Name: ___________________________________ Date: ______________
1. By scripting specific job-relevant questions to be asked of all those applying for a particular work position, a personnel psychologist is most clearly developing a framework for
A) maximizing productivity. B) the experience of flow. C) transformational leadership. D) structured interviews.
E) 360-degree feedback.
2. A small number of the contributors to any field typically produce a disproportionately large share of its accomplishments despite the fact that their less productive professional colleagues are fairly comparable in raw ability. This best illustrates the importance of A) social leadership.
B) achievement motivation. C) set points.
D) 360-degree feedback. E) performance appraisal.
3. A completely focused state of consciousness resulting from optimal engagement of one's skills is called
A) 360-degree feedback. B) task leadership. C) flow.
D) homeostasis. E) the plateau phase.
4. When meeting job applicants, employers often discount the influence of varying situations on applicants' behaviors and presume that what they observe applicants do and say reflects the applicants' enduring personality traits. This most clearly contributes to
A) severity errors.
B) the interviewer illusion.
C) strengths-based selection systems. D) the experience of flow.
E) 360-degree feedback.
5. Work activities that are specifically suited to your strengths are most likely to be those associated with the experience of
A) flow.
6. Jeff, who is 14, engages in rigorous tennis drills or competitive play at least four hours every day because he wants to master the sport and play on one of the best college teams in the country. His goal and behavior best illustrate the concept of
A) set point.
B) 360-degree feedback. C) human factors psychology. D) achievement motivation.
E) homeostasis.
7. After studying artists who would spend hour after hour painting or sculpting with enormous concentration, Csikszentmihalyi formulated the concept of
A) transformation leadership. B) strengths-based selection. C) achievement motivation. D) 360-degree feedback.
E) flow.
8. A performance evaluation program revealed that the most effective salespeople in a large company are sincere and energetic in their work. This led the company's psychological consultants to develop a simulation that would assess the extent to which applicants for company sales positions communicate in a forthright and animated manner. This most clearly illustrates the consultants' commitment to
A) structured interviews. B) human factors psychology.
C) a strengths-based selection system. D) 360-degree feedback.
E) operant conditioning theory.
9. Those who view their work as a necessary but personally unfulfilling way to make money are said to view work as a
A) flow. B) contract. C) job. D) calling.
E) career.
10. Researchers have discovered that “cyber-ostracism” by strangers elicits increased activity in the
A) anterior commissure. B) lateral hypothalamus. C) anterior cingulated cortex. D) ventromedial hypothalamus.
11. A desire to pursue high standards and significant accomplishments is indicative of A) drive reduction.
B) directive management. C) social leadership. D) 360-degree feedback.
E) achievement motivation.
12. Foolish conformity to peer pressure is most likely to be motivated by ________ needs. A) safety
B) belongingness C) achievement D) self-actualization
E) sexual
13. If pregnant sheep are injected with ________ during a critical gestation period, their female offspring will show homosexual behavior.
A) estrogen B) insulin C) PYY D) orexin
E) testosterone
14. Our sexual attraction toward members of either the same sex or the opposite sex is called our
A) sexual response cycle. B) gender identity. C) set point.
D) sexual orientation. E) sexual identity.
15. In a complete sexual response cycle
A) the excitement phase immediately precedes orgasm. B) orgasm immediately precedes the excitement phase. C) the plateau phase immediately precedes orgasm.
D) the excitement phase immediately precedes the resolution phase. E) the plateau phase immediately precedes the excitement phase.
16. Kamil, a 33-year-old lawyer, experiences premature ejaculation. Research suggests that his disorder can be minimized by
A) engaging in sexual activity less frequently. B) eliminating his high level of sexual guilt.
C) uncovering the unconscious fears that underlie his problem. D) providing therapy designed to raise his self-esteem.
E) learning ways to control his urge to ejaculate.
17. Mr. and Mrs. Kohl plan to spend their evening watching X-rated sex movies. Watching these films is most likely to increase
A) their appreciation of each other as highly desirable sexual partners. B) their levels of sexual arousal.
C) their feelings that sexual promiscuity is morally wrong. D) Mr. Kohl's sexual arousal, while decreasing Mrs. Kohl's.
E) Mrs. Kohl's estrogen levels and decrease Mr. Kohl's testosterone levels. 18. Most women who experience sexual distress relate it to
A) their short refractory periods. B) their own body image problems.
C) their emotional relationship with their partner during sex. D) physical dysfunctions that prevent orgasm.
E) repressed childhood traumas.
19. Isaac, a 25-year-old law student, is heterosexual; his brother Chaim, a 21-year-old college senior, is homosexual. The brothers obviously differ in their
A) erotic plasticity. B) sexual response cycle. C) sexual orientation. D) refractory period.
E) gender type.
20. Individuals who are most vulnerable to anorexia nervosa are those who live in cultures that idealize
A) erotic plasticity. B) homeostasis. C) thin bodies.
D) the experience of flow. E) strong family relationships.
21. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by
A) losses of 25 percent or more of normal weight. B) episodes of overeating followed by vomiting. C) the loss of regular menstrual periods.
D) life-long obesity.
E) periods of unhealthy eating habits followed by starvation.
22. Which theory would be most likely to predict that rats are motivated to explore precisely those areas of an experimental maze where they receive mild electrical shocks?
A) arousal theory
B) hierarchy of needs theory C) instinct theory
D) drive-reduction theory E) two factor theory
23. Although Cara has been obese for as long as she can remember, she is determined to lose excess body weight with a low-calorie diet. Cara is most likely to have difficulty becoming and staying thin because
A) she may have a higher-than-average set point for body weight. B) fat cells can be lost only with vigorous exercise.
C) lean tissue is maintained by fewer calories than is fat tissue. D) her resting metabolic rate will increase and prompt her to overeat.
E) her hypothalamus shrank as a result of excessive dieting.
24. The families of bulimia patients have a higher-than-usual incidence of A) sexual disorders.
B) childhood obesity. C) excess PYY. D) unit bias.
E) neophobia.
25. The body's tendency to maintain a constant internal state is known as A) refractory period.
B) instinct. C) flow.
D) homeostasis. E) metabolism.
26. An unlearned and fixed pattern of behavior common to all members of a species is called a(n)
A) set point. B) drive. C) instinct. D) need.
E) incentive.
27. Which of the following events would most likely cause an animal to overeat and become obese?
A) destruction of its ventromedial hypothalamus B) lowering its set point
C) stimulation of its ventromedial hypothalamus D) destruction of its lateral hypothalamus
E) daily injections of glucose 28. A drive refers to
A) a rigidly patterned and unlearned behavior characteristic of a species.
B) anything that is perceived as having positive or negative value in motivating behavior. C) an aroused, motivated state that is often triggered by a physiological need.
D) the body's resting rate of energy expenditure. E) an unconscious, repressed desire for pleasure. 29. The term homeostasis literally means
A) “common to all.” B) “unique to humans.” C) “staying the same.” D) “motivational dynamics.”
E) “constant stimulation.”
30. According to Maslow, our sequence of needs would be that our need for A) love must be met before our need for food.
B) self-esteem must be met before our need for adequate clothing. C) self-actualization must be met before our need for economic security. D) political freedom must be met before our need for economic security. E) religious fulfillment must be met before our need for adequate housing.
31. Researchers use biological, psychological, and social-cultural levels of analysis to understand eating disorders. The social-cultural level of analysis is especially likely to emphasize that eating disorders are influenced by
A) a natural wariness of unfamiliar foods. B) mass media standards of appearance. C) bouts of depression and anxiety. D) the universal idealization of thinness.
E) instincts and internal drives.
32. Internal push is to external pull as ________ is to ________. A) incentive; set point
B) task leadership; social leadership C) instinct; need
D) need; drive E) need; incentive
33. Psychologists have used four perspectives in their efforts to explain motivation. These include an emphasis on instincts, optimum arousal, a hierarchy of motives, and
A) drive reduction. B) 360-degree feedback. C) refractory periods. D) basal metabolic rate.
E) a fixed behavior pattern.
34. Professor Sanford explains that the need for physical safety must be met before city
dwellers will be motivated to form close friendships with fellow citizens. Professor Sanford is providing an example of
A) set points.
B) a hierarchy of motives. C) homeostasis.
D) erotic plasticity. E) instincts.
35. Food deprivation is to ________ as hunger is to ________. A) homeostasis; thirst
B) incentive; instinct C) need; drive
D) motivation; emotion E) pornography; lust
36. On some college football teams, players are rewarded for outstanding performance with a gold star on their helmets. This practice best illustrates the use of
A) set points.
B) 360-degree feedback. C) incentives.
D) refractory periods. E) instincts.
37. Hunger controls are located within the brain's A) hypothalamus.
B) medulla. C) temporal lobe. D) amygdala.
E) hippocampus.
38. Lack of body fluids is to cold water as ________ is to ________. A) need; incentive
B) drive; incentive C) need; drive D) instinct; set point
E) homeostasis; refractory period
39. The consumption of carbohydrates is most likely to A) lower the body's set point.
B) decrease blood glucose levels. C) reduce tension and anxiety. D) prevent bulimia nervosa.
E) activate the lateral hypothalamus
40. It is characteristic of bears to hibernate. This behavior is an example of A) a refractory period.
B) an instinct. C) homeostasis. D) an incentive.
E) a drive.
41. Experts who defend intelligence tests against the charge of being culturally biased and discriminatory would be most likely to highlight the ________ of intelligence tests. A) factor analysis
B) content validity C) predictive validity D) reliability
42. Aptitude tests are specifically designed to A) predict ability to learn a new skill.
B) compare an individual's abilities with those of highly successful people. C) assess learned knowledge or skills.
D) assess the ability to produce novel and valuable ideas. E) measure educational achievement.
43. Which term refers to all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating?
A) schema B) heuristic C) cognition D) syntax
E) language
44. Eva had difficulty recognizing that a sea horse was a fish because it did not closely resemble her fish
A) hierarchy. B) heuristic. C) algorithm. D) prototype.
E) fixation.
45. Negative recall primed by distressing emotions most clearly illustrates A) repression.
B) retroactive interference. C) the misinformation effect. D) proactive interference.
E) mood-congruent memory.
46. Austin can't remember Jack Smith's name because he wasn't paying attention when Jack was formally introduced. Austin's poor memory is best explained in terms of
A) storage decay.
B) proactive interference. C) encoding failure.
D) retroactive interference. E) source amnesia.
47. Which of the following is an unconditioned response? A) playing jump rope
B) running through a maze to get a food reward C) sweating in hot weather
D) clapping after a thrilling concert performance E) getting money as a reward
48. To assess whether Mrs. Webster had Alzheimer's disease, researchers conditioned her to blink in response to a sound that signaled the delivery of a puff of air directed toward her face. In this application of classical conditioning, the sound was a
A) US. B) UR. C) CS. D) CR.
E) NS.
49. The 130-decibel sound of a rock band is ________ times louder than the 100-decibel sound of a nearby subway train.
A) 2 B) 10 C) 30 D) 100
E) 1000
50. The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the
A) adaptation threshold. B) difference threshold. C) subliminal threshold. D) absolute threshold.
E) change threshold.
51. Babies are born with several reflexes for getting food. One of these is to A) withdraw a limb to escape pain.
B) turn the head away from a cloth placed over the face.
C) open the mouth in search of a nipple when touched on the cheek. D) look longer at facelike images than at a solid disk.
52. Mrs. Pearson cut Judy's hot dog into eight pieces and Sylvia's into six pieces. Sylvia cried because she felt she wasn't getting as much hot dog as Judy. Piaget would say that Sylvia doesn't understand the principle of
A) object permanence. B) conservation. C) assimilation. D) egocentrism.
E) accommodation.
53. Parents in Westernized cultures are more likely than parents in Asian cultures to encourage children to value
A) nonconformity. B) gender roles. C) cultural traditions. D) norms.
E) enduring friendships.
54. Professor Shankar believes that her students' most important personal characteristics are those that distinguish them as uniquely different from most other people. Her attitude best illustrates one of the consequences of
A) individualism. B) gender-typing. C) collectivism. D) heritability.
E) the selection effect.
55. An altered state of consciousness in which people experience fantastic images and often feel separated from their bodies is most closely associated with the use of
A) heroin. B) cocaine. C) barbiturates. D) marijuana.
E) LSD.
56. Nightmares are to ________ as night terrors are to ________. A) REM sleep; Stage 4 sleep
B) narcolepsy; sleep apnea C) delta waves; alpha waves D) Stage 4 sleep; Stage 1 sleep
57. When Stoyka was a child, a brain disease required the surgical removal of her left cerebral hemisphere. Stoyka is now a successful college student who lives a normal life. Her success best illustrates the importance of
A) aphasia. B) reuptake. C) phrenology. D) tomography.
E) plasticity.
58. The slowdown of neural communication in multiple sclerosis involves a degeneration of the A) amygdala.
B) dendrites.
C) corpus callosum. D) myelin sheath.
E) pituitary gland.
59. Evelyn wants to know how consistent her bowling scores have been during the past season. Which of the following measures would be most relevant to this specific concern?
A) mean B) median C) scatterplot
D) standard deviation E) correlation coefficient
60. Mark believes that people are genetically predisposed to dislike bitter-tasting foods because this has enhanced human survival. His belief best illustrates the ________ perspective. A) psychodynamic
B) social-cultural C) evolutionary D) behavioral
Answer Key - c11 practice test
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. E 8. C 9. C 10. C 11. E 12. B 13. E 14. D 15. C 16. E 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. E 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. C 37. A 38. A
42. A 43. C 44. D 45. E 46. C 47. C 48. C 49. E 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. A 55. E 56. A 57. E 58. D 59. D 60. C
