CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 1
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAIMH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XII
thCENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 2
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAITOPIC: GENETIC BASIS OF INHERITANCE 1.
1. Genetics is the study of _____.
(a) heredity (b) variations (c) cells (d) both (a) and (b) 2 The term ‘genetics’ was first coined by
(a) Bateson (b) Mendel (c) Morgan (d) Correns
3. _________ is regarded as the father of Genetics.
(a) Mendel (b) Bateson (c) Correns (d) Hugo De Vries
4. The term ‘gene’ was first used by
(a) Mendel (b) Darwin (c) Johansson (d) Griffith
5. Mendel’s work was rediscovered by
(a) Tschermark (b) De Vries (c) Correns (d) all of these 6. ______ postulated three laws that are known as Mendel’s laws of inheritance.
(a) Tschermark (b) De Vries (c) Correns (d) all of these 7. Mendel carried hybridization experiments using _______.
(a) Drosophila (b) Sorghum (c) Gram (d) Pea
8. The scientific name of garden pea is
(a) Mangifera indica (b) Pisum sativum
(c) Brassica campestris (d) Triticum aestivum 9. Garden pea is an/a _____ plant.
(a) Annual (b) perennial (c) biennial (d) epiphytic 10. Mendel studied ______ pairs of contrasting characters in the pea plant.
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 7
11. Mendel used term _______ to represent the hereditary unit.
(a) Gene (b) trait (c) Factor (d) Allele
12. Which one is a dominant trait out of the characters chosen by Mendel? (a) Pod colour – Yellow (b) Seed colour – White (c) Pod shape - inflated (d) Plant Height – Dwarf 13. Mendel did not consider _____ trait for his hybridization experiments?
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14. Which of the following character did Mendel not use for this breeding experiment with Pisumsativum?
(a) Pod colour (b) Pod shape (c) Leaf shape (d) Plant height 15. Mendel selected pea plants for his experiments, because
(a) their flowers can be easily emasculated (b) they are naturally self pollinating (c) short life span
(d) all of these
16. Genes controlling seven traits in pea studied by Mendel were actually located on
(a) different chromosomes (b) same chromosomes, but apart from each other (c) same chromosome, closely linked (d) either a or b
17. Mendel was lucky, because
(a) He was born in Austria, which is a nice country
(b) He used pea plant for his experiment which is rich in protein
(c) The genes for different characters are located on different chromosomes in Pisum sativum (d) The Pisum sativum is a short-lived plant
18. Mendel allowed the hybrid tall of
F
1 to self fertilize. This process is called(a) back crossing (b) test crossing (c) selfing (d) hybridization. 19. The success of Mendel’s hybridization experiments was due to the fact that
(a) he chose the right material (b) he studies one character at a time
(c) there was no linkage in the characters he studied (d) all of these
20. Gregor Mendel died in___________ .
(a) 1884 (b) 1890 (c) 1900 (d) 1926
21. Two or more alternative forms of a gene are called _______.
(a) allelomorphs (b) multiple alleles (c) paramorphs (d) polygenes 22. The traits that are transmitted from the parents to their offspring are called
(a) anatomical (b) morphological (c) hereditary (d) reproductive 23. An allele that expresses its trait even in heterozygous condition is called _______ allele.
(a) dominant (b) recessive (c) multiple (d) lethal
24. Out of the two contrasting characters of a single trait, the one which suppressed in the
F
1 generation is called______.(a) recessive (b) dominant (c) homozygous (d) allele 25. The external appearance of an individual for any trait is called the
(a) offspring (b) phenotype (c) genotype (d) hybrid
26. The genetic constitution of an organism with respect to a single character or a set of characters is called the ______.
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27. Pure line is a group of individuals that are(a) homozygous for one or more traits (b) heterozygous for one or more traits (c) produce two types of gametes
(d) plants that are grown by Mendel in his own garden.
28. A diagram that is used to show possibilities of combination in a particular cross is named after _________.
(a) Mendel (b) Punnett
(c) Bateson (d) Morgan
29. Punnet square is also known as
(a) checker board (b) cross-check (c) Mendelian square (d) none of these 30. An individual possessing identical alleles of a particular trait is called
(A) Heterozygos (b) homozygous (c) dominant (d) recessive 31. An individual possessing dissimilar alleles of a particular trait is called
(A) Heterozygous (b) homozygous (c) dominant (d) recessive 32. Genotype of a tall plant is/ could be ___________.
(a) TT (b) tt (c) Tt (d) both a or c
33. rr refers to _________ condition.
(a) homozygous recessive (b) heterozygous (c) homozygous dominant (d) phenotypic 34. Rr refers to _________ condition.
(a) homozygous (b) heterozygous (c) dominant (d) phenotypic 35. ________ genotype characterizes an organism that is heterozygous for two genes.
(a) RRRy (b) RrYY (c) RRYY (d) RrYy
36. The generation produced by from selfing or interbreeding of
F
1 individuals is called(a)
F
1 generation (b)F
2 generation (c)F
3 generation (d)F
4 generation.37. The cross that is made between two parents that differ in a single pair of contrasting characters is known as a
(a) dihybrid cross (b) monohybrid ratio (c) monohybrid cross (d) trihybrid cross. 38. The law of segregation is also called the
(a) law of purity of gametes (b) law of dominance (c) law of independent assortment (d) law of co-dominance 39. The law of dominance is often described as
(a) Mendel’s first law of inheritance (b) Mendel’s second law of inheritance (c) Mendel’s third law of inheritance (d) Mendel’s fourth law of inheritance
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40. A dihybrid cross is a cross between two ______.(a) homozygous parents differing in one pair of contrasting characters. (b) homozygous parents differing in two pairs of contrasting characters. © heterozygous parents differing in one pair of contrasting characters. (d) Heterozygous parents.
41. Dihybrid forms four types of gametes due to _________.
(a) segregation (b) independent assortment
(c) mutations (d) none of these
42. Identify correct statement.
(a) In human beings curly hair is dominant over straight hair. (b) In guinea pigs, white coat colour is dominant over black. (c) In jowar chalky grain is dominant over pearly.
(d) In human beings blue eye colour is dominant over brown. 43. Dihybrid cross proves
(a) law of independent assortment (b) law of segregation (c) law of dominance (d) law of purity of gametes. 44. Independent assortment of genes takes place when
(a) Genes are located on different chromosomes (b) Genes are linked and located on same chromosome
(c) Genes are located on same chromosome, but apart from each other. (d) both a and c
45. Gene recombination is due to
(a) Independent assortment (b) Linkage
(c) Modifier genes (d) Mutations
46. “ Gametes are never hybrid”. It is a statement of law of
(a) Dominance (b) Segregation
(c) Independent assortment (d) none of these
47. Heterozygous tall plant is selfed. It produces both tall and dwarf plants. This confirms which of the Mendel’s laws?
(a) Law of dominance (b) Law of segregation (c) Law of independent assortment (d) Incomplete dominance 48. Alleles of an allelic pair separate during
(a) fertilization (b) mitosis (c) gamete formation (d) b or c 49. How many different kinds of gametes a plant having the genotype AABbCC will produce?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Nine (d) Two
50. During selfing YyRr plants will produce __________ types of gametes.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5.
51. Genotype ratio obtained in the
F
2generation of a monohybrid cross is ________. (a) 1 : 2 : 1 (b) 9: 3: 3 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA #
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52. Monohybrid phenotypic ratio obtained in theF
2generation is______.(a) 3:1 (b) 1:1 (c) 9:3:3:1 (d) 4:1
53. A cross between a homozygous tall pea plant and homozygous dwarf pea plant, results in ____ progeny in F1.
(a) tall (b) dwarf
(c) neither tall nor dwarf (d) none of these 54. The genotypic ratio of
F
2 individuals in a monohybrid cross is(a) 3 dominant and 1 recessive
(b) 1 homozygous dominant, 2 heterozygous dominant and 1 homozygous recessive (c) all dominant
(d) 4 dominant and 2 recessive
55. A homozygous pea plants having axillary coloured flowers is crossed with a pea plant having terminal white flowers. What will be the result of
F
1 progeny?(a) All axillary coloured (b) All terminal coloured (c) All axillary white (d) All terminal white.
56. Heterozygous tall (Tt) is crossed with homozygous tall (TT). Percentage of heterozygous tall in the progeny would be
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%
57. If a cross is made between TT and tt, progeny will be
(a) Genotypically TT, phenotypically dwarf (b) Genotypically Tt, phenotypically dwarf (c) Genotypically Tt, phenotypically Tall (d) Genotypically tt, phenotypically tall
58. In monohybrid cross, the ratio of homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive individuals in 2
F
-generation is _________.(a) 1 : 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 / 1 : 2 (c) 3 : 1 / 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 1 59. The proportion of YyRr in dihybrid ratio is ________.
(a) 4/16 (b) 2/16 (c) 1/16 (d) 3/16
60. What result did Mendel get when he allowed
F
1 hybrid (Tt) to inbreed to raiseF
2 generation? (a) 75% tall and 25% dwarf (b) 50% tall and 50% dwarf(c) 25% tall and 75% tall (d) 100% tall.
61. In garden pea plants, what will be the phenotypic yellow: green ratio when YyrR is self pollinated.
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
62. The phenotypic dihybrid ratio in
F
2 generation of Mendelian experiment in pea plants is (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1 (c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 63. The proportion of ttrr in Mendel’s dihybrid ratio is(a) 4 16 (b) 2 16 (c) 1 16 (d) 3 16
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64. A pure yellow wrinkled variety of pea plant is crossed with a pure green round variety What will bethe result in
F
1 generation?(a) All yellow round (b) All green wrinkled (c) all yellow wrinkled (d) mixed type
65. Test cross is a cross which is made between a
F
1 hybrid and _______.(a) pure dominant parent (b) pure recessive parent (c) F2 individual (d) both a and b. 66. A cross that is made between a
F
1 hybrid and either of its homozygous parents is called a(a) test cross (b) out cross (c) back cross (d) monohybrid cross. 67. _____is a test cross.
(a)
Aa aa
(b)AA aa
(c)AA Aa
(d) AA
AA68. A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with homozygous dwarf pea plant. What will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring in this cross?
(a) 3:1 (b) 4:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 9:3:3:1
69. A test cross is performed to distinguish between (a) Two homozygous forms
(b) Two heterozygous form
(c) A homozygous dominant and a heterozygous form (d) A homozygous recessive and the heterozygous form 70. Alleles of an allelic pair occupy
(a) different loci on homologous chromosomes (b) same loci on homologous chromosomes (c) same loci on nonhomologous chromosomes (d) different loci on nonhomologous chromosomes. 71. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Similar phenotypes show similar genotypes (b) Similar genotypes show similar phenotypes (c) Like begets like
(d) Gametes are pure. 72. Individuals that look similar
(a) always have the same genotype (b) May not have the same genotype (c) are offspring of hybrid parents (d) are offspring of similar parents. 73. In a case of incomplete dominance
F
2 generation has(a) Genotype ratio 3:1 (b) Phenotypic ratio 3:1
(c) Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio – 1:2:1 (d) None of the above.
74. In Mirabilis jalapa when homozygous red flowered and white flowered plants are crossed, all
F
1 plants have pink coloured flowers. InF
2 produced by selfing ofF
1 Plants, red, pink, white flowered plants would appear respectively in the ratio ofCENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA #
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75. Classic example of codominance is ___________.(a) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa (b) Coat colour in cattle
(c) Wing size in Drosophila (d) Skin colour in human beings 76. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) In both incomplete dominance and codominance, phenotypic ratios are identical. (b) In both incomplete dominance and codominance, genotypic ratios are identical.
(c) In codominance the phenotype of hybrid is intermediate between the phenotype of parents. (d) In incomplete dominance both the genes of an allelic pair express themselves partially.
77. More than two alternative forms of a gene in a population occupying same locus on a chromosome or its homologue are called
(a) Multiple alleles (b) Polygenes (c) Oncogenes (d) None of these 78. Which of the following is controlled by multiple alleles?
(a) Colour blindness (b) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) Phenylketonuria (d) Blood groups
79. ABO blood group in human beings show ____ different phenotypes and ______ different genotypes.
(a) 4,6 (b) 6, 4 (c) 4,4 (d) 6,6
80. _______ alleles do not undergo crossing over.
(a) Dominant (b) recessive (c) multiple (d) none of these
81. A man with blood group A marries a women with blood group B and their first child is having blood group B. What is the genotype of child?
(a) I IB O (b)I IO O (c) I IA O (d) I IB B 82. ________ is an example of pleiotropy.
(a) Haemophilia (b) Thalassemia (c) Sickle-cell anemia (d) Colour blindess 83. Pleiotropy is a condition in which a single gene
(a) Controls only one trait (b) Controls two or more traits (c) Does not control any trait (d) controls any trait
84. Examples of polygenic inheritance are _________. (a) Human height and skin colour
(b) ABO blood group in humans and flower colour of mirabilis jalapa (c) Hair pigment of mouse and tongue roiling in humans
(d) Human eye colour and sickle cell anaemia 85. Identify correct statement.
(a) Gene for sickle cell anaemia is lethal in heterozygous condition.
(b) Gene for sickle cell anaemia produces sickle cell trait in homozygous condition. (c) Sickle cell anaemia is an example of multiple alleles.
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86. ___________ discovered polygeneic inheritance.(a) Mendel (b) Punnett (c) H. Nilsson-Ehle (d) Watson 87. In wheat, shade of kernel colour depends on number of ______ genes.
(a) Dominant (b) recessive
(c) both a and b (d) does not depend on number of genes. 88. Skin colour inheritance in man is an example of
(a) Monogenic (b) Polygenic (c) Sex linked (d) Multiple alleles 89. Genotype for Mulatto skin colour is ___________.
(a) Aabbcc (b) AaBbCc (c) AABBCC (d) aaBbCc
90. When one gene pair hides the effect of other pair, this phenomena is referred as
(a) Mutation (b) Epistasis (c) Dominance (d) Pleiotropy 91. Red seed colour shown an
F
2 ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1. It is due to(a) Different number of dominant genes (b) Different number of recessive genes (c) Supplementary genes
(d) Two Polygenes
92. The ratio is _______ when three polygenes determine a trait.
(a) 9:3:3:1 (b) 1:6:15:20:15:6:1 (c) 1:4:6:4:1 (d) 15:1 93. Select the statement, which is not correct?
(a) Polygenic character is controlled multiple alleles (b) Polygeneic characters have additive effect (c) Height, Skin colour are polygenic
(d) Polygenic character is controlled by multiple genes 94. Which of the following is signification of dominance
(a) Organisms with dominant genes are more vital
(b) Harmful mutations are not expressed due to dominant gene (c) Heterosis is due to dominant gene
(d) All of the above
95. _____ are codominant alleles.
(a) IA and IB (b) IA and i (c) IB and i (d) none of these
96. Identify correct statement.
(a) Incomplete dominance favours the blending theory of inheritance.
(b) In incomplete dominance both the genes of an allelic pair are expressed equally. (c) In incomplete dominance both the genes of an allelic pair are expressed partially. (d) Sickle cell anaemia is an example of incomplete dominance.
97. In Drosophila, genotype vgvg results in ________ wings.
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ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI TOPIC: GENETIC BASIS OF INHERITANCE (ANSWER KEY)
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d)
16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b)
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d)
36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a)
46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (a)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (c) 81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (b) 91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (c) 97. (c)
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XII
thCHAPTER
: GENE- ITS NATURE, EXPRESSION AND
REGULATION
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
TOPIC: GENE- ITS NATURE, EXPRESSION AND REGULATION
1. DNA structure was given by ___________ .
(a) Altman (b) Watson and Crick (c) Mendel (d) Bateson
2. X-ray crystallographic studies which led to discovery of DNA structure were carried by _______ . (a) Maurice Wilkins (b) Rosalind Franklin (c) Watson, Crick (d) Both (a) and (b) 3. Deoxyribosc sugar is ____________ .
(a) C5H10O5 (b) C5H10O4 (c) C6H12O6 (d) None of these 4. In DNA, adenine pairs with __________ .
(a) Guanine (b) Cytosine (c) Thymine (d) (a) or (b) 5. Nucleotide is ___________ .
(a) base – sugar - phosphate (b) base – sugar (c) sugar – phosphate (d) base – sugar - OH 6. Monomer of a nucleic acid molecule is ___________ .
(a) nucleotide (b) nucleoside (c) Nitrogen base (d) sugar 7. Chargaff’s rule may be represented as ____________ .
(a) A + G = T + C (b) A +G=1
T +C (c) A + G (d) Both (a) and (b)
8. N-base is attached to pentose sugar in a nucleoside at ___________ carbon atoms.
(a) second (b) first (c) third (d) fifth
9. Identify odd one out :-
(a) Thymine (b) Cytosine (c) Uracil (d) Adenine
10. N-base absent in DNA ___________
(a) uracil (b) adenine (c) guanine (d) thymine
11. Purines are __________ .
(a) double ring compounds (b) Single ring compounds
(c) C and T (d) Both (b) and (c)
12. Pyrimidines are _____________ .
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13. Nucleotides are named according to their __________ .(a) pentose sugar (b) nitrogen base (c) phosphate group (d) none of these 14. In a nucleotide nitrogen based is attached to __________ carbon of sugar molecule by ______ bond.
(a) 2nd, glycosidic (b) 1st , glycosidic (c) 5th, phosphodiester (d) 5th glycosidic 15. The successive nucleotides of same strand of DNA are linked by _________ .
(a) 3-5 phosphodiester linkage (b) Hydrogen bond
(c) Glycosidic bond (d) None of these
16. N-bases along with Hydrogen bonds are ___________ .
(a) rungs of ladder (b) transverse bars (c) longitudinal bars (d) Both (a) and (b) 17. Length of one comple spiral of DNA is __________ .
(a) 3.4 nm (b) 4.3 nm (c) 3.4 m (d) 4.3 m
18. If DNA has 10 spirals, the length of DNA will be ____________ .
(a) 34 A (b) 340 A (c) 640 A (d) 64 A
19. Identify the pair of nucleotides joined by two hydrogen bonds in DNA.
(a) AT (b) CG (c) AG (d) CA
20. How many nucleotides will be present in a DNA of 10,000 base pairs.
(a) 10,000 (b) 1,000 (c) 20,000 (d) 2000
21. Identify correct statements :-
(i) DNA strands are complementary and parallel
(ii) DNA strands are coiled around an imaginary central axis. (iii) DNA strands are complementary and antiparallel.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct (b) (ii) and (iii) are correct (c) (i) and (ii) are correct (d) Only (i) is correct 22. E. coli DNA has 18% C, what will be fraction of A ?
(a) 18% (b) 32% (c) 36% (d) data insufficient.
23. t-RNA is also called ____________ .
(a) s-RNA (b) hnRNA (c) nodoc (d) none of them
24. t-RNA is also called S-RNA because ___________ . (a) It is single stranded.
(b) It cannot be easily separated by ultracentrifugation. (c) It carries serine.
(d) None of these.
25. If the base sequence is 5'CAG AGG GAA UAC CCA3', it is a segment of ____________ .
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26. The correct sequence in descending order according to molecular weight is ___________ .(a) rRNA, tRNA, DNA (b) DNA, rRNA, tRNA
(c) mRNA, DNA, rRNA (d) rRNA, tRNA, mRNA
27. UUU codes for _____________ .
(a) methionine (b) phenyl alanine (c) glycine (d) leucine 28. In RNA molecule purine:pyrimidine ratio is
(a) always 1:1 (b) may or may not be 1:1
(c) never 1:1 (d) 2:1
29. RNA is produced on DNA template by the process called ____________ .
(a) translation (b) replication (c) transcription (d) none of these 30. ___________ is always simple and straight without any fold.
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) (a) and (b)
31. ______ % of total cellular RNA is mRNA.
(a) 70-80% (b) 3-5% (c) 50% (d) 10-20%
32. Sequence of three nucleotides on mRNA is called ___________ .
(a) codon (b) anticodon (c) codogen (d) none of these 33. Identify start and stop codon.
(a) AUG, CCC (b) UAA, UPG (c) AUG, UAA (d) UAA, AUG
34. Identify nonsense codon.
(a) UAA (b) UAG (c) UGA (d) All of these
35. Stop codons are also called __________ .
(a) terminators (b) non-sense (c) codogen (d) Both (a) and (b) 36. Molecular weight of rRNA ranges between ___________ .
(a) 23,000 -30,000 (b) 40,000-1,00,000 (c) 5,00,000-7,00,000 (d) 10,00-20,000 37. About 80% of total cellular RNA is ____________ .
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) hnRNA
38. ____________ is smallest of all RNA types.
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) Both (a) and (c)
39. 5 end of tRNA has ____________ nucleotide.
(a) A (b) T (c) G (d) U
40. Acceptor end of tRNA has ____________ triplet.
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41. Identify wrong statement :-(a) DHU arm of tRNA has amino acyl binding loop. (b) Middle arm of tRNA has anticodon loop.
(c) DHU arm of tRNA has ribosomal binding loop. (d) tRNA is also called as soluble RNA.
42. ___________ is also referred to as nodoc.
(a) codogen (b) anticodon (c) codon (d) Both (a) and (c) 43. tRNA carries amino acid at ____________ .
(a) 5 end (b) anticodon
(c) 3 end (d) aminoacyl synthatase binding loop.
44. In E.coli, the initiating amino acid in protein synthesis is _____________ .
(a) methionine (b) N-formyl methionine
(c) trypsin (d) serine
45. A smaller subunit of ribosome has a binding site for mRNA and larger subunit has two binding sites for ___________ molecules.
(a) DNA (b) tRNA (c) Restriction enzyme (d) None of these 46. Identify the statement which is not applicable to mRNA.
(a) It is a linear molecule (b) It has G at 5 end
(c) It is 3-5% of total cellular RNA (d) Triplets on mRNA are called codons. 47. During splicing, exons are joined by _________________ .
(a) RNA ligase (b) DNA ligase (c) RNA polymerase (d) None of these 48. Transcript to TTCGCACT will be _______________ .
(a) AAGCGUGA (b) AAGCGTGA (c) UUGCGUGA (d) AACCGUGU
49. All the four types of DNA nucleotides are found in nucleoplasm in the form of their __________ . (a) triphosphates (b) monophosphates (c) biphosphates (d) Both (a) or (c) 50. Activation of nucleotides occurs in the presence of enzyme ________________ .
(a) ligase (b) polymerase (c) phosphorylase (d) primase 51. Identify the process of activation of nucleotides :-
(a) dAMP + ATP → dATP + AMP (b) dTMP + ATP → dTTP + AMP (c) dCMP + ATP → dCTP + AMP (d) all of these
52. In ____________ there are several origin of replication.
(a) bacteria (b) blue-green algae (c) eukaryotic cells (d) none of them 53. The separation of DNA strands is done by DNA-unwinding protein called ___________ .
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 6
54. Synthesis of RNA primer during DNA replicaion is controlled by ____________ .(a) RNA primase (b) RNA polymerase (c) ligase (d) none of these 55. RNA primer gets attached to ____________ .
(a) 3 end of template strand (b) 5 end of template strand (c) middle of template strand (d) Both (a) and (b)
56. New strand of DNA is synthesized in _____________ direction.
(a) 5 → 3 (b) 3 → 5 (c) either a or b (d) none of these 57. The strand which opens from 3 → 5 is called ____________ .
(a) lagging strand (b) leading strand (c) lagging template (d) leading template 58. ____________ is synthesized discontinuously at a slower rate.
(a) lagging strand (b) leading strand (c) lagging template (d) leading template 59. Okazaki fragments are joined by enzyme _____________ .
(a) DNA polymerase (b) DNA ligase (c) RNA ligase (d) none of these 60. ______________ experimentally proved semi-conservative nature of DNA replication.
(a) Watson and Crick (b) Wilkins and Franklin (c) Bateson and Punnett (d) Meselson and Stahl. 61. DNA replication in prokaryotes is known as ___________ replication.
(a) alpha (b) beta (c) theta (d) gamma
62. Experimental system used in studies on DNA replication is ___________ .
(a) Neurospora crassa (b) E. coli
(c) Drosophila (d) Diplococci pneumoniae
63. ___________ isotope was used in an experiment which proved semiconservative way of DNA replication.
(a) N15 (b) P32 (c) S35 (d) C12
64. Unwinding of DNA is catalyzed by ______________________
(a) topoisomerase (b) helicase (c) primase (d) ligase
65. A DNA molecule is E. coli labeled with N15, is allowed to replicate in a medium containing N14. After one generation of replication, two daughter molecules will _____________ .
(a) be similar in density but differ from that of parent DNA. (b) differ in density as well as from that of parent DNA. (c) have same density as that of parent DNA.
(d) differ in density but resemble parent DNA.
66. On the DNA template with polarity 3 - 5, the replication is _____________ .
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 7
67. In transcription unit promoter is located at ____________ .(a) 5 end of coding strand (b) 3 end of template strand (c) 3 end of coding strand (d) both a and b
68. In transcription unit the terminator is located at ____________ .
(a) 3 end of coding strand (b) 5 end of coding strand (c) 3 end of template strand (d) all the above.
69. Match the column :-
Column I Column II
(i) Helicase (p) activation of nucleotide
(ii) Ligase (q) synthesis of DNA strand
(iii) Phosphorylase (r) DNA unwinding protein (iv) DNA polymerase (s) joins DNA fragments.
(a) (i)-(r), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(s) (b) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(q) (c) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(p) (d) (i)-(q), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(r) 70. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by ___________ .
(a) Vernon Ingram (b) Watson and Crick
(c) Wilkins and Franklin (d) Beadle and Tatum 71. One gene – one polypeptide hypothesis was given by ____________ .
(a) Vernon Ingram (b) Watson and Crick (c) Mendel (d) Beadle and Tatum 72. Spores of ____________ were exposed to _______ causing mutation in DNA, by Beadle and
Tatum.
(a) Neurospora crassa, chemical mutagens (b) Neurospora crassa, X-rays (c) Aspergillus, X-rays (d) Aspergillus, chemical mutagens 73. Central dogma of molecular biology is _______________ .
(a) DNA TranscriptionRNA Translation Proteins (b) DNA Translation Proteins
(c) DNA TranslationRNA Translation Proteins (d) DNA TranslationRNA Transcription Proteins
74. Each codon codes for a specific amino acid – was suggested by __________ .
(a) Crick (b) Watson (c) George Gamow (d) HG Khorana 75. Complete genetic code was cracked by __________ .
(a) Nirenberg (b) H. Matthaei (c) HG Khorana (d) all of these 76. Among 64 codons, ______ are termination codons and ___________ are sense codons.
(a) 4, 60 (b) 3, 61 (c) 5, 59 (d) 2, 62
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 8
(a) Nirenberg (b) Crick (c) Creighton (d) HG Khorana78. If more than one codon codes an amino acid, it is ________________ . (a) degeneracy of codon (b) overlapping of codon
(c) nonsense codons (d) non above.
79. In genetic code, a doublet codon system would have made ___________ types of codons possible.
(a) 64 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) 24
80. mRNA has methyl GTP cap and ____________ tail.
(a) poly A (b) poly G (c) poly T (d) poly C
81. mRNA is a complementary copy of ____________ .
(a) 5-3 DNA strand (b) 3-5 DNA strand (c) any of (a) and (b) (d) tRNA 82. Enzyme involved in transcription is ____________ .
(a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA polymerase (c) RNA carboxylase (d) restriction enzyme 83. Eukaryotic RNA polymerase III catalyse the synthesis of ___________ .
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) snRNA (d) both b and c
84. ___________ is not associated with termination of protein synthesis.
(a) UAA (b) UAG (c) UGA (d) AUG
85. ____________ bases in mRNA would be present for a polypeptide chain of 40 amino acids.
(a) 120 (b) 160 (c) 80 (d) 40
86. Polysomes lack _____________ .
(a) DNA (b) mRNA (c) proteins (d) rRNA
87. _____________ decides amino acid sequence in protein synthesis.
(a) rRNA (b) tRNA (c) CDNA (d) mRNA
88. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order during transcription is called __________ .
(a) transformation (b) splicing (c) capping (d) tailing 89. The Wobble effect is the ___________ .
(a) lack of precision with regard to the 3rd base of anticodon and codon. (b) Instability of DNA molecule when unwound.
(c) Instability of pairing when a pyrimidine base pairs with other pyrimidine. (d) lack of precision with regard to 1st base of anticodon and codon.
90. mRNA is prokaryotes is ___________ .
(a) monocistronic (b) polycistronic (c) replicative (d) none of these 91. ______________ plays important role in transcription.
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 9
(a) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase(c) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (d) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 92. Match the column :-
Column I Column II
(i) One gene – one enzyme (1) Wilkins, Franklin (ii) One gene –one polypeptide (2) Beadle and Tatum (iii) X-ray crystallography of DNA (3) Watson and Crick (iv) DNA structure (4) Vernon Ingram
(a) (i)-(2), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(3) (b) (i)-(4), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(3) (c) (i)-(2), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(1), (iv)-(4) (d) (i)-(1), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(3) 93. Find incorrect match :-
(a) Initiator codon – AUG (b) Stop codon – UAA (c) Terminator codon - UAC (d) Non-sense codon - UAG 94. Termination of transcription is controlled by ___________ factor.
(a) Sigma (b) Rho
(c) Transcription factor (d) None of these 95. Enzyme that initiate, transcription is ____________ .
(a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA polymerase (c) ligase (d) RNA primase 96. Initiation and termination factors for transcription process are ______ and ______ respectively.
(a) sigma, rho (b) rho, sigma (c) R1, R2 (d) R1,S 97. Find incorrect match :-
(a) RNA polymerase I – formation of rRNA, mRNA (b) RNA polymerase II – synthesis of precursor of mRNA (c) RNA polymerase III – synthesis of tRNA, snRNA (d) RNA primase – synthesis of RNA - primer
98. hnRNA which has undergone _________ functions as mRNA.
(a) copping (b) splicing (c) tailing (d) all of above. 99. Formation of AA-tRNA complex is also called ____________ .
(a) charging of tRNA (b) aminoacylation of tRNA
(c) translocation (d) Both (a) and (b)
100. Initiation of polypeptide chain require ___________ as source of energy.
(a) only ATP (b) only GTP (c) only TTP (d) Both (a) and (b) 101. Initiation of polypeptide synthesis starts with ____________ .
(a) binding of mRNA to 50s ribosome. (b) binding of mRNA to 30s ribosome. (c) binding of mRNA to 70s ribosome. (d) binding of mRNA to tRNA.
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 10
102. AA1-tRNA complex gets attached to ___________ .(a) UAA (b) UCU (c) AUG (d) None of these
103. Only the AA1-tRNA complex binds at __________ site directly while all other incoming tRNA complexes get attached first at ___________ site.
(a) P, A (b) A, P (c) P, E (d) A, E
104. Polypeptide chain is released from _____________ site.
(a) A (b) P (c) E (d) none of these
105. Elongation of polypeptide is catalyzed by __________ .
(a) aminoacyl tRNA synthatase (b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (c) Peptidyl transferase (d) ligase
106. In every step of _____________ one amino acid is added in polypeptide chain.
(a) transcription (b) replication (c) translocation (d) amplification 107. Termination of polypeptide synthesis involves ____________ factors.
(a) rho and sigma (b) R1R2S (c) only rho (d) only sigma 108. Ribosomes are composed of approximately ___________% rRNA and _________% proteins.
(a) 65%, 35% (b) 60%, 40% (c) 70%, 30% (d) 50%, 50% 109. _____________ is not bound by membrane.
(a) mitochondria (b) lysosome (c) ribosome (d) plastid 110. During transcription RNA polymerase binds at ______________ .
(a) regulator (b) terminator (c) promotor (d) none of these 111. In an operon, repressor protein binds to the __________ region of operon.
(a) structural gene (b) promoter (c) operator (d) (a) or (b) 112. Lac operon model was proposed by ___________ .
(a) Jacob and Monad (b) Watson, Crick (c) Beadle and Tatum (d) Grittith 113. Lactose enters the cell because of activity of ___________ .
(a) -galactosidase (b) permease (c) transacetylase (d) none of these 114. Length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is approximately ___ m.
(a) 2.2 (b) 1.2 (c) 0.2 (d) none of these
115. Approximate size of a typical nucleus is ______ m.
(a) 10 -6 (b) 10 -4 (c) 10 -3 (d) 10 -5
116. Histone octamer consists two each of ______.
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 11
117. ____ are seen as ‘beads on strings’.(a) centromere (b) nucleosomes (c) chromatids (d) none of these 118. Around the octamer, DNA molecule is wrapped as _____ turn.
(a) 1 and ½ (b) one (c) one and ¾ th (d) 1/2
119. Core DNA of nucleosome consists of _____ bp.
(a) 145 (b) 146 (c) 150 (d) 140
120. Length of linker DNA is ____ bp.
(a) 54 (b) 45 (c) 10 (d) none of these
121. The ‘beads on string’ structure gets condensed into ---- fibre, which is _____ nm in diameter. (a) solenoid, 10 (b) solenoid, 30 (c) nucleosome, 10 (d) nucleosome, 30 122. Each nucleosome contains ______ bp of DNA helix.
(a) 200 (b) 256 (c) 146 (d) 100
123. Coiling of nucleosome fibre results in ______ fibre, which is _____ nm in diameter.
(a) chromatin, 20 (b) solenoid, 30 (c) solenoid, 20 (d) chromatid, 700 124. Nucleosome and solenoid fibres are the characteristics of nucleus at ______.
(a) interphase (b) metaphase (c) anaphase (d) telophase 125. Identify the correct statement.
(a) Euchromatin is transcriptionally active and stains light. (b) Heterochromatin in transcriptionally inactive and stains light. (c) Heterochromatin is transcriptinally active and stains light. (d) Euchromatin is transcriptionally active and stains dark.
126. Transformation experiment was carried by ______, using ________.
(a) F. Griffith, bacteriophages (b) F. Griffith, Diplococci pneumoniae © Hershey –Chase, bacteriophages (d) Hershey and Chase, E. coli
127. Non-capsulated Diplococci pneumoniae were ______.
(a) virulent (b) non-virulent (c) rough (d) both b and c 128. S-type bacteria were _____.
(a) capsulated (b) non-capsulated (c) virulent (d) both a and c 129. ______ proved that the transforming principle is DNA for first time using test tube assay.
(a) Avery (b) Macleod (c) McCarty (d) all of these
130. Identify correct statement.
(a) RNA of S type bacteria + R type bacteria --- R type bacteria got transformed into S-type. (b) DNA of S type bacteria + R type bacteria --- R type bacteria got transformed into S type © RNA of R type bacteria + Living S type bacteria ---- S type bacteria got transformed into Rtype (d) none of these
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 12
131. Bacteriophages are composed of _______.(a) DNA (b) proteins (c) RNA (d) both a and b
132. Identify the correct statement.
(a) Bacteria which were infected by virus with radioactive DNA, were radioactive. (b) Bacteria which were infected by virus with radioactive protein, were radioactive. © Bacteria which were infected by virus with radioactive protein, were not radioactive. (d) both a and c
133. ______ introduced the term cistron.
(a) Benzer (b) Watson and Crick (c) Wilkins (d) Mendel 134. ______ participates in genetic recombination during _______.
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
TOPIC: GENE- ITS NATURE, EXPRESSION AND REGULATION (ANSWER KEY)
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d) 61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (d) 71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (a) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (d) 101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (c)
111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (b) 114. (a) 115. (a)
116. (b) 117. (b) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (a) 121. (c ) 122. (a) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (b) 127. (d) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (b) 131. (d) 132. (d) 133. (a) 134. (b)
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XII
thCHAPTER
: BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS AND
APPLICATION
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
TOPIC:BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS AND APPLICATION 1. Biotechnology is an applied science which involves
(a) microbiology (b) molecular biology (c) genetic engineering (d) all of these 2. The recombinant DNA technique was fast proposed by
(a) Peter Lobban (b) A. Dale Kaiser (c) Stanley Cohen (d) Both (a) and (b) 3. Tool is used by Stanley Cohen and Herber Boyer in rDNA technology was / were
(a) antibiotic resistance gene (b) plasmid of Salmonella
(c) E. coli (d) all of these
4. Genetically engineered insulin can be obtained by (a) recombinant DNA technique with the help of E. coli
(b) two coded insulin genes separated and then incorporated into bacteria (c) the extraction of cow’s and pigs pancreas
(d) technique not developed till now
5. The first step in recombinant DNA technolog’ is
(a) isolation of DNA (b) insertion of DNA (c) joining of DNA (d) duplication of DNA 6. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves
(a) cleaving DNA segments with ‘ligase’ and rejoining them with endonuclease (b) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with ‘ligase’ alone
(c) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with ‘endonuclease’ alone
(d) cleaving DNA segments with ‘endonuclease’ and rejoining them with‘ligase’ 7. In which bacteria, gene of insulin was cloned?
(a) E. coli (b) Clostridium (c) Shigella (d) Diplococcus 8. The cell or organism from which the required gene is taken is called
(a) plasmid (b) cloning vector (c) donor (d) vector 9. Recombinant DNA is also called as
(a) chimeric DNA (b) rDNA (c) eDNA (d) both (A) and (B) 10. The chemical knives of DNA are
(a) ligases (b) polymerases (c) endonucleases (d) transcriptase 11. A cloning vector must have
(a) enzymes necessary for replication (b) marker DNA (c) replication origin (d) none of the above
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 3
12. Process of insertion of a viral vector is called(a) transformation (b) transfection (c) transduction (d) conjugation 13. Which process is used for the insertion of vectors in eukaryotic cells?
(a) transformation (b) transfection (c) transduction (d) conjugation 14. The sequences of DNA that can transpose themselves are known as
(a) transposons (b) jumping genes (c) plasminogen (d) both (a) and (b) 15. The first transposons were discovered in
(a) maize (b) tomato (c) yeast (d) bacteria
16. About ___________ of the total genome of maize consists of the transposons.
(a) 10% (b) 90% (c) 50% (d) 35%
17. ‘Alu’ sequence is a
(a) plasmid (b) cosmid (c) transposon (d) phage
18. Reverse transcription is involved in
(a) formation of cosmid (b) formation of retrotransposons (c) formation of DNA transposons (d) formation of lambda phage 19. Which of the following is involved in development of DNA transposons?
(a) A staggered cut is made at the target site by action of transposase and sticky end is produced (b) Transposon is cut out.
(c) Ligation of transposon in new position. (d) All of the above
20. What are cosmids?
(a) plasmids with fragments of E.coli (b) plasmids with fragments of lambda phage (c) plasmids with fragments of M 13 phage (d) plasmids with fragments of transposon. 21. pBR 322 was discovered by ___________.
(a) Bolivar and Rodriguez (b) Bolivar and Ramsey (c) Bohem and Rodriguez (d) Bohem and Ramsey 22. Which of the following is related to penetration?
(a) Attachment of bacteriophage to specific receptors on the surface of bacteria.
(b) Contraction of tail fibre and injection of genetic material through the bacterial membrane. (c) Synthesis of viral DNA.
(d) Packaging of viral DNA.
23. In bacteriophage, genetic material is enclosed by
(a) calcium carbonate covering (b) host cell
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 4
24. Ghost is nothing but(a) host cell or bacterial cell
(b) capsid – protein coat that remains outside the host cell (c) head part of bacteriophage.
(d) tail part of bacteriophage. 25. Restriction enzymes
(a) are endonucleases which cleaves DNA at specific sites (b) make DNA complementary to an existing DNA or RNA (c) cut or join DNA fragments
(d) are required in vectorless direct gene transfer
26. Restriction enzyme belong to a larger class of enzyme called
(a) retronuclease (b) nucleases (c) proenzyme (d) bioenzymes 27. The endonucleases used in genetic engineering are
(a) type I (b) type II (c) type III (d) type IV
28. Hind III is isolated from
(a) E.coli (b) Haemophilus influenza
(c) Hindustan virus (d) Haryana virus
29. In genetic engineering, restriction endonuclease cuts DNA at specific regions
(a) promoter region (b) recognition sequence
(c) sense region (d) cloning sites
30. Restriction endonuclease requires which of the following ions for cleavage?
(a) Na++ (b) Mg++ (d) K+ (d) H+
31. Fragments of DNA formed after treatment with endonucleases are separated by the technique of (a) polymerase chain reaction (b) southern blotting
(c) colony hybridization (d) gel electrophoresis
32. _________is a collection of all clones of DNA fragments representing the complete genome of an organism.
(a) cDNA library (b) Genomic library (c) PCR (d) Tissue culture 33. cDNA is the
(a) chemical DNA (b) copy DNA (c) complete DNA (d) complementary DNA 34. The process of reverse transcription was discovered by
(a) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (b) Watson and Crick (c) Steward Linn and Werner Arber (d) Temin and Baltimore 35. cDNA is produced by using
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 5
36. The enzyme used in PCR technique is(a) Bam I (b) Taq polymerase (c) Hind III (d) Eco RI 37. Denaturation of DNA takes place at about
(a) 60°C (b) 91°C (c) 74°C (d) 100°C
38. For annealing, temperature required about
(a) 55°C (b) 75°C (c) 90°C (d) 25°C
39. Thermal cycling used in PCR technique nothing but
(a) raising temperature of PCR sample (b) decreasing temperature of PCR sample (c) alternate heating and cooling PCR sample (d) heating PCR sample to its boiling point 40. Which of the following is correct sequence of PCR technique?
(a) Annealing, polymerisation, heat denaturation (b) Heat denaturation, polymerisation, annealing (c) Polymerisation, heat denaturation, annealing (d) Heat denaturation, annealing, polymerisation 41. Pairing of primers to the ss DNA segment is called
(a) annealing (b) denaturation (c) polymerisation (d) attaching 42. Each cycle of PCR takes about
(a) one hour (b) 20 to 30 minutes (c) 10 seconds (d) 3 to 5 minutes 43. Technique used in forensic sciences is
(a) DNA fingerprinting (b) tissue culture
(c) cloning (d) terninism
44. Important objective of biotechnology in agriculture section is
(a) to produce pest resistant varieties of plant (b) to increase the nitrogen content (c) to decrease the seed number (d) to increase the plant weight 45. Bt cotton is a
(a) transgenic plant (b) mutated plant (c) cloned plant (d) hybrid plant 46. Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been developed by inserting a piece of DNA from
(a) an insect (b) wild relative of Cotton
(c) a soil bacterium (d) a virus
47. The gene which was used to produce insect resistant cotton plant, was taken from (a) Anabaena azollae (b) Agrobacteriurn tuinefaciens (c) Bacillus anthracis (d) Bacillus thuringiensis 48. Toxic content of Bacillus thuringiensis is
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 6
49. Bt gene which produces protein toxic to insect larvae is(a) pry (b) cry (c) trp (d) crp
50. Ti plasmid is found in
(a) Agrobacteriurn (b) Escherichia (c) Nitrosomonas (d) Rhizobium 51. Which agriculturally important bacterial gene is isolated from Rhizobium?
(a) R — gene (b) F — gene (c) Nif gene (d) T-DNA
52. Delay in ripening of tomato is due to
(a) virulent gene (b) antibiotic resistance gene
(c) antisense PG (d) PHB
53. The transgenic plant Flavr savr tomato carries an artificial gene for (a) delaying ripening process (b) insect resistance
(c) added flavours (d) both (a) and (c)
54. A gall producing gene in Agrobacterium tumefaciens is
(a) nif gene (b) cry gene (c) T DNA (d) beta gene
55. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are
(a) Nitrosomonas and Kiebsiella (b) Escherichia and Agrobacterium (c) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter (d) Rhizobium and Diplococcus 56. Biopiracy is related to which of the following?
(a) Bioresearches (b) Traditional knowledge
(c) Biomolecules and genes (d) All of these
57. The right granted by government to an inventor to prevent other from commercially using his invention is
(a) patent (b) biopiracy (c) bioethic (d) biowar
58. Which of the following combinations of risk are associated with genetically modified organism? (i) contamination of gene pools of wild varieties
(ii) allergic reaction
(iii) escape of hazardous GM microbes from lab.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i),(ii),(iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii) 59. Restriction endonucleases used widely in recombinant DNA technology are obtained from
(a) plasmids (b) bacterial cells (c) bacteriophages (d) all prokaryotic cells 60. Extracted DNA + plasmid = ____________?
(a) new plasmid (b) new DNA
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 7
61. YAC is a(a) virus (b) vector
(c) genetic modified organism (d) host cell
62. In rDNA technology, desired gene containing bacterial colony can be identified using
(a) vectors (b) marker (c) stain (d) plasmid
63. Sticky end produced by restriction endonuclease is GAATTC then which of the following DNA segment will form rDNA?
(a) CTAAAG (b) GUUAAC (c) CTTAAG (d) CTTAAC
64. A technique of invitro cloning is
(a) transformation (b) polymerase chain reaction
(c) transfection (d) transduction
65. Transposons are found in
(a) eukaryotes (b) prokaryotes (c) both (A) and (B) (d) none of the above 66. ________work in copy and paste manner.
(a) Vectors (b) Retrotransposons (c) DNA transposons (d) Plasmids 67. During construction of gene library, large DNA molecules are inserted into host by
(a) plasmids (b) cosmids (c) bacteriophage (d) both (a) and (b) 68. Which enzyme is related to lytic cycle?
(a) Endonuclease (b) Endolysin (c) Polymerase (d) Both (a) and (b) 69. During virion assembly, the DNA is packed within
(a) tail (b) ghost (c) head (d) bacteria
70. The length of DNA of a lambda phage is
(a) 30.8 kb (b) 48.5 kb (c) 45.5 kb (d) 40.0 kb
71. Nuclease enzyme which begins its attack from a free end of DNA is
(a) polymerase (b) exonuclease (c) endonuclease (d) kinase 72. Which is not true about restriction endonuclease?
(a) Restriction endonuclease cuts the DNA at specific points (b) They are used as tools for gene cloning
(c) While naming restriction endonuclease the first word indicates name of scientist who isolated it (d) Most restriction sites are palindromes
73. In EcoRI, E and R stands for
(a) Europe and Russia (b) England and Russia
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 8
74. DNA segment cleaved by EcoRI is(a) ATTCGA (b) GAATTC (c) GCTTAA (d) GTTCAA
TAAGCT CTTAAG CGAATT CAAGTT
75. The sticky ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are made up of
(a) calcium salts (b) endonuclease (c) unpaired bases (d) methyl groups 76. Restriction endonuclease cleaves the DNA molecule by hydrolyzing
(a) H-bonds (b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) OH bonds (d) phosphate bonds
77. Construction of genomic library involves
(a) isolation and fragmentation of entire genome (DNA) (b) insertion of fragments into cloning vectors
(c) transfer of recombinant vectors into suitable host (d) all of the above
78. During construction of cDNA library,
(a) non-coding sequences of mRNA are transcribed (b) coding sequences of mRNA are transcribed (c) sequences of mRNA are not transcribed (d) both (a) and (b)
79. Strains of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) are being used for designing (a) bloinsecticidal plants (b) biomineralisation (c) biometallurgical techniques (d) biofertilizers 80. Natural genetic engineer is
(a) Pseudomonas putida (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (c) Escherichia coil (d) Bacillus subtilis
81. Flavr savr variety of tomato is the improved variety developed through (a) hybridisation between old varieties
(b) hybridisation between a modern variety and a wild variety (c) mutation variety
(d) incorporation of a transgene
82. Genetic engineering would not have been possible if which of the following were not known? (a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA synthetase (c) DNA ligase (d) Reverse transcriptase 83. Find the odd pair.
(a) Golden rice — beta carotene (b) Flavr savr tomato — polygalactouranase (c) Bt cotton — cry gene (d) None of these
84. Common bacteria used in genetic engineering is
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 9
85. Restriction endonuclease is used in(a) genetic engineering (b) tissue culture
(c) cell fractionation (d) regeneration of tissues 86. Restriction endonuclease, an enzyme used in genetic engineering is employed for
(a) probing exons (b) cutting double stranded DNA
(c) cutting single stranded DNA (d) join strands of DNA 87. Polymerase chain reaction is most useful in
(a) DNA synthesis (b) DNA amplification (c) protein synthesis (d) amino acid synthesis 88. The source of Taq polymerase used in PCR is
(a) Thermophilic fungus (b) Mesophilic fungus (c) Thermophilic bacterium (d) Halophilic bacterium 89. Crown gall disease in plants is caused by
(a) Ti-plasmid (b) Pi-plasmid (c) bacteria (d) virus 90. In recombination, vector used is
(a) protein (b) Agrobacteriurn tumefaciens
(c) nucleic acid (d) cellulose
91. Genetic engineering means
(a) manipulation of cell contents (b) test tube babies (c) manipulation of cytochromes (d) manipulation of genes 92. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait
(a) High lysine (essential amino acid) content (b) Insect resistance
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
TOPIC: BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS AND APPLICATION (ANSWER KEY)
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c) 61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (b) 71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (b) 81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (b) 91. (d) 92. (d)
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
MH-CET 2015
ASSIGNMENT SERIES
(Strictly Based on MH-CET Pattern of Examination)
SUBJECT
: BOTANY
STANDARD : XII
thANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
TOPIC:ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION 1. Disease resistant varieties of plants can be obtained by ___________
(a) mutation breeding (b) colchicines (c) heat treatment (d) none of these 2. Objective/s of plant breeding is/are _______________
(a) improvement of quality of crops (b) increase in yield (c) developing varieties resistant to environmental stress
(d) all of the above.
3. Increased vigour of a hybrid, over the parents resulting from the crossing of genetically unlike organisms is called _______________ .
(a) mutant (b) heterosis (c) polyploid (d) none of these 4. ___________ is removal of stamens from the flowers of plant chosen as female parent.
(a) emasculation (b) selection (c) harvesting (d) bagging 5. Emasculation is carried out in ____________ flowers.
(a) bisexual (b) unisexual (c) sterile (d) all of these 6. During artificial crossing, pollen are dusted on _____________ of female flower.
(a) petal (b) fruit (c) leaves (d) stigma
7. The correct sequence of steps in hybridization is ____________ . (a) Selection, bagging, cross pollination, Emasculation
(b) Selection, emasculation, bagging, cross pollination, rebagging (c) Selection, emasculation, cross pollination
(d) none of these
8. Bagging is done _____________
(a) before emasculation (b) after emasculation
(c) During emasculation (d) before and after emasculation 9. During hybridization, bags are retained in female plant till _____________
(a) pollination (b) double fertilization (c) seed formation (d) fruit formation 10. Emasculection is not required when plant selected as female parent bears _________ flowers.
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 3
11. Emasculated flowers are bagged to _____________(a) allow development of fruit (b) to prevent self pollination
(c) to prevent pollination by poller of unwanted source (d) none of these
12. The female flowers are rebagged ______________
(a) after emasculation (b) after dusting of pollen on sigma (c) before emasculation (d) none of these
13. New selected lines are evaluated for their ___________
(a) productivity (b) disease resistance (c) quality of crop (d) all of the above 14. Self pollination of plants for successive generations increase _______________ .
(a) homozygosity (b) heterozygosity
(c) segregation of characters (d) none of these 15. GDP stands for ______________ .
(a) Growth Development Production (b) Gross Domestic Product (c) Green Development Project (d) None of these
16. IARI is situated at _____________ .
(a) Mumbai (b) Pune (c) New Delhi (d) Chennai
17. Testing release and commercialization of new cultivars is carried out by ______________ .
(a) ICAR (b) IARI
(c) Variety release committee (d) None of these
18. ___________ is most common trait that was improved in commercialized crops.
(a) insect resistance (b) drought resistance (c) productivity (d) nutritional quality 19. Correct sequence of evaluation and release of new cultivators is ______________ .
(i) growing plants in natural fields in different agro climatic zones. (ii) growing plants in research fields under controlled conditions. (iii) release of improved variety under new name.
(a) (i)-(ii)-(iii) (b) (ii)-(iii)-(i) (c) (ii)-(i)-(iii) (d) (ii) and (iii) only 20. New name of improved variety is recommended by _____________ .
(a) ICAR (b) IARI
(c) Variety release committee (d) None of these
21. Remarkable increase in wheat production from ________ million tones to _________ million tones was achieved during period of 1960-2000.
(a) 11, 75 (b) 35, 89.5 (c) 5, 55 (d) None of these
22. During period of 1960-2000, rice production increased from ________million tones to ________ million tonnes.
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 4
23. ____________ variety of wheat is used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat.(a) Atlass 66 (b) Kalyansona (c) Sonalika (d) Lerma Rai 64-A 24. Norman Borlaug developed _____________ variety of wheat.
(a) tall (b) dwarf (c) semi-dwarf (d) frost resitant 25. ____________ are improved varietis of rice and wheat respectively.
(a) Sonalika, IR8 (b) Jaya, Sonora-64 (c) Jaya, Ratna (d) Sonalika, Kalyansona 26. IR-8 variety of rice is introduced in India from _______________ .
(a) Taiwan (b) Philippines (c) Mexico (d) Japan
27. Sugar cane breeding institute is located at _____________ .
(a) Mysore (b) Coimbatore (c) Mumbai (d) Ludhiana
28. IRRI stand for
(a) Indore Rice Research Institute (b) Indian Rice Research Institute (c) International Rice Research Institute (d) Italian Rice Research Institute 29. Sonora-64 and Jaya are varieties of _____________ .
(a) rice, wheat (b) wheat (c) rice (d) wheat , rice
30. High yielding semi dwarf varieties of rice are ____________ .
(a) Himgiri, Sunora (b) Jaya, Ratna
(c) Sonora-64, Lerma rojo (d) None of these 31. Co.421, Co.419 are improved brands of _____________ .
(a) wheat (b) rice (c) sugarcane (d) maize
32. ___________ species of sugarcane is high yielding and with high sugar content.
(a) S. barberi (b) S. officinarum (c) Sharbati sonora (d) P. sawni 33. Grasses yielding small seeded edible grains are ______________
(a) micropropagales (b) milletes (c) semi-dwarf (d) None of the above 34. Late blight of potato and black rot of crucifers are ________ and _______ diseases respectively.
(a) fungal, bacterial (b) bacterial, fungal (c) fungal, viral (d) viral fungal 35. Pusa shubhra and Pusa sadabahar are varieties of ________ and ________ respectively.
(a) Chilli, Cauliflower (b) Cauliflower, Chilli
(c) Chilli, Bhindi (d) Cauliflower, Bhindi
36. __________ is a wheat variety resistant to Hill bunt, leaf rust, stripe rust.
(a) Sonora 64 (b) Kalyansona (c) Padma (d) Himgiri 37. _________ variety of Cauliflower is resistant to curl blight black rot.
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 5
38. Varieties of cotton with hairy leaves are resistant to ____________(a) stem borers (b) bollworms (c) jassids (d) None of these 39. Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by _____________
(a) all plant cells (b) only gymnosperm cells (c) all eukaryotic cells (d) only bacterial cells
40. Smooth leaved and nectar less cotton varieties are not infected by _____________
(a) fruit borer (b) boll worms (c) aphids (d) stem borer 41. Pusa Gaurav is a variety of ______________
(a) wheat (b) cotton (c) bhindi (d) brassica
42. Moong bean varieties resistant to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew are developed by ____________ .
(a) Introduction (b) mutation breeding (c) hybridization (d) none of these 43. Golden rice contains genes from ____________ .
(a) Soil bacterium Erwinia (b) Maize of daffodil plane
(c) Agrobacterium (d) Both (a), (b)
44. ____ are millets.
(a) jowar (b) bajra (c) maize (d) all of these
45. Maize variety which is not affected by maize stem borers has following characters. (a) low nitrogen and sugar content, high aspartic acid.
(b) low nitrogen and sugar content, high glutamic acid. (c) low nitrogen content and high sugar-aspartic acid. (d) high nitrogen, less aspartic acid.
46. ‘Pusa Gaurav’ is resistant to __________ .
(a) Shoot borer (b) Aphids (c) Stem borer (d) Mosaic virus 47. Pusa Sawni and Pusa A-4 are varieties of ____________ .
(a) Brassica (b) Cauliflower (c) Chilli (d) Bhindi 48. Biofortification methods include _______________ .
(a) selective breeding (b) Genetic modification
(c) tissue culture (d) Both (a), (b)
49. ____________ varieties of wheat has/have contributed to green revolution in India.
(a) Sharbati sonora (b) Sonalika (c) Kalyan sona (d) Both (b), (c) 50. International centre for wheat and maize improvement is in ____________ .
(a) India (b) Philippines (c) Mexico (d) None of these 51. International Rice Research Institute is in ____________ .
