic reticulum is a shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall.

24- E : The Michaelis-Menten equation-Enzymatic reactions will appears ZERO order when Km approaches Vmax and FIRST order when the substrate concentration is smaller than Km.

25-B : Vitamin D3 man be classified as hormone

26- A: Vitamin C does not interfere with absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver. 27- B : Glycerol and fatty acids are the end products of hydrolysis of fixed oils. 28- C : Lecithin is a phospholipid

29- C : Addition of competitive inhibitor in an enzymatic reaction does not alter the rate of reaction. 30- D : Pyruvic acid is the end product of anaerobic reactions

31- C : CO2 and H2O are the end products of aerobic reactions.

32- C : Histadiol, cysteine, aspartame and glutamine are examples of non-essential amino acids 33- E : Glycine is not an essential amino acid.

34- B : Urea is the end product of proteins. 35- C: Purine is the end product of uric acid.

36- E: Enzymes of Kreb’s cycle, enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase and enzymes of fatty acid cycle are present in the mitochondria structure of the cell.

37- D : Glucose is the main carbohydrate present in the human blood.

38- B : Jenus green is a laboratory test that detects the presence of mitochondria in the living cell

39- A: Maltase and cellulose are both carbohydrates not synthesized during human metabolism, however maltase is disaccharide and cellulose is a polysaccharide carbohydrate.

40- C: β-carotene is the precursor of vitamin A. The transformation reaction happens in the liver by oxidation. 41- E : Keratin is a scleroprotein that also can be called albuminoid.

42- B : The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in reticulum Endothelial.

43- E : The degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involve formation of bile pigments, formation of urobilinogen, formation of biliverdin and non-oxidative cleavage of phorphirin ring

44- A : The non-protein portion of hemoglobin consists of ferrous complex of protophorphirin IX. 45- D : Glycin is a non-essential amino acid and important precursor of hemoglobin.

46- C : ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction is the most important enzymatic reaction in muscular contraction.

47- E : Protein derivative products are very sensible and may suffer disnaturation by exposure to air, shaking, increase in temperature and addition of chemical reagents in.

48- A: DNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of DNA.

49- B : Thiamine is the only pyrimidine base not present in RNA sequence; thiamine is only present in DNAs molecule. 50- C : Potassium is the most predominant intracellular element while sodium is the most predominant extracellular element. 51- D: Maltase and cellulose are both carbohydrates not synthesized during human metabolism, however maltase is disaccharide and cellulose is a polysaccharide carbohydrate.

52- B: Heparin is a polysaccharide carbohydrate naturally synthesized in the body.

53- A: Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide, glucose and fructose 54- B: Transferase enzymes catalyzes reactions involved in the transfer of one group to other group

55- D : Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by release of energy stored from carbohydrates. Glycogenolysis and glycolysis are examples of carbohydrates catabolism reaction

56- D : Gluconeogenesis is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Kreb’s cycle metabolites is an anabolic process called.

57- B: Glycogenesis is the transformation of glucose to glycogen. It happens in the liver and skeletal muscle from glucose consumed in the diet its synthesis is controlled by the pancreatic hormone insulin

58- C : Glycogenesis is an anabolic reaction that transforms glucose to glycogen in the liver and it is controlled by insulin. 59- B: RNA messenger specifies amino acids sequence templant for protein synthesis.

60- C: B12-cyanocobalamin has a cobalt molecule in the center of its structural molecule. 61- A: Beriberi is caused by deficiency of thiamine.

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62- B: Folic acid is one of the most important vitamin to be taken by women that is planning to get pregnant, during pregnancy and in breast-feeding.

63- C : Niacin is derivate from the amino acid tryptophan.

64- B : Folic acid is a vitamin that has its chemical structure similar to PABA structure.

65- A: Cyanocobalamin is not properly absorbed from the gastro intestinal tract therefore it requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine

66- C: Vitamin C is the precursor of collagen synthesis.

67- E: Vitamin E is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues and well absorbed from the small intestine. It is widely used in pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent

68- A: Nucleotides are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids. 69- C: Proteins are formed from amino acids by condensation of peptide bond

Biomedical Sciences

1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the: a. pyrimidine ring.

b. purine ring. c. pyrazine ring. d. pteridine ring. e. pyridine ring. 2 Enkephalins are peptides that:

a. have narcotic antagonist activity. b. exert actions resembling those of opiates. c. are found only in the central nervous system. d. cause blood vessel wall relaxation.

e. transmit pain impulses. 3 ?-Carotene is the precursor of:

a. retinol. b. thiamine. c. calciferol. d. riboflavin. e. retinoic acid. 4 An enzyme is: a. an oligopeptide. b. a nucleic acid.

c. unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides. d. a catalyst.

e. changed chemically in a reaction. 5 Diphtheria is caused by:

a. Plasmodium. b. Vibrio. c. Shigella. d. Neisseria. e. Corynebacterium.

6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver: a. haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein.

b. mesenteric vein ? portal vein. c. haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava. d. mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery. e. gastric vein ? hepatic vein.

7 The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the: I jejunum. II ileum. III duodenum. a. I only

b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III

8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of: a. acetylcholine in the motor cortex. b. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons.

c. gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways. d. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway.

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9 In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"? I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle

II Celiac ganglia

III Circular muscles of the iris a. I only

10 The blood volume of the average adult is approximately: a. 5 L.

b. 10 L. c. 15 L. d. 20 L. e. 25 L.

11 Diseases which are viral infections include: I poliomyelitis.

II rabies.

III Legionnaires' disease. a. I only

12 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include: I Escherichia coli.

II Haemophilus influenzae. III Mycoplasma pneumoniae. a. I only

13 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is:

I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. II found primarily in interneurons.

III synthesized from glycine. a. I only

14 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation, EXCEPT: a. it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation.

b. it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis. c. it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. d. large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate.

e. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development.

Pharmaceutical Sciences

15 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4, what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8.4? a. 10%

b. 30% c. 50% d. 90% e. 100%

16 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT: a. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.

b. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature. c. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass.

d. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution. e. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation.

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17 In cardiovascular physiology, LaPlace's law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to: I the length of the vessel.

II the radius of vessel. III the intraluminal pressure. a. I only

18 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if the drug: a. is basic.

b. is protein bound.

c. is acidic but not protein bound. d. has a small volume of distribution. e. has a large volume of distribution.

19 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of: a. glutathione conjugates.

b. glucuronide conjugates. c. glycine conjugates. d. glutamate conjugates. e. sulfate conjugates.

20 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the: a. calcium ion channel.

b. sodium ion channel. c. potassium ion channel. d. chloride ion channel. e. nicotinic ion channel.

21 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain: a. aniline and piperidine rings.

b. aniline and piperazine rings. c. aniline and pyrrolidine rings. d. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings. e. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings. 22 Carbon monoxide binds to:

I hemoglobin. II myoglobin. III cytochrome oxidase. a. I only

23 Antioxidants, which mechanistically act as reducing agents, include: I ascorbic acid. II sodium bisulfite. III citric acid. a. I only

b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III 24 Diazepam Injection U.S.P

Diazepam 5 mg/ml Ethanol 10% Propylene glycol 40% Benzyl alcohol 1.5% Water for Injection qs 100%

In the formulation given above, the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s): I ethanol.

II propylene glycol. III benzyl alcohol. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III

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25 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. They are present in these structures specifically because of their:

a. sizes and shapes. b. tautomeric activities. c. enzymatic activities. d. electron-donating effects. e. electron-withdrawing effects.

26 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:

a. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km. b. when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration. c. when Vmax is much smaller than Km.

d. when Vmax is much larger than Km. e. when Km approaches Vmax.

27 With respect to bio*****alence, the parameter “Cmax” is: a. affected by the extent of absorption only. b. affected by the rate of absorption only. c. affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption. d. affected by both rate and extent of absorption. e. the only significant parameter.

28 Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol? a. Hydroxyl 1

b. Hydroxyl 2 c. Hydroxyl 3 d. Hydroxyl 4 e. Hydroxyls 1 and 2

29 The above structures are related to one another as: a. bioisosteres.

b. enantiomers. c. homologs. d. rotamers.

e. positional (structural) isomers.

30 Five subjects given a single IV dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5 and 4 h (hours). The mean half-life is: a. 4.0 h. b. 5.0 h. c. 5.4 h. d. 5.8 h. e. 6.0 h.

31 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. to mask the taste of the drug.

b. to mask the odor of the drug.

c. to improve the appearance of the tablet. d. to increase the drug's release rate. e. to protect the drug from stomach acid.

32 Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis?

I Oil/water partition coefficient II Binding to plasma protein III pKa of the drug a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III

33 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture? a. Deliquescence

b. Efflorescence c. Hygroscopicity d. Polymorphism e. Condensation

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34 Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include: I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule.

II the presence of surfactants in the formulation. III the type of ointment base.

a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III

35 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation? a. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet.

b. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily. c. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution.

d. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst. e. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression.

36 Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:

I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group. II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity.

III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity. a. I only

37 Which of the following is an azo dye? a. Hexachlorophene b. Nitrofurantoin c. Methenamine d. Phenazopyridine e. Nalidixic acid

38 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that:

a. the drug is extensively metabolized.

b. greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with moderate renal failure.

c. entero-hepatic recycling is significant. d. the drug is not bound to plasma proteins. e. the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue.

39 Approximately 50% of dicloxacillin is excreted unchanged in the urine. If the normal dosage schedule for dicloxacillin is 125 mg q6h, a patient with renal function 20% of normal should receive:

a. 25 mg q6h. b. 31.25 mg q6h. c. 62.5 mg q6h. d. 75 mg q6h. e. 125 mg q12h.

40 Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity: a. oxazepam.

b. nitrazepam. c. diazepam. d. triazolam. e. clonazepam.

41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis.

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 42 Biceps muscles are part of:

I the arm. II the thigh. III the rib cage. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III

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43 The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought to be due to: a. improvement of cholinergic transmission.

b. blockade of catecholamine re-uptake. c. blockade of dopamine receptors. d. blockade of enkephalinergic neurons. e. prolactin release.

44 Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) include: a. induction of microsomal enzymes.

b. inhibition of microsomal enzymes. c. inhibition of liposomal enzymes.

d. displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin. e. enhanced platelet aggregation.

45 All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected IV into a young healthy adult, EXCEPT: a. isoproterenol.

b. histamine. c. phentolamine. d. phenylephrine. e. atropine.

46 Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na±H+ exchange system of the renal tubule? a. Furosemide

b. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Spironolactone d. Acetazolamide e. Amiloride

47 Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms, EXCEPT: a. dry skin.

b. flushed appearance. c. delirium and restlessness. d. mydriasis.

e. diarrhea.

48 The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms? a. Combining with acetylcholine

b. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase c. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase d. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor

e. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending 49 The skeletal structure of the hipbone includes the:

I ilium. II ischium. III pubis. a. I only

b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III 50 Pernicious anemia is:

a. due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12.

b. prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12 supplement. c. treated by parenteral administration of folic acid.

d. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12. e. caused by dietary iron deficiency.

51 The optic disk is also called the: a. blind spot. b. cornea. c. iris. d. pupil. e. macula lutea. 52 Acarbose smooths and lowers:

a. postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. b. postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. c. preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. d. preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates.

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53 Autoimmune disorders include which of the following? I Graves' disease

II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus III Osteoarthritis

54 Acute hemorrhagic gastritis is commonly seen with: a. chronic alcoholism.

b. H. pylori bacterial infections. c. carcinoma of the stomach. d. carcinoma of the colon. e. Travellers' diarrhea.

55 True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the following? I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy.

II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process. III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product. a. I only

Questions 56 to 57 inclusive refer to the following:

KJ, a 23 year-old female, is to receive lithium therapy with a regimen of lithium carbonate 600 mg q8h. The total body clearance of lithium is 0.44 mL/s (1.6 L/h) and the biological half-life is 18 h. The molecular weight of lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is 74.

56 The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. 8

b. 16 c. 24 d. 32 e. 48

57 The number of milli-*****alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. 8

b. 16 c. 24 d. 32 e. 48

58 The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by: I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant.

II the free drug concentration. III the total receptor concentration. a. I only

59 In some parenteral formulations, sodium metabisulphite is included as: a. an antioxidant. b. a chelator. c. a solubilizer. d. a cosolvent. e. an emulsifier. 60 Potassium-sparing diuretics:

I exert their effect in the proximal tubule. II may cause intracellular alkalosis. III include the aldosterone antagonists. a. I only

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61 Dorzolamide:

I has a sulfonylurea structure.

II has carbonic anhydrase inhibitor activity. III is useful in the treatment of glaucoma. a. I only

62 True statements regarding transcription include which of the following? I The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA polymerase.

II The genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of mRNA is translated into a protein structure. III The information carried in the gene sequence is transferred toRNA.

63 Which of the following agents may cause pulmonary toxicity? I Amiodarone II Bleomycin III Ramipril a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III

64 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is:

a. enalapril. b. fosinopril. c. lisinopril. d. quinapril. e. ramipril.

65 Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome? a. Warfarin

b. Cotrimoxazole c. Amoxicillin d. Phenobarbital e. Lamotrigine

66 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to: a. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body. b. post-antimicrobial effect.

c. enhanced tissue accumulation. d. reduced renal clearance. e. higher peak-trough differences.

67 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the identification of compounds of unknown structure is called:

a. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI). b. chemical ionization (CI).

c. electron impact (EI) ionization. d. electrospray ionization (ESI).

e. fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization.

Pharmacy Practice

68 The ethical principle of veracity requires that:

a. we respect the rights of others to make choices. b. we act with honesty, without deception. c. we avoid, remove or prevent harm. d. we do good to patients.

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69 MT, a pharmacy technician, has worked in a community pharmacy for 5 years. He is well-trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. His manager, now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him, should:

I discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project. II negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project. III provide support and followup as required.

70 Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects? a. Calcium carbonate

b. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate c. Magnesium hydroxide

d. Calcium sulfate e. Aluminum silicate

71 Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. fluid retention.

b. headache. c. hypertension. d. constipation. e. depression.

72 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the hospital must consider a drug's efficacy, associated workload, and acquisition cost. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available. Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several years. Data for the medications is as follows: DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration (days)A$2.50QID14B$2.25once daily14C$5.00BID7D$2.25BID7E$2 .25QID7 The most appropriate choice for the hospital is:

a. Drug A. b. Drug B. c. Drug C. d. Drug D. e. Drug E.

73 When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance, true statements include: I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate.

II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on metoprolol.

III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate medication.

74 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of Rx drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year? a. Balance sheet

b. Statement of investments

c. Statement of changes in financial position d. Income statement

e. Statement of equity

75 The Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is: a. ac. b. aa. c. pc. d. ic. e. cc. 76 Erythromycin:

I is effective against gram-positive cocci. II is a macrolide antibiotic.

III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility. a. I only

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77 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:

a. 12.5% w/w. b. 16.7% w/w. c. 20.0% w/w. d. 23.8% w/w. e. 25.0% w/w.

78 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be: a. sterile water.

b. distilled water.

c. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). d. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard).

e. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard).

79 The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written procedures for employees to observe at all times is referred to as:

a. autocratic. b. bureaucratic. c. participative. d. benevolent. e. consultative .

80 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with: a. salbutamol.

b. diphenhydramine. c. adrenaline. d. acetazolamide. e. aminophylline. 81 Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n):

a. analgesic agent. b. antipyretic agent. c. anti-inflammatory agent.

d. agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid. e. uricosuric agent

.

82 In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, the salicylates:

a. stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement. b. specifically reverse the cause of the disease.

c. provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. d. are effective because they are uricosuric agents. e. are more effective when given with allopurinol. 83 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:

a. skeletal muscle weakness. b. hypoglycemia.

c. sodium retention. d. peptic ulceration.

e. lowered resistance to infection.

84 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome (i.e. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. In the patients who receive a placebo, only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is:

a. 10%. b. 15%. c. 25%. d. 40%. e. 50%.

85 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:

a. 15. b. 20. c. 150. d. 200. e. 2000.