ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI TOPIC:BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS AND APPLICATION
1. Biotechnology is an applied science which involves
(a) microbiology (b) molecular biology (c) genetic engineering (d) all of these 2. The recombinant DNA technique was fast proposed by
(a) Peter Lobban (b) A. Dale Kaiser (c) Stanley Cohen (d) Both (a) and (b) 3. Tool is used by Stanley Cohen and Herber Boyer in rDNA technology was / were
(a) antibiotic resistance gene (b) plasmid of Salmonella
(c) E. coli (d) all of these
4. Genetically engineered insulin can be obtained by (a) recombinant DNA technique with the help of E. coli
(b) two coded insulin genes separated and then incorporated into bacteria (c) the extraction of cow’s and pigs pancreas
(d) technique not developed till now
5. The first step in recombinant DNA technolog’ is
(a) isolation of DNA (b) insertion of DNA (c) joining of DNA (d) duplication of DNA 6. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves
(a) cleaving DNA segments with ‘ligase’ and rejoining them with endonuclease (b) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with ‘ligase’ alone
(c) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with ‘endonuclease’ alone
(d) cleaving DNA segments with ‘endonuclease’ and rejoining them with‘ligase’
7. In which bacteria, gene of insulin was cloned?
(a) E. coli (b) Clostridium (c) Shigella (d) Diplococcus 8. The cell or organism from which the required gene is taken is called
(a) plasmid (b) cloning vector (c) donor (d) vector 9. Recombinant DNA is also called as
(a) chimeric DNA (b) rDNA (c) eDNA (d) both (A) and (B) 10. The chemical knives of DNA are
(a) ligases (b) polymerases (c) endonucleases (d) transcriptase 11. A cloning vector must have
(a) enzymes necessary for replication (b) marker DNA (c) replication origin (d) none of the above
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 3
12. Process of insertion of a viral vector is called(a) transformation (b) transfection (c) transduction (d) conjugation 13. Which process is used for the insertion of vectors in eukaryotic cells?
(a) transformation (b) transfection (c) transduction (d) conjugation 14. The sequences of DNA that can transpose themselves are known as
(a) transposons (b) jumping genes (c) plasminogen (d) both (a) and (b) 15. The first transposons were discovered in
(a) maize (b) tomato (c) yeast (d) bacteria
16. About ___________ of the total genome of maize consists of the transposons.
(a) 10% (b) 90% (c) 50% (d) 35%
17. ‘Alu’ sequence is a
(a) plasmid (b) cosmid (c) transposon (d) phage
18. Reverse transcription is involved in
(a) formation of cosmid (b) formation of retrotransposons (c) formation of DNA transposons (d) formation of lambda phage 19. Which of the following is involved in development of DNA transposons?
(a) A staggered cut is made at the target site by action of transposase and sticky end is produced (b) Transposon is cut out.
(c) Ligation of transposon in new position.
(d) All of the above 20. What are cosmids?
(a) plasmids with fragments of E.coli (b) plasmids with fragments of lambda phage (c) plasmids with fragments of M 13 phage (d) plasmids with fragments of transposon.
21. pBR 322 was discovered by ___________.
(a) Bolivar and Rodriguez (b) Bolivar and Ramsey (c) Bohem and Rodriguez (d) Bohem and Ramsey 22. Which of the following is related to penetration?
(a) Attachment of bacteriophage to specific receptors on the surface of bacteria.
(b) Contraction of tail fibre and injection of genetic material through the bacterial membrane.
(c) Synthesis of viral DNA.
(d) Packaging of viral DNA.
23. In bacteriophage, genetic material is enclosed by
(a) calcium carbonate covering (b) host cell
(c) cell wall (d) protein capsid
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 4
24. Ghost is nothing but(a) host cell or bacterial cell
(b) capsid – protein coat that remains outside the host cell (c) head part of bacteriophage.
(d) tail part of bacteriophage.
25. Restriction enzymes
(a) are endonucleases which cleaves DNA at specific sites (b) make DNA complementary to an existing DNA or RNA (c) cut or join DNA fragments
(d) are required in vectorless direct gene transfer
26. Restriction enzyme belong to a larger class of enzyme called
(a) retronuclease (b) nucleases (c) proenzyme (d) bioenzymes 27. The endonucleases used in genetic engineering are
(a) type I (b) type II (c) type III (d) type IV
28. Hind III is isolated from
(a) E.coli (b) Haemophilus influenza
(c) Hindustan virus (d) Haryana virus
29. In genetic engineering, restriction endonuclease cuts DNA at specific regions
(a) promoter region (b) recognition sequence
(c) sense region (d) cloning sites
30. Restriction endonuclease requires which of the following ions for cleavage?
(a) Na++ (b) Mg++ (d) K+ (d) H+
31. Fragments of DNA formed after treatment with endonucleases are separated by the technique of (a) polymerase chain reaction (b) southern blotting
(c) colony hybridization (d) gel electrophoresis
32. _________is a collection of all clones of DNA fragments representing the complete genome of an organism.
(a) cDNA library (b) Genomic library (c) PCR (d) Tissue culture 33. cDNA is the
(a) chemical DNA (b) copy DNA (c) complete DNA (d) complementary DNA 34. The process of reverse transcription was discovered by
(a) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (b) Watson and Crick (c) Steward Linn and Werner Arber (d) Temin and Baltimore 35. cDNA is produced by using
(a) m-RNA (b) t-RNA (c) r-RNA (d) reverse enzyme
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 5
36. The enzyme used in PCR technique is(a) Bam I (b) Taq polymerase (c) Hind III (d) Eco RI 37. Denaturation of DNA takes place at about
(a) 60°C (b) 91°C (c) 74°C (d) 100°C
38. For annealing, temperature required about
(a) 55°C (b) 75°C (c) 90°C (d) 25°C
39. Thermal cycling used in PCR technique nothing but
(a) raising temperature of PCR sample (b) decreasing temperature of PCR sample (c) alternate heating and cooling PCR sample (d) heating PCR sample to its boiling point 40. Which of the following is correct sequence of PCR technique?
(a) Annealing, polymerisation, heat denaturation (b) Heat denaturation, polymerisation, annealing (c) Polymerisation, heat denaturation, annealing (d) Heat denaturation, annealing, polymerisation 41. Pairing of primers to the ss DNA segment is called
(a) annealing (b) denaturation (c) polymerisation (d) attaching 42. Each cycle of PCR takes about
(a) one hour (b) 20 to 30 minutes (c) 10 seconds (d) 3 to 5 minutes 43. Technique used in forensic sciences is
(a) DNA fingerprinting (b) tissue culture
(c) cloning (d) terninism
44. Important objective of biotechnology in agriculture section is
(a) to produce pest resistant varieties of plant (b) to increase the nitrogen content (c) to decrease the seed number (d) to increase the plant weight 45. Bt cotton is a
(a) transgenic plant (b) mutated plant (c) cloned plant (d) hybrid plant 46. Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been developed by inserting a piece of DNA from
(a) an insect (b) wild relative of Cotton
(c) a soil bacterium (d) a virus
47. The gene which was used to produce insect resistant cotton plant, was taken from (a) Anabaena azollae (b) Agrobacteriurn tuinefaciens (c) Bacillus anthracis (d) Bacillus thuringiensis 48. Toxic content of Bacillus thuringiensis is
(a) alkaloid (b) steroid (c) amino acid (d) protein
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 6
49. Bt gene which produces protein toxic to insect larvae is(a) pry (b) cry (c) trp (d) crp
50. Ti plasmid is found in
(a) Agrobacteriurn (b) Escherichia (c) Nitrosomonas (d) Rhizobium 51. Which agriculturally important bacterial gene is isolated from Rhizobium?
(a) R — gene (b) F — gene (c) Nif gene (d) T-DNA
52. Delay in ripening of tomato is due to
(a) virulent gene (b) antibiotic resistance gene
(c) antisense PG (d) PHB
53. The transgenic plant Flavr savr tomato carries an artificial gene for (a) delaying ripening process (b) insect resistance
(c) added flavours (d) both (a) and (c)
54. A gall producing gene in Agrobacterium tumefaciens is
(a) nif gene (b) cry gene (c) T DNA (d) beta gene
55. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are
(a) Nitrosomonas and Kiebsiella (b) Escherichia and Agrobacterium (c) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter (d) Rhizobium and Diplococcus 56. Biopiracy is related to which of the following?
(a) Bioresearches (b) Traditional knowledge
(c) Biomolecules and genes (d) All of these
57. The right granted by government to an inventor to prevent other from commercially using his invention is
(a) patent (b) biopiracy (c) bioethic (d) biowar
58. Which of the following combinations of risk are associated with genetically modified organism?
(i) contamination of gene pools of wild varieties (ii) allergic reaction
(iii) escape of hazardous GM microbes from lab.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i),(ii),(iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii) 59. Restriction endonucleases used widely in recombinant DNA technology are obtained from
(a) plasmids (b) bacterial cells (c) bacteriophages (d) all prokaryotic cells 60. Extracted DNA + plasmid = ____________?
(a) new plasmid (b) new DNA
(c) recombinant DNA (d) genetically modified plasmid
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 7
61. YAC is a(a) virus (b) vector
(c) genetic modified organism (d) host cell
62. In rDNA technology, desired gene containing bacterial colony can be identified using
(a) vectors (b) marker (c) stain (d) plasmid
63. Sticky end produced by restriction endonuclease is GAATTC then which of the following DNA segment will form rDNA?
(a) CTAAAG (b) GUUAAC (c) CTTAAG (d) CTTAAC
64. A technique of invitro cloning is
(a) transformation (b) polymerase chain reaction
(c) transfection (d) transduction
65. Transposons are found in
(a) eukaryotes (b) prokaryotes (c) both (A) and (B) (d) none of the above 66. ________work in copy and paste manner.
(a) Vectors (b) Retrotransposons (c) DNA transposons (d) Plasmids 67. During construction of gene library, large DNA molecules are inserted into host by
(a) plasmids (b) cosmids (c) bacteriophage (d) both (a) and (b) 68. Which enzyme is related to lytic cycle?
(a) Endonuclease (b) Endolysin (c) Polymerase (d) Both (a) and (b) 69. During virion assembly, the DNA is packed within
(a) tail (b) ghost (c) head (d) bacteria
70. The length of DNA of a lambda phage is
(a) 30.8 kb (b) 48.5 kb (c) 45.5 kb (d) 40.0 kb
71. Nuclease enzyme which begins its attack from a free end of DNA is
(a) polymerase (b) exonuclease (c) endonuclease (d) kinase 72. Which is not true about restriction endonuclease?
(a) Restriction endonuclease cuts the DNA at specific points (b) They are used as tools for gene cloning
(c) While naming restriction endonuclease the first word indicates name of scientist who isolated it (d) Most restriction sites are palindromes
73. In EcoRI, E and R stands for
(a) Europe and Russia (b) England and Russia
(c) Escherichia and strain Ry 13 (d) Escherichia and strain Rough
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 8
74. DNA segment cleaved by EcoRI is(a) ATTCGA (b) GAATTC (c) GCTTAA (d) GTTCAA
TAAGCT CTTAAG CGAATT CAAGTT
75. The sticky ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are made up of
(a) calcium salts (b) endonuclease (c) unpaired bases (d) methyl groups 76. Restriction endonuclease cleaves the DNA molecule by hydrolyzing
(a) H-bonds (b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) OH bonds (d) phosphate bonds
77. Construction of genomic library involves
(a) isolation and fragmentation of entire genome (DNA) (b) insertion of fragments into cloning vectors
(c) transfer of recombinant vectors into suitable host (d) all of the above
78. During construction of cDNA library,
(a) non-coding sequences of mRNA are transcribed (b) coding sequences of mRNA are transcribed (c) sequences of mRNA are not transcribed (d) both (a) and (b)
79. Strains of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) are being used for designing (a) bloinsecticidal plants (b) biomineralisation (c) biometallurgical techniques (d) biofertilizers 80. Natural genetic engineer is
(a) Pseudomonas putida (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (c) Escherichia coil (d) Bacillus subtilis
81. Flavr savr variety of tomato is the improved variety developed through (a) hybridisation between old varieties
(b) hybridisation between a modern variety and a wild variety (c) mutation variety
(d) incorporation of a transgene
82. Genetic engineering would not have been possible if which of the following were not known?
(a) DNA polymerase (b) RNA synthetase (c) DNA ligase (d) Reverse transcriptase 83. Find the odd pair.
(a) Golden rice — beta carotene (b) Flavr savr tomato — polygalactouranase (c) Bt cotton — cry gene (d) None of these
84. Common bacteria used in genetic engineering is
(a) E. coli (b) Diplococcus (c) Rhizobium (d) Spirillum
CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / KOLKATA / LUCKNOW / NASHIK / GOA # 9
85. Restriction endonuclease is used in(a) genetic engineering (b) tissue culture
(c) cell fractionation (d) regeneration of tissues 86. Restriction endonuclease, an enzyme used in genetic engineering is employed for
(a) probing exons (b) cutting double stranded DNA
(c) cutting single stranded DNA (d) join strands of DNA 87. Polymerase chain reaction is most useful in
(a) DNA synthesis (b) DNA amplification (c) protein synthesis (d) amino acid synthesis 88. The source of Taq polymerase used in PCR is
(a) Thermophilic fungus (b) Mesophilic fungus (c) Thermophilic bacterium (d) Halophilic bacterium 89. Crown gall disease in plants is caused by
(a) Ti-plasmid (b) Pi-plasmid (c) bacteria (d) virus 90. In recombination, vector used is
(a) protein (b) Agrobacteriurn tumefaciens
(c) nucleic acid (d) cellulose
91. Genetic engineering means
(a) manipulation of cell contents (b) test tube babies (c) manipulation of cytochromes (d) manipulation of genes 92. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait
(a) High lysine (essential amino acid) content (b) Insect resistance
(c) High protein content (d) High vitamin-A content
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
TOPIC: BIOTECHNOLOGY PROCESS AND APPLICATION (ANSWER KEY)
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a)
26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (a)
36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (b)
56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (c)
66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (c)
76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a)
86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (d)
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI