EN304 (Engineering Materials) Reviewer
1. What are considered as the "building blocks" for engineering materials?
A. Atoms B. Elements C. Matters D. Compounds
2. What are the major classes of engineering materials? A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors
B. Polymers, metals and composites
C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites
3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?
A. Crystals
B. Amorphous materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Metalloids
4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?
A. Metalloids B. Matrix alloys C. Metal lattices
D. Metal matrix composites
5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?
A. Metalloids B. Matrix composites C. Inert
D. Metal matrix composites
6. Polymer comes from the Greek words "poly" which means many and "meros" which means __________. A. metal
B. material C. part D. plastic
7. The engineering materials known as "plastics" are more correctly called:
A. Polyvinyl chloride B. Polymers C. Polyethylene D. Mers
8. Which of the following plastics does not burn but rather extinguishes itself?
A. Polyester B. Acrylic C. Nylon D. Propylene
9. Which of the following plastics does not burn? A. Carbonates
B. Acetals C. Polyester D. Fluorocarbons
10. Which of the following is an example of fluorocarbon? A. Nylon
B. Acrylic C. Styrene D. Teflon
11. What is a combination of two or more metals that has properties that the components materials do not have by themselves?
A. Compound B. Composite C. Mixture D. Matrix
12. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?
A. Periodic table B. Truth table
C. Building blocks of Materials D. Structure of Materials
13. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on heating or solidifies on cooling?
A. Melting point B. Curie point C. Refractive index D. Specific heat
14. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?
A. Melting point B. Thermal conductivity C. Thermal expansion D. Curie point
15. What refers to the temperature at which a ferromagnetic material reverts to being a paramagnetic material?
A. Ferromagnetic temperature B. Paramagnetic temperature C. Curie temperature D. Tri-point temperature
16. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of under a controlled environment?
A. Dielectric strength B. Electric resistivity C. Water absorption D. Thermal conductivity
17. What physical property of a material that refers the rate of heat flow per unit time in a homogenous material under steady-state conditions, per unit area, per unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to area?
A. Thermal expansion B. Thermal conductivity C. Heat distortion temperature D. Water absorption
18. What refers to the ratio of thermal conductivity of a material to the product of electrical conductivity and temperature?
A. Conductivity ratio B. Matthiessens' ratio C. Wiedemann's-Frantz ratio D. Maxwell's ratio
19. What states that "the total electrical resistivity is the sum of the thermal resistivity and the residual resistivity”?
A. Matthiessens' Rule B. Nordheim's Rule C. Wiedemann's Rule D. Frantz Rule
20. What is caused by the local melting of a constituent or an impurity in the grain or randomly oriented metal crystals boundary at a temperature below the melting point of a metal itself?
A. Slip-sliding B. Hot-shortness C. Inclusion D. Tempering
21. Which of the following elements has the highest thermal conductivity?
A. Zinc B. Copper C. Gold D. Aluminum
22. Which of the following has the lowest electrical conductivity?
A. Quartz B. Graphite C. Glass D. Ceramics
23. What type of bond in metallic compounds will enable them to possess electrical conductivity property? A. Crystalline bond
B. Covalent bond C. Ionic bond D. All of the above
24. What refers to a covalent bond formed by between two p-orbitals on different atoms?
A. Pi bond B. Omega bond C. Delta bond D. Sigma bond
25. The superimposition of pi bonds on sigma bonds results in the formation of what type of bonds? A. Beta-sigma bonds
B. Sigma-pi bonds C. Pi-alpha bonds
D. Double bonds or triple bonds
26. What refers to an interatomic and intermolecular bond that are relatively weak and for which bonding energies are relatively small?
A. Primary bond B. Double bond C. Secondary bond D. Covalent bond
27. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ionic compound?
A. They have high melting point.
B. They are normally brittle crystalline solids. c. They have low boiling point.
D. They are poor conductor of electricity when in the solid phase.
28. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that an insulating material of given thickness can withstand for specified time without occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk?
A. Thermal expansion B. Conductivity C. Dielectric strength D. Electric resistivity
29. What is the percentage of copper content of copper used for electrical wires, switches and terminally normally supplied as ETP?
A. 90.95% B. 95.95% C. 98.95% D. 99.95%
30. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass of water to 1 degree?
A. Specific heat B. Latent heat C. Heat of fusion D. Heat of fISsion
31. Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat?
A. Copper B. Aluminum C. Iron D. Lead
32. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a specified load shows a specified amount of declaration?
A. Curie temperature B. Specific heat
C. Heat distortion temperature D. Thermal conductivity
33. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension test at constant load and constant temperature?
A. Creep strength B. Stress rapture strength C. Compressive yield strength D. Hardness
34. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?
A. Rigidity B. Plasticity C. Ductility D. Hardness
35. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops below some predetermined value, usually 15 ft-lb?
A. Nil ductility temperature B. Curie temperature C. Thermal conductivity D. Heat distortion temperature
36. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?
A. Elastic limit
B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material C. Creep
D. All of the choices
37. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?
A. Lay B. Out of flat C. Camber D. Waviness
38. What dimensional property of a material refers wavelike variation from a perfect surface, generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness?
A. Lay B. Waviness C. Surface finish D. Out of flat
39. Wood is composed of chain of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural polymer called: A. plastic
B. lignin C. mer D. additive
40. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two different monomers?
A. Copolymerization B. Blending C. Alloying D. Cross-linking
41. What refers to a linear copolymer in which identical repeat units are clustered in blocks along a molecular chain?
A. Branched copolymer B. Block copolymer C. Clustered copolymer D. Moleculed copolymer
42. What refers to a polymer having a molecular structure of secondary chains that extend from the primary main chains?
A. Branched polymer B. Block polymer C. Secondary polymer D. Extended polymer
43. A polymer in which two different repeat units are randomly distributed along the molecular chain is called ________.
A. uneven copolymer B. random copolymer C. specific copolymer D. even copolymer
44. What is the generic name of a class of polymer which is commercially known as "nylon"?
A. Polyacetals B. Polyamide C. Cellulose D. Polyester
45. What is defined as a material being capable of recovering from large deformations quickly? A. Elastomer
B. Rubber C. Cellulose D. Polyester
46. For a natural rubber, what refers to its base which is a milky-sap obtained from the inner dark of a tropical tree?
A. Elastomer B. Vulcanizer C. Gum D. Latex
47. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _______ elongation in tensile test and is capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed.
A. 100% B. 150% C. 200% D. 250%
48. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes, in which the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold by vacuum, and cool while still in contact with the mold?
A. Calendering B. Blow molding C. Thermoforming D. Solid phase forming
49. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die? A. Calendering
B. Thermoforming C. Lithugraphy D. Extrusion
50. What does the word "refractory" mean when used to classify metals?
A. It is oxidation resistant B. It is sun rays resistant C. It is corrosion resistant D. It is heat resistant
51. The following are classified as refractory metals except one. Which one?
A. Beryllium B. Niobium C. Tantalum D. Molybdenum
52. What of the following metals is NOT a refractory metal?
A. Lead B. Tungsten C. Molybdenum D. Niobium
53. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment? A. Stereospecify
B. Corrosion resistance C. Conductivity D. Electrical resistance
54. Corrosion refers to deteriorative loss of a metal as a result of __________.
A. too much applied force B. calcinations
C. dissolution environment reactions D. all of the above
55. Corrosion refers to the deterioration of metals and ceramics. It plastics, corrosion is usually called _________.
A. oxidation B. deformation C. degradation D. deterioration
56. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to form with an ordered, special, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?
A. Stereospecify B. Conductivity C. Retentivity D. Spatial configuration
57. Which of the metals used as engineering materials uses face-centered cubic (fcc) atomic arrangement? A. Zirconium
B. Gold C. Alpha-iron D. Cadmium
58. Which of the following metals use hexagonal close-packed (hcp) atomic arrangement?
A. Cobalt B. Cronium C. Platinum D. Tantalum
59. The combination of slip-plane and its direction of slip is known as a slip-system. Which crystal has 3 slip systems?
A. Body-centered cubic crystal B. Phase-centered crystal C. Phase-body cubic crystal D. Hexagonal close-packed crystal
60. Which of the following metals is NOT in body-centered cubic (bcc) atomic arrangement?
A. Alpha iron B. Aluminum C. Molybdenum D. Vanadium
61. Which of the following ferromagnets has body-centered cubic (bcc) crystalline structure? A. Cd
B. Fe C. Cu D. Ni
62. What is the basic atomic crystalline structure of chromium?
A. Hexagonal close-packed B. Body-centered cubic C. Face-centered cubic D. Cubic lattice-closed
63. What refers to a crystalline defect associated with one or at most several atomic sites?
A. Point defect B. Line defect C. Structure defect D. Frenkel defect
64. What is the common crystal defect? A. Smoothness defect
B. Grain structure defect C. Line defect
D. Point defect
65. What refers to a cation-vacancy and cation-interstitial pair in an ionic solid?
A. Line defect B. Point defect C. Dislocation defect D. Frenkel defect
66. What refers to a defect consisting of a cation vacancy and anion vacancy pair in ionic solid?
A. Line defect B. Point defect C. Frenkel defect D. Schottky defect
67. What refers to a linear crystalline defect around which there is atomic misalignment?
A. Line defect B. Point defect C. Alignment defect D. Dislocation defect
68. Which material below possesses the property of having very high conductivity but with very low electrical conductivity?
A. Beryllia B. Magnesia C. Graphite D. All of the above
69. The atomic structure of silicon, in which each atom has four nearest neighbors in a tetrahedral configuration is called _______ lattice.
A. ordinary B. cubic C. diamond D. graphite
70. What refers to a two lattice structure identical to the diamond lattice except that there are two times of atoms instead of one?
A. Graphite lattice B. Dual lattice C. Zincblende lattice D. Mixed lattice
71. What is the smallest unit cell that can be repeated to form a lattice?
A. Primitive cell B. Tiny cell C. Finite cell D. Micro cell
72. What refers to the small volume of crystal that can be used to reproduce the entire crystal?
A. Mini cell B. Micro cell C. Unit cell D. Finite cell
73. The set of integers used to describe crystal plane is called ______.
A. lattice indices B. crystal indices C. Miller indices D. Cell indices
74. What amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?
A. Impact strength B. Endurance limit C. Creep strength D. Stress rupture strength
75. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress? A. Elongation
B. Elasticity C. Creep D. Rupture
76. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from proportionality of stress and strain?
A. Tensile strength B. Shear strength C. Yield strength D. Flexural strength
77. The greatest stress which material is capable of withstanding without deviation from acceptable of stress and strain is called _______.
A. elongation B. proportional limit C. yield point D. elastic limit
78. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite number of stress cycles?
A. Endurance state B. Endurance test C. Endurance limit D. Endurance strength
79. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron? A. Conductor
B. Semiconductor C. Magnet D. Semimagnet
80. Which of the following is a natural magnet? A. Steel
B. Magnesia C. Lodestone D. Soft iron
81. Of the materials listed below, which one ranked third as good conductor of electric current?
A. Silver B. Copper C. Gold D. Aluminum
82. What silver is an alloy of silver and copper? A. White silver
B. Nordic silver C. Sterling silver D. Red silver
83. Sterling silver is composed of _____ copper and _____ silver.
A. 7.5%, 92.5% B. 8.5, 91.5% C. 10%, 90% D. 5%, 95%
84. Which of the following is an arrangement of good conductors of electricity from best to least? A. Silver, Copper, Gold, Aluminum B. Aluminum, Gold, Silver, Copper C. Gold, Silver, Copper, Aluminum D. Aluminum, Silver, Gold, Copper
85. Which of the following engineering materials has the highest electrical conductivity at room temperature? A. Copper
B. Nickel C. Silver D. Cadmium
86. What is the electrical conductivity of aluminum m-ohm/m? A. 2.57 x 10^7 B. 3.57 x 10^7 C. 4.57 x 10^7 D. 5.57 x 10^7
87. What is the resistance of the material to plastic deformation?
A. Hardness B. Stiffness C. Creep age D. Rigidity
88. Hardness is the measure of a material's resistance to deformation by________.
A. surface indention B. abrasion
C. tensile and compressive forces D. surface indention or by abrasion 89. Heat distortion is what property of plastics?
A. Physical Property B. Mechanical Property C. Chemical Property D. Structural Property
90. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?
A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-Magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials
91. What materials have permeabilities slightly greater than that of free space?
A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-Magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials
92. What materials have very high permeabilities? A. Paramagnetic materials
B. Non-Magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials
93. What refers to the weak formed of induced or non permanent magnetism for which the magnetic susceptibility is negative?
A. Ferromagnetism B. Paramagnetism C. Diamagnetism D. Antimagnetism
94. What refers to a relatively weak form of magnetism that results from the independent alignment of atomic dipoles with an applied magnetic field?
A. Paramagnetism B. Ferromagnetism C. Diamagnetism D. Antimagnetism
95. What is defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and at some stage in its manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow?
A. Metal B. Metalloid C. Plastic D. Ceramic
96. Cermet is a composite material consisting of a combination of ceramic and ________. A. non-metallic material
B. polymer C. metallic material D. elastic material
97. Abrasive materials are hard and wear-resistant materials that is used to _______ other materials. A. wear
B. grind C. cut-away D. all of the above
98. What type of substance that bonds together the surfaces of two other materials?
A. Abrasive B. Adhesive C. Amorphous D. Anistropic
99. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds called _______. A. Metallic bond
B. Van der Waals bond C. Cross linking D. Covalent bond
100. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer? A. Homopolymer
B. Ethenic polymer C. Polyethylene D. Copolymer
101. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as________.
A. monomer B. elastomer C. mers
D. copolymer or interpolymer
102. A polymer that consists of two or more dissimilar repeat units in combination along its molecular chains is called ______.
A. elastomer B. branched polymer C. copolymer D. crosslinked polymer
103. A polymer in which adjacent linear molecular chains are joined at various positions by covalent bonds is called ______.
A. elastomer B. branched polymer C. copolymer D. crosslinked polymer
104. A stable molecule from which a polymer is synthesized is called _________.
A. monomer B. high polymer C. elstomer D. copolymer
105. What refers to the ability of a solid material to exist in more than one form of crystal structure?
A. Polycrystallination B. Polymorphism C. Polyamorphism D. Coexistence
106. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?
A. Vulcanizer B. Elasticmer C. Polychloroprene D. Elastomer
107. What is defined as an alloy of iron or carbon, with the carbon being restricted with certain concentration limits?
A. Steel B. Wrhought iron C. Cast iron D. Tendons
108. Ordinary steel at high temperature has only one constituent which is iron holding carbon in solid solution. What is this constituent?
A. Cementite B. Austenite C. Ferrite D. Pearlite
109. The carbon content of cemetite is approximately how many percent of its compound?
A. 4.7% B. 5.7% C. 6.7% D. 7.7%
110. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting from the BOf or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots?
A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR) B. Vauum induction melting (VIM) C. Electron bean refining D. Electroslag refining
111. In what special refining process of steel was molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute) into ingot mold?
A. Electroslad refining B. Vacuum remelting C. Vacuum induction melting D. Electron beam refining
112. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?
A. Alloy steel B. Stainless steel C. Galvanized steel D. Carbon steel
113. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite? A. Austenite
B. Eutectoid C. Hyper-eutectoid D. Stainless steel
114. Which type of steel does not contain nickel and can be hardened by heat treatment?
A. Precipitation-hardening steel B. Austentic steel (200 and 300 series) C. Marstensitic (400 and 500 series) D. Ferritic steel (400 series)
115. What group of steels are water-hardened tool steels? A. Group S
B. Group w C. Group O D. Group T
116. What group of steels are molybdenum high-sped steels?
A. Group A B. Group D C. Group M D. Group H
117. Steels that are used for axles, gears and similar parts requiring medium to high hardness and high strength are known as?
A. Medium-carbon steel B. Low-carbon steel C. Very high-carbon steel D. High-carbon steel
118. Galvanized steel products coated with ______. A. Carbon
B. Sulfur C. Zinc D. Nickel
119. What is the most utilized metal for industry next to iron, aluminum and magnesium?
A. Zinc B. Tin C. Nickel D. Lead
120. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics? A. A370
B. D638 C. E292 D. C674
121. What ASTM test for compression designated for plastics?
A. D638 B. D790 C. D695 D. D638
122. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?
A. D732 B. D790 C. D695 D. D638
123. What is the ASTM tension testing designation standard method for steel products?
A. A370 B. E345 C. E8 D. C674
124. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for nonstructural application is classified as _______.
A. Merchant quality B. Commercial quality C. Drawing quality D. Special quality
125. The use of acids to remove oxides and scaled on hot-worked steels is known as __________.
A. Tempering B. Pickling C. Machining D. Galvanizing
126. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying? A. To increase brittleness
B. To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness
C. To increase brittleness, combine with sulfur D. To increase corrosion and resistance 127. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. About 10% of Earth's crust is iron.
B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft.
C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon(less than 2%).
D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast furnace or direct reduction vessel.
128. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?
A. E B. H C. X D. B
129. What prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?
A. E B. H C. X D. B
130. What letter suffix in steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element?
A. xxLxx B. xxBxx C. xxHxx D. xxKxx
131. What refers to the tin mill steel without a coating? A. White plate
B. Tin steel free C. Black plate D. Dichromate tin
132. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and high strength at red heat temperatures, making it useful in
resistance heating? A. Aluminum bronze B. Nichrome C. Hastelloy D. Alnico
133. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of chromium?
A. 10% B. 20% C. 25% D. 5%
134. What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron oxide content of the steel?
A. Deorizers B. Deoxidizers C. Deterrent D. Detoxifiers
135. What graphite exists largely in the form of flakes? A. Gray cast iron
B. White cast iron C. Wrought iron D. Malleable cast iron
136. What is the reason of the name "gray" cast iron? A. When it is broken the fractured path is along graphite path and has a gray softly appearance B. It is just called gray to differentiate with the white cast iron.
C. Because the outside appearance is gray even though its inner part is white.
D. Because it was the name given by the one who discovered this iron.
137. Which of the following gray irons is called "fully-gray iron"?
A. Perlistic gray iron B. Masteritic gray iron C. Flabby gray iron D. Ferritic gray iron
138. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy? A. Gray iron B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Alloy iron
139. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?
A. Gray iron B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Ductile iron
140. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant? A. Gray iron
B. Ductile iron C. White iron D. Malleable iron
141. What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast iron?
A. Gray iron B. Ductile iron C. Alloy iron D. Malleable iron
142. What is another term for nodular iron? A. Malleable iron
B. Ductile iron C. Wrought iron D. White iron
143. What is the effect of manganese in cast iron? A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form
B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%
C. To deoxidize molten cast iron
D. To increase fluidivity and lowers melting temperature
144. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron? A. To increase hardness above 0.5% B. To deoxidize molten cast iron
C. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form
D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%
145. What is added to nickel to improve its ductility? A. Zinc
B. Copper C. Iron D. Manganese
146. What refers to a measure of a material's ability to undergo appreciable plastic deformation before fracture?
A. Ductility B. Malleability C. Elasticity D. Plasticity
147. Ductility is expressed in terms of _________. A. Percent elongation
B. Percent area reduction from a tensile test
C. Percent elongation or percent area reduction from a tensile test
D. Percent strain
148. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron?
A. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%
B. increase fluidivity and lowers melting temperature C. softens iron and increases ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13%
D. deoxidizes molten cast iron
149. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earth's crust is iron?
A. 10% B. 5% C. 20% D. 8%
150. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench?
A. Carburizing B. Tempering C. Nitriding D. Heat-treating
151. The following statements are true except one. Which one?
A. Carburizing does not harden a steel.
B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels.
C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.
152. Which of the following is a characteristic of breaking of brittle materials?
A. Splinters in various forms will be produced. B. Breaking takes place in perpendicular and parallel lines.
C. Breaking takes place in an oblique plane. D. The cross-sectional area size
153. What arbitrary strain value is used to differentiate ductile materials from brittle materials? A. 0.05 inch per inch
B. 0.025 inch per inch C. 0.50 inch per inch D. 0.25 inch per inch
154. For ductile materials, the material strength used is the ________.
A. nominal strength B. average allowable strength C. ultimate strength D. yield strength
155. Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?
A. Heating to the proper temperature B. Sufficient carbon content C. Adequate quench D. All of the choices
156. What is the average hardening temperature for steel in degree Fahrenheit?
A. 1470 to 1580 B. 1670 to 1870 C. 1375 to 1575 D. 1575 to 1875
157. What field of study encompasses the pronouncement and production of metals?
A. Metallurgy B. Geology C. Material Science D. Metalgraphy
158. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?
A. Hematic B. Magnetite C. Gangue D. Ore
159. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?
A. Tuyere B. Coke C. Diamond D. Hematite
160. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?
A. Brass B. Zinc C. Nickel D. Aluminum
161. What refers to the hardening of the outer surface of a steel component by a carburizing or nitriding process? A. Case hardening
B. Case annealing C. Case nitriding D. Case calcination
162. What is the main purpose of case hardening? A. To improve machinability
B. To improve ductility
C. To improve corrosion resistance D. To improve wear and fatigue resistance 163. What refers to the case hardening process by which
the carbon content of the steel near the surface of a part is increased?
A. Carburizing B. Annealing C. Normalizing D. Martempering
164. What is the process of heating hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling?
A. Normalizing B. Spheroidizing C. Carburizing D. Tempering
165. What refers to the heat treatment done in materials that improve its strength and machinability and hardens it resulting to loss of ductility? A. Normalizing
B. Tempering C. Carburizing D. Annealing
166. Brazing is a metal joining technique that uses a molten filler metal alloy having a melting temperature greater than _______.
A. 400 degress Celcius B. 425 degress Celcius C. 450 degrees Celcius D. 475 degrees Celcius
167. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite temperature of transformation within a solid state?
A. Pearlite B. Eutectoid C. Austernite D. Delta solid solution
168. What is the method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box heated to about 100 degree Fahrenheit? A. Annealing
B. Normalizing C. Carburizing D. Nitriding
169. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test?
A. 10mm ball
B. 120 degree diamond (brale) C. 1.6 mm diameter ball D. 20 degree needle
170. What is defined as the ratio of the load P to the curves surface area of the indention in a certain hardness test?
A. Brinell hardness number B. Moh's hardness number C. Vicker hardness number D. Rockwell's hardness number
171. In measuring the hardness of materials using Brinell's test, what is the recommended load to obtain accurate measurement?
A. 1500 kg or 3000 kg B. 500 kg or 1000 kg C. 1000 kg or 2000 kg D. 500 kg or 3000 kg
172. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of the test bar? A. Tensile strength
B. Yield strength C. Shear strength D. Flexural strength
173. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic range?
A. Poisson's ratio B. Refractive index C. Modulus of elasticity D. Percent elongation 174. What is a measure of rigidity?
A. Stiffness B. Hardness C. Strength
D. Modulus of elasticity
175. In tensile, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures within the gage length is called _____.
A. percent elongation B. creep
C. elasticity D. elongation
176. What impurity steel can cause "red shortness", which means the steel becomes unworkable at high temperature?
A. Sulfur B. Silicon C. Manganese D. Phosporous
177. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?
A. Cyaniding B. Nitriding C. Flame hardening D. Induction hardening
178. What is the most common reinforcement for polymer composites?
A. Boron B. Ceramic C. Graphite D. Glass fiber
179. A fine-crystalline ceramic material that was that was formed as a glass and subsequently crystallized is known as _____.
A. glass-polymer B. glass-ceramic C. glass-plastic D. glass-fiber
180. What kind of composite in which carbon is used in the fiber as well as in the matrix?
A. Carbonic composite
B. Homogenous carbon composite C. Carbon-carbon composite D. Pure carbon composite
181. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity? A. Electrolyte
B. Water C. Solution D. Acid
182. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?
A. Cracking B. Pitting C. Cavitation D. Erosion
183. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses? A. Dezincification
B. Graphitization C. Stabilization D. Dealloying
184. What is the scaling off the surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?
A. Expoliation B. Corrosion fatigue C. Seaping D. Fretting
185. What type of failure results from the simultaneous action of cyclic stress and chemical attack? A. Coercive fatigue
B. Corrosion fatigue C. Coulombic fatigue D. Creep
186. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?
A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion
187. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude (20 to 100 um) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?
A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion
188. Indicate the false statement about corrosion. A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many cause of corrosion because they are not good conductors of electricity.
B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protection of many metals.
D. Corrosion of metals usually electrochemical in nature.
189. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than _______ percent. A. 2
B. 3 C. 4 D. 1
190. Indicate false statement about stainless steel? A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat. C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity. D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.
191. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?
A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper
192. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as times _________ that of carbon steel. A. 5
B. 6 C. 10 D. 15
193. Two identical electrical wires of equal length are made from the same material. What is the ratio of their resistances of the radius of one wire is twice that of the other?
A. 1:2 B. 1:4 C. 1:8 D. 1:16
194. What is the range of the specific gravity of carbon steel (rolled)?
A. 9.11 to 9.81 B. 8.31to 8.61 C. 7.81to 7.85 D. 6.71to 6.81
195. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?
A. Casting B. Molding C. Forming D. All of the choices
196. What refers to the process by which a raw material is shaped by heating and squeezing into the desired shape, between two platens that act as a mold? A. Heat molding
B. Cold molding C. Compression molding D. Tension molding
197. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?
A. Water-cooled metal cavities B. Machined metal holding blocks C. Ejection mechanism
D. Metal mold (matching halves)
198. Which of the following materials is the easiest to die cast?
A. Aluminum B. Zinc C. Titanium D. Vanadium
199. What cast iron has nodular or spheroidal graphite? A. Ductile iron
B. Wrought iron C. Gray iron D. White iron
200. What is a proess for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generated by pulling resin-impregnated glass strands through a die?
A. Continuous pultrusion B. Bulk molding C. Vacuum bag forming D. Resin transfer moulding
201. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and acids?
A. Alkaline B. Alkydes C. Alcocids D. Aldehyde
202. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?
A. 13 XX B. 23 XX C. 25 XX D. 31 XX
203. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?
A. 13 XX B. 31 XX C. 23 XX D. 12 XX
204. What is the AISI-SAE designation for nickel steel? A. 21 XX
B. 22 XX C. 23 XX D. 24 XX
205. What does AISI stands for? A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries B. American Institute of Steel Industries C. Association of Architects and Engineers D. American Iron and And Steel Institute 206. What does SAE stands for?
A. Society of Automotive Engineers B. Society of American Engineers C. Society of Architects and Engineers D. Society of Alloy Engineers 207. What does ASTM stands for?
A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials B. American Society for Testing and Materials C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials
208. What is the approximate chromium range of a terrific stainless steel?
A. 12% to 18% B. 10% to 12% C. 16% to 20% D. 20% to 24%
209. Stainless steels are iron-based alloys that contain 12% or more ________. A. tin B. cadmium C. lead D. chromium
210. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?
A. 600 deg.C to 1100 deg.C B. 1000 deg.C to 1500 deg.C C. 1100 deg.C to 2000 deg.C D. 200 deg.C to 800 deg.C
211. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steels except:
A. Molybdenum B. Tungsten C. Cobalt D. Chromium
212. The chrome-molybdenum steel contains how many percent of molybdenum?
A. 0.10 B. 0.20 C. 0.30 D. 0.40
213. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?
A. 0.15 to 0.30 B. 0.05 to 0.15 C. 0.30 to 0.45 D. 0.45 to 0.60
214. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?
A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 11 to 14 D. 14 to 18
215. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _________, that is, the hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold-worked.
A. cold harden B. stress harden
C. cool-temperature resistant D. strain harden
216. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium? A. 4 to 8
B. 9 to 10 C. 11 to 17 D. 17 to 21
217. What refers to the application of a any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it will become hard?
A. Carburizing B. Case hardening C. Annealing D. Surface-hardening
218. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center is large section?
A. Malleabilty B. Hardenability C. Spehiodability D. Rigidity
219. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austernite to pearlite?
A. 1000 degree Fahrenheit B. 1333 degree Fahrenheit C. 1666 degree Fahrenheit D. 1222 degree Fahrenheit
220. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ______.
A. 700 degree Celcius B. 550 degree Celcius C. 660 degree Celcius D. 440 degree Celcius
221. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve? A. Pearlite
B. Bainite C. Austenite D. Marstenite
222. What refers to the possibility of the existence of two or more different crystal structures for a substance, generally an elemental solid?
A. Allotrophy B. Calcination C. Anisotrophy D. Amorphoustropy
223. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature to 1670oF? A. Beta iron
B. Gamma iron C. Delta iron D. Alpha iron
224. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000*F for up to 100 hours in an ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling? A. Nitriding
B. Flame hardening C. Precipitation hardening D. Carburizing
225. The approximate temperatures of heated metals such as steel and copper as it undergo heating process are determined by what physical property?
A. By its density B. By its length C. By its color D. By its volume
226. A metal undergoes a heating process. What is the approximate temperature if the color of the metal is dull white?
A. 1000 degree Celcius B. 1300 degree Celcius C. 1600 degree Celcius D. 2000 degree Celcius
227. Austenite is transformed into bainite when subjected to what cooling process?
A. Very slow cooling process B. Moderate cooling process C. Rapid cooling process D. Quenching cooling process
228. Some engineering materials are called PH alloys. What does PH stands for?
A. Percent hydroxide B. Percent hardening C. Precipitation hardening D. Percent hydrides 229. What is the chief ore of tin?
A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Ilmanite D. Galena
230. What is the chief ore of zinc? A. Cassiterite
B. Bauxite C. Sphalerite D. Ilmanite
231. What is the chief ore of titanium? A. Sphalerite
B. Ilmanite C. Bauxite D. Cassiterite
232. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?
A. Bauxite B. Rutile C. Galena D. Sphalerite
233. The term "brass" is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:
A. copper and zinc B. aluminum and iron C. copper and aluminum D. zinc and nickel
234. The term "bronze" is used to designate any alloy containing:
A. copper and zinc B. copper and aluminum C. copper and nickel D. copper and tin
235. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit indicates?
A. The purity of iron B. The identity of the alloy C. The alloy group D. The strength of the alloy
236. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents?
A. The purity of aluminum B. The identity of the alloy
C. The modification of the alloy group or impurity limits
D. The alloy group
237. In the system of designating wrought aluminum aloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what condition of the alloy?
A. As fabricated B. Strain hardened C. Annealed D. Artificially aged
238. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:
A. Zinc alloys B. Magnesium alloys C. Manganese alloys D. Aluminum alloys
239. What is considered as the most used material in aircraft turbine component because of its properties? A. Super alloy
B. Carbon nanotubes C. Carbon fiber D. Titanium
240. What is the most important property of super alloy when used for aircraft turbine component? A. Density
B. Air resistance C. Strength
D. Thermal conductivity
241. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?
A. 25000 lbf/inches with exponent 2 B. 35000 lbf/inches with exponent 2 C. 50000 lbf/inches with exponent 2 D. 100000 lbf/inches with exponent 2 242. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?
A. less than 0.1 percent B. exactly 0.1 percent C. more than 0.1 percent D. ranges from 0.1 to 0.2 percent
243. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel? A. 10%
B. 14% C. 18% D. 22%
244. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called _______. A. yellow brass
B. red brass C. Muntz brass D. white brass
245. The optimum combination of strength and ductility of alpha-beta brass is offered as an alloy known as _______.
A. Muntz B. Strirling C. Fornicate D. Invar
246. What type of brass is usually used in conduits, sockets, condensers and heat-exchangher tubings?
A. Red brass B. Yellow brass C. White brass D. Blue brass
247. Red brass is also known as _______. A. softmetal
B. gunmetal C. pewter D. solid brass
248. Red brass contains how many percent copper? A. 70%
B. 75% C. 80% D. 85%
249. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?
A. 20% B. 50% C. 30% D. 40%
250. Indicate the false statement. A. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin. B. Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high strength fasteners. C. Bronze is copper-tin alloy.
D. Tin is relatively soluble in copper. 251. What is the most abundant metal in nature?
A. Aluminum B. Steel C. Iron D. Copper
252. Indicate the false statement about aluminum. A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel
B. It has 1/3 of the stifness of steel C. It has high strength to weight ratio
D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity 253. What is the effect to aluminum with the iron as the
alloying element?
A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting B. Improving conductivity
C. Lower castability D. Improves machinability
254. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?
A. Icreases strength up to about 12% B. Reduces shrinkage
C. Improves machinability D. Increases fluidity in casting
255. Which of the following are two well known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for permanent magnets?
A. Invar and Nilvar B. Nichrome and Constantan C. Elinvar and Invar D. Alnico and Cunife
256. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except:
A. lime B. silica C. alumina D. asphalt
257. That refers to a substance that by chemical reaction blinds particulate aggregates into a cohesive structure? A. Concrete
B. Cement C. Adhesive D. Glue
258. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear region in the stress-strain diagram?
A. Modulus of elasticity B. Proportionality limit C. Secant modulus D. Tangent modulus
259. Specific modulus is the ratio of _____ of a material. A. tensile strength to specific gravity
B. elastic modulus to specific gravity C. strain to specific gravity
D. tangent modulus to specific gravity
260. Specific strength is the ratio of ________ of a material. A. tensile strength to specific gravity
B. elastic modulus to specific gravity C. strain to specific gravity
D. tangent modulus to specific gravity
261. What is the reciprocal of the coefficient o volume elasticity/
A. Compressibility B. Coefficient of rigidity c. Bulk modulus D. Young modulus
262. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?
A. Jominy end-quench test B. The lever rule C. Gibb's phase test D. Stress relief test
263. What steel relief process is used with hypoeutetoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?
A. Temperizing B. Normalizing c. Annealing D. Spheroidizing
264. What is another term for tempering? A. Recrystaliation
B. Annealing c. Sphereoidizing D. Drawing or toughening
265. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?
A. Carburizing B. Flame hardening C. Nitriding D. Annealing
266. In annealing, what refers to the ratio of the working temperature to that of the temperature of the melting point when carrying out plastic deformation process? A. Homogenous temperature
B. Cold-working temperature C. Hot-working temperature D. Homologous temperature
267. For metric wire gage, the no. 2 wire is _____ in diameter.
A. 0.1 mm B. 0.2 mm C. 0.3 mm D. 0.4 mm
268. Bus bars of rectangular cross sectionare generally used or carrying _______.
A. high electric currents B. low electric currents C. high voltage D. low voltage
269. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards?
A. Unlaminated flat conductors B. Insulated conductors C. Rounded flexible conductors D. Flat flexile conductors
270. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper?
A. 65% B. 35% C. 55% D. 45%
271. How does the electrical conductivity of copper be reduced significantly?
A. By reducing the copper's electronegativity B. By removing impurities
C. By adding impurities and alloying components D. By chemical treatment using enamel 272. The state of having exactly the same number of
positive and negative electrical charges is known as ____.
A. electrobalance B. electroneutrality C. electrically stable D. stable state
273. The presence of what type of bond in metallic compound enables then to posses electrical conductivity property?
A. Covalent bond B. Ionic bond C. Crystalline bond D. Metallic bond
274. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generators?
A. Yellow brass B. Beryllium copper C. Tin bronze D. Phosphor bronze
275. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in micro-ohms-centimeter?
A. 1.76 B. 1.71 C. 1.67 D. 3.10
276. What should be the resistivity in micro-ohms-centimeter of a resistor material?
A. 200-300 B. 100-200 C. 50-150 D. 10-50
277. Resistivity ratio of a conductor is the ratio of the electrical resistivity at 298 K to that of _____. A. 4.2 K
B. 5.2 K C. 6.2 K D. 7.2 K
278. What material is usually used for some electrical and electronics applications, especially for those that require higher resistivity and lower eddy-current losses?
A. Silicon-iron B. Silicon-copper C. Germanium-iron D. Germanium-copper
279. How much silicon is present in silicon-iron? A. 1% to 3%
B. 2% to 4% C. 3% to 5% D. 4% to 6%
280. What is the most widely used dielectronic material in the electrical and electronics industry?
A. Polymer B. Plastic C. Rubber D. all of the above
281. What refers to dielectric materials, such as Rochelle salt, with domain structure containing dipole and are aligned spontaneously?
A. Dieletric materials B. Photo-electric materials C. Ferro-electric materials D. Ferro-magnetic materials
282. What are natural or synthetic rubberlike materials which have outstanding elastic characteristics? A. Thermosettting plastics
B. Polymers C. Elastomers
D. Thermoplastic plastics
283. What refers to an additive that imparts a specific color to a polymer?
A. colorant B. Component C. Profiler D. Changer
284. What refers to an inert foreign substance added to a polymer to improve or modify its properties? A. Component
B. Catalyst C. Filter D. Profiler
285. What refers to a polymer that has been made porous or sponge-like by the incorporation of gas bubbles? A. Suds
B. Smog C. Fog D. Foam
286. What are cellular forms of urathenes, polystreams, vinyls, polythylenes, polyproplenes, phenolics, epoxies and a variety of other plastics?
A. Thermoplastic plastics B. Plastic foams C. Polymers
D. Thermosetting plastics
287. What is the widely used electrical insulator? A. Plastic
B. Polymer c. Epoxy D. Paper
288. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper?
A. 6 to 12 MV/m B. 8 to 14 MV/m C. 10 to 16 MV/m D. 12 to 18 MV/m
289. What is the most widely known carbide? A. Carbon carbide
B. Lead carbide C. Germanium carbide D. Silicon carbide
290. Which of the following carbides has a good resistance to wear, thermal shock and corrosion?
A. Tungsten carbide B. Titanium carbide c. Silicon carbide D. Nitric carbide
291. What refers to the quantity of mass diffusing through and perpendicular to a unit cross-sectional area of material per unit time?
A. Diffusion coefficient B. Diffusion flux C. Dielectric displacement D. Diffraction coefficient
292. What refers to the ratio of the permittivity of a medium to that of a vacuum?
A. Dielectric constant B. Magnetic constant C. Relative permeability D. Diffusion coefficient
293. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to ____.
A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 500
294. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors?
A. 500 to 10,000 B. 1,000 to 10,000 C. 500 to 5000 D. 100 to 1,000
295. What class of ceramic capacitor is best suited for oscillator circuit where capacitance stability is necessary?
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
296. What is the maximum dielectric constant of class I ceramic capacitor?
A. 500 B. 600 C. 700 D. 800
297. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings?
A. Alkyds B. Acrylics C. Epoxies D. Vinyls
298. What is most widely used in electronic industry as a structural member, such as the envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated circuits, etc?
A. Glass B. Plastics C. Silica D. Film
299. The thin conducting films used for semiconductor is made of what metal?
A. Gold B. Tin C. Aluminum D. Silver
300. What refers to a two-element compound semiconductor such as Gallium-Arsenide? A. Duo semiconductor
B. Binary semiconductor C. Twin semiconductor D. Pair semiconductor
301. What refers to a three-element compound semiconductor such as aluminum gallium arsenide semiconductor?
A. Tri semiconductor B. Trio semiconductor C. Tetra semiconductor D. Ternary semiconductor
302. A semiconductor composed of a single specie of atom such as silicon or germanium is called _____ semiconductor.
A. elemental B. unit C. primary D. ordinary
303. A semiconductor wafer or other material used as the starting material for further semiconductor processing, such as epitaxial growth or diffusion?
A. Substrate B. Layer C. Lattice D. Crystal
304. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100 degree celsius below their softening point to form a very fine network of crystalline phase?
A. fused silica B. Glass ceramics C. Fused quartz D. Fiber glass
305. What type of motion is produced when crystalline solids are strained?
A. Amorphic motion B. Molecular motion C. Structural motion D. Dislocation motion
306. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging is called the ____.
A. aging box B. aging factor C. aging coefficient D. aging point
307. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called _____. A. magnetic anistropy
B. magnetoresistance C. magnetostriction D. magnetizing factor
308. Which material is used for dc application such as electromagnetic cores and relays?
A. Iron B. Copper C. Steel D. Aluminum
309. Which of the following is known as "electrical steel"? A. Silicon steel
B. Stainless steel C. Carbon steel D. Cast steel
310. What is the highest frequency ferrite? A. Garnet
B. Spinel C. Mumetal D. Superinvar
311. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and injection lasers?
A. Gallium Arsenide B. Silicon Carbide C. Selenium D. Gallium Phosphide
312. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red light?
A. Gallium Arsenide B. Silicon Carbide C. Selenium D. Gallium Phosphide
313. Lead compounds such as lead sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which application? A. Diodes and transistors at low temperatures B. Infrared detectors
C. Thermoelectric applications D. All of the above
314. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator?
A. Sphere B. Square pyramid C. Asymmetrical pyramid D. Cube
315. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material?
A. Knoop test B. Vickers test C. File hardness test D. Toughness test
316. What method of determining hardness of materials that users a small diamond pyramid (136 degrees), with a square base and using a much lighter load, permitting its use on thinner specimens? A. Brinnel hardness number method B. Vickers pyramid hadness method C. Shore scleroscope method D. Knoop hardness number method
317. Using Moh's scale, which of the following materials is the hardest?
A. Iron B. Topaz C. Brass D. Corundum
318. A hardness scale that is used to show the different hardness of materials is the Moh's scale. What type of scale is the Moh's scale?
A. Scratch-based scale B. Imbedded-based scale C. Penetration-based scale D. Impact-based scale
319. What is the Moh's hardness number for aluminum oxide used for cutting tools?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10
320. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point?
A. Elastic toughness B. Fatigue C. Hardness D. Creep strain
321. What type of failure wherein the cyclic stresses are introduced by fluctuating thermal stresses? A. Thermal conductivity
B. Thermal fatigue C. Thermal shock D. Thermal tempering
322. The fracture of a brittle material as a result of stresses is introduced by a rapid temperature change is called ___________.
A. thermal fatigue B. thermal shock C. thermal conductivity D. thermal tempering
323. The following are typical properties of ceramic except one. Which one?
A. High melting point B. High compressive strength C. High corrosion resistance D. High thermal conductivity
324. Which of the following refers to ceramic used in engineering?
A. Materials that posses plastic properties B. Non-metallic, non-crystalline materials C. Oxides, nitrides and carbides D. Materials that conduct heat easily
325. Which of the following engineering materials is NOT classified as ceramics?
A. Graphite B. Diamond C. Glass
D. Reinforced plastic
326. The most important mechanical property of ceramics which is the measure of its resistance to crack propagation is ________.
A. ductility B. plasticity C. elasticity D. toughness
327. Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity at room temperature?
A. Diamond B. Glass C. Porcelain D. Graphite
328. Which of the following is NOT a property of carbon graphite products?
A. Melt when heated B. Brittle
C. Used as electrical conductors D. Very low tensile strength
329. Which of the following engineering materials has the highest density?
A. Magnesium B. Lead C. Steel D. Tantalum
330. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to several thousand?
A. Polymerization constant B. Polymerization factor C. Degree of polymerization D. Polymerization index
331. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat temperature and contains 15 to 20% chromium?
A. Alnico B. Nichrome C. Invar D. Nilvar
332. Due to their unique properties, invar and upper invar are commonly used in which of the following applications?
A. Shado mast in CRTs B. Bimetallic strips
C. Piping for liquefied natural gas D. All of the above
333. What element is used to replace the nickel content of an alloy to produce a super invar alloy?
A. Zinc B. Cobalt C. Tin D. Cobalt
334. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon? A. 96%
B. 3% C. 1% D. 69%
335. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties?
A. Silicon B. Aluminum C. Berylllium D. Zinc
336. Which of the following metals in their alloy form has the greatest strength at room temperature? A. Graphite fibers
B. Steels C. Kevlar fibers D. Carbides
337. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard?
A. Aluminum B. Zinc C. Lead D. Silicon
338. What element constitutes a major component of most bronzes?
A. Zinc B. Tin C. Lead D. Aluminum
339. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?
A. Tin B. Lead C. Zinc D. Aluminum
340. What is the lightest metal currently available for engineering applications?
A. Magnesium B. Copper C. Tungsten D. Chromium
341. What is the heaviest material currently available for engineering applications?
A. Vanadium B. Molybdenum C. Chromium D. Tungsten
342. Aluminum is lighter than all materials below except one? Which one?
A. Magnesium B. Ferrous materials C. Zinc
D. Tin
343. Which of the following is NOT a ferrous metal? A. Carbon
B. Stainless steel C. Beryllium D. Too-and-die steel
344. In the manufacturing of engineering materials, what refers to the major computer application which adjusts automatically the manufacturing parameters such as forces, temperature, surface finish and dimensions of parts, to fall within the acceptable range?
A. Automated handing control B. Industrial Robotics C. Computer Numerical Control D. Adaptive Control
345. Which of the elements is NOT harmful to solders? A. Antimony
B. Zinc C. Cadmium D. Aluminum
346. What alloy is usually used for minting of coins? A. Nordic gold
B. Plated gold C. Chinese gold D. Alloyed gold
347. Nordic gold contains how many percent copper? A. 85%
B. 87% C. 89% D. 91%
348. What component of smart metals performs a responsive and adaptive function?
A. Actuator B. Retention C. Memory D. Magneto fiber
349. Which of the following is used as actuators or smart metals?
A. Piezo-electric ceramics B. Nanocarbon polymers C. Magnetic resistance materials D. Shape-memory alloys
350. What refers to the ability of a material to permit it to be permanently bent or twisted into various shapes without shapes without breaking?
A. Ductility B. Elasticity C. Plasticity D. Malleability
351. Copper is the most commonly used material for electrical wires. What is its modulus of elasticity in pascals?
A. 9 x 10 to 10th power B. 10 x 10 to 10th power C. 11 x 10 to 10th power D. 12 x 10 to 10th power
352. What abundant materials refer to the product of the weathering of complex silicates, particularly of feldspar?
A. Sand B. Clay C. Gravel D. Limestone
353. Which of the following materials is normally found in small microwave tubes?
A. steatite B. Carbides C. Forsterite D. Cordierite
354. What term is used to describe the technology of treating a mined ore, to obtain a product higher on concentration of a wanted material from the unwanted rock mass in which it occurs? A. Ore dressing
B. Ore mining C. Ore drawing D. Ore alloying
355. What refers to the fabrication step in semiconductor manufacturing in which proper interconnection is made?
A. Metallization B. Mineralization C. Oxidation process D. Lithography
356. What is the usual specific gravity of the mineral oil used for transformers?
A. 0.68 B. 0.98 C. 0.78 D. 0.88
357. Which of the materials below will be used when high compressive ultimate strength is necessary? A. Aluminum
B. Granite C. Concrete D. Copper
358. What material is usually used in cellphone relays? A. Titanium
B. Aluminum C. Palladium D. Platinum
359. Which is not a property of palladium? A. It cannot be electroplated B. It is less resistant to corrosion C. It resembles a platinum
D. It is normally used for contacts in relays 360. What type of resin is usually used for manufacturing
plumbing pipe?
A. High density polyethylene B. Low density polyethylene C. Polypropylene
D. Polyvinyl chloride
361. What is the dielectric constant of the ceramic dielectric material, porcelain?
A. 6.0 B. 6.9 C. 4.0 D. 5.2
362. Steel is normally described in gauges, such as 16 gauge BG, what does BG stands for?
A. Burmingham Gauge B. Buckingham Gauge C. British Gauge D. Brinell Gauge
363. Perforated materials are not usually used for structural members. If used however, what factors must be considered in the calculation taking into the account the effect of the perforation on the strength of the material?
A. Stiffness and strength
B. Stiffness and resistance to creep C. Strength and resistance to fatigue
D. Resistance to fatigue and resistance to creep 364. What type of solder is used in an intermediate
temperature solder but not suitable for brass? A. Aluminum-silver solder
B. Tin-antinomy solder C. Aluminum-zine solder D. Lead-silver solder
365. What type of integrated circuit constructed on a glass or ceramic substrate, used only for passive elements? A. Ceramic IC
B. Planar IC C. Film IC
D. Semiconductor subtrate IC
366. What refers to the ability of a material to withstand shatter?
A. Shear resistance B. Plasticity C. Elasticity D. Impact resistance
367. An "Oxygen Free High Conductivity" copper refers to the one that contains ____ copper.
A. 99.95% B. 99.399% C. 99.90% D. 99.00%
368. What gold alloy is usually used for low-current electric contacts?
A. Au-Tn alloy B. Au-Ag alloy C. Au-Fe alloy D. Au-Si alloy
369. At the maximum temperature can a nickel-coated copper conductor be used?
A. 340 degree Celsius B. 320 degree Celsius C. 360 degree Celsius D. 300 degree Celsius
370. What abundant materials refer to the product of the weathering of complex silicate4s, particularly of feldspars?
A. Sand B. Clay C. Gravel D. Limestone
371. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding strength in descending order? A. Carbides, Steel, Tantalum, Titanium B. Steel, Carbides, Titanium, Tantalum C. Titanium, Steel, Carbide, Tantalum D. Tantalum, Titanium, Steel, Carbide
372. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding toughness in descending order? A. Wood, Thermoset, Ceramic, Thermoplastic B. Thermoplastic, Wood, Thermoset, Ceramic C. Thermoset. Ceramic, Wood, Thermoplastic D. Ceramic, Wood, Thermoset, Thermoplastic 373. Which of the following arrangements have their
corresponding stiffness in descending order? A. Copper, Tungsten, Titanium, Thermoset B. Titanium, Thermoset, Copper, Tungsten C. Thermoset, Titanium, Tungsten, Copper D. Tungsten, Copper, Titanium, Thermoset 374. Which of the following arrangements have their
corresponding hardness in descending order? A. Magnesium, Thermoplastic, Thermoset, Copper B. Thermoset, Copper, Magnesium, Thermoplastic C. Copper, Thermoset, Magnesium, Thermoplastic D. Thermoplastic, Copper, Thermoset, Magnesium 375. Arrange the following metals from greatest to least
electrical conductivity at room temperature. A. Brass, Iron, Platinum, Carbon Steel B. Iron, Platinum, Brass, Carbon Steel C. Platinum, Iron, Carbon Steel. Brass D. Carbon. Steel, Iron, Platinum, Brass
376. Arrange the following materials in accordance from greatest modulus of elasticity to the least. A. Nickel, Titanium, Copper, Brass B. Titanium, Copper, Brass, Nickel C. Copper, Nickel, Titanium, Brass D. Nickel, Copper, Titanium, Brass
377. What is the electrical conductivity per ohm-meter of aluminum used as electrical conductor?
A. 5.08x 10 raise to the power of 7 B. 6.47x 10 raise to the power of 7 C. 7.32x 10 raise to the power of 7 D. 3.57x 10 raise to the power of 7
378. Piezoelectric materials are usually utilized as: A. Inductors
B. Capacitors C. Transducers D. Resistors
379. Indicate the false statement about modulus of elasticity?
A. The modulus of elasticity of polymers is lower than that of metals.
B. The modulus of elasticity range of metals is slightly higher than that of ceramics.
C. The modulus of elasticity of polymers is lower than that of ceramics.
D. Steel and Nickel has almost the same value of modulus of elasticity.
380. Aside from Gold, Silver, and Platinum, which of the following is considered as noble metal?
A. Niobium B. Vanadium C. Iridium D. Zirconium
381. Because of their unique properties, invar and super-invar are commonly used in all the following except one. Which one?
A. Shadow mast on cathode ray tubes B. Bimetallic strips
C. Piping for qualified natural gas D. Coinage
382. _____ have superlative combinations of properties and mostly used in aircraft turbine components.
A. Invars B. Superalloys
C. Titanium and palladium D. Alloys
383. What is the most important consideration for superalloys?
A. Density B. Strength C. Thermal Capacity D. Air resistance
384. What process is involved in the transformation of austenite into bainite?
A. Rapid quenching B. Reheat
C. Moderate cooling D. Slow cooling
385. To produce a super-invar alloy, some of the nickel content is replaced by what element?
A. Cobalt B. Copper C. Tin D. Lead
386. What type of laser is used for line-of-sight communication, recording/playback of holograms? A. He-Ne laser
B. Argon Laser C. Ruby Laser D. Diode Laser
