ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI TOPIC: ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
1. According to scientists, the Big Bang occurred approximately ___________ years ago.
(a) 100 million (b) 100 thousand (c) 1 billion (d) 15 billion 2. The earth is presumed to have originated about __________ ago.
(a) 4.0 billion years (b) 4.6 billion years (c) 3.0 billion years (d) 3.5 billion years 3. The origin of life on the earth is also called
(a) biogenesis (b) abiogenesis (c) protobiogenesis (d) autobiogenesis 4. Panspermia theory was given by
(a) Von - Helmont (b) Richter (c) Louis Pasteur (d) Aristotle 5. The theory of panspermia is also called
(a) cosmozoic theory (b) theory of catastrophism (c) theory of biogenesis (d) naturalistic theory 6. Demonstration of self assembly was provided by
(a) Redi (b) Schmitt (c) Miller (d) M. Calvin
7. Reed demonstrated a intermacromolecular molecules.
(a) protein (b) lipids (c) carbohydrate (d) nucleic acid 8. The accepted model of protobiogenesis suggests that the information in the first organism flowed
from
(a) amino acid to protein (b) protein to amino acid (c) nucleic acid to protein (d) vitamin to protein 9. Molecular evolution was formulated by
(a) Haeckel (b) Oparin and Haldane
(c) Fox and Mccauley (d) Lehninger
10. When earth got broken from the sun, it appeared as (a) a glowing fire and rotating cloud of hot gases (b) vapours of various elements
(c) pieces of rocks and metals (d) all of the above
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11. What led to the formation of rivers, lakes, seas and oceans?(a) Decrease in earth’s temperature
(b) Condensatin of stam into water and formation of rain (c) Accumulation of water
(d) All of the above.
12. Proteins which showed enzymatic reaction were called as
(a) protoproteins (b) nucleosides (c) coacervates (d) polymer 13. What lead to the formation of chromophores?
(a) Depletion of food due to growth and multiplication of heterotrophs (b) Increase in CO2 due to fermentation
(c) Mutation (d) All of the above
14. Which event helped in transformation of heterotrophs to autotrophs ? (a) Ability of chromophores to trap light and convert it to chemical energy.
(b) Ability of chromophores to cause mutation (c) Ability of chromophores to cause fermentation
(d) Ability of chromophore to convert chemical energy to light energy.
15. The nucleic acid along with inorganic and organic molecules formed the first form of life called (a) prokaryotes (b) protenoids (c) protobionts (d) chemoautotrophs 16. Sydney Fox heated the amino acids which polymerized into protein like droplets called
(a) microspheres (b) protenoids (c) coacervates (d) amino acids
17. According to Oparin and Fox, which biomolecules are said to be the fore runners of the first form of life on earth?
(a) Coacervates (b) Microspheres (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Eubionts 18. Urey and Miller’s spark discharge apparatus is a closed system of glass except
(a) water boiling flask (b) tungsten electrodes
(c) vaccum pump (d) cooling jacket
19. What inference was made based on Urey-Miller’s experiment?
(a) Nucleotides and amino acids were building blocks of first living organism.
(b) Synthesis of first protein was on-enzymatic.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Synthesis of sugar was non-enzymatic.
20. The book “Theory of Origin of Species by natural selection” was postulated by
(a) Charles Darwin (b) Chevalier de Lamarck
(c) Hugo de Vries (d) Alfred Russel Wallace
21. Population tends to increase in
(a) arithmetic proportion (b) geometrical proportion (c) biological proportion (d) statistical proportion
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22. Variations are the differences between individuals of the(a) different species (b) same species (c) different genus (d) same genus 23. The objection in mutation theory of Hugo de Vries was
(a) Organic evolution is a result of mutation
(b) Observations, regarding variation made by Hugo de Vries were actually due to chromosomal aberration
(c) Favourable condition leads to variation (d) None of the above
24. The basic concept of Modern synthetic theory is based on (a) Charles Darwin’s book “Origin of Species”
(b) Haldane’s book “Chemical evolution of life”
(c) Dobzhansky’s book “Genetics and the Origin of Species”
(d) Hugo de Vries book “Mutation theory”
25. A group of similar individuals interbreeding among themselves occupying a geographical area is called
(a) genetic population (b) Mendelian population
(c) gene pool (d) both (a) and (b)
26. The proportion of an allele in the gene pool as compared with other alleles at the same locus is called (a) gene frequency (b) genetic population (c) gene pool (d) gene variation 27. The change in gene and gene frequencies is called
(a) genetic population (b) gene pool
(c) genetic constitution (d) genetic variation
28. Transfer of genes between population that differ genetically from one another is called (a) gene frequency (b) gene flow (c) gene pool (d) gene mutation 29. Genetic drift is a change of
(a) gene frequency in same generation (b) appearance of recessive genes
(c) gene frequency from one generation to another (d) appearance of only dominant genes
30. The “genetic drift” is also called as
(a) Sewall Wright effect (b) G.G. Simpson effect (c) Julian Huxley effect (d) Hardy Weinberg effect 31. Isolation results in
(a) migration of species (b) change in gene pool (c) reproductive isolation (d) both (b) and (c)
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32. When an original population is separated into two or more groups by environmental factors such asriver, mountain, ocean, forest is called
(a) geographical isolation (b) reproductive isolation (c) habitat isolation (d) ethological isolation 33. Organisms living in the same region but occupy different habitat is called
(a) seasonal isolation (b) habitat isolation (c) ethological isolation (d) mechanical isolation 34. In seasonal isolation
(a) members of a population attain sexual maturity at different times (b) members of a population occupy different habitat
(c) members of two population have different mating behaviours
(d) members of two population have differences in the structure of their reproductive organs.
35. Members of two population having differences in the structure of their reproductive organs is called (a) mechanical isolation (b) reproductive isolation
(c) geographical isolation (d) ethological isolation
36. The mechanism of post-mating in which, sperm transfer takes place but egg is not fertilized is referred as
(a) hybrid sterility (b) hybrid mortality (c) gamete mortality (d) zygote mortality 37. A post-mating mechanism, in which the hybrids formed are sterile is called
(a) gamete mortality (b) zygote mortality (c) hybrid mortality (d) hybrid sterility 38. Actual remains are
(a) generally formed in the deep oceans
(b) the hard parts of body or entire body of dead organisms surrounded by minerals forming the part of stones.
(c) the entire body or part of the body of dead organism which get incorporated in the ice (d) all of the above
39. A form of fossil in which, an impression of the body parts left on the soft mud of the oceanic floor is called
(a) actual remains (b) moulds (c) casts (d) mud fossil 40. Which concept is supported by the palaeontological evidence?
(a) Spontaneous creation (b) Darwinism (c) Organic evolution (d) Natural creation 41. Seymouria is a connecting link between
(a) amphibians and reptiles (b) fishes and amphibians (c) birds and reptiles (d) reptiles and fishes 42. A missing link between fish and amphibian is
(a) Seymouria (b) Ichthyostegia (c) Archaeopteryx (d) Anthropoidea
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43. ____________ called birds as glorified reptiles.(a) Andreas Wagner (b) Sewall Wright (c) Huxley (d) Kettlewell 44. Reptilian characters of Archaeopteryx are
(a) jaws with homodont teeth
(b) forearms modified into wings and three digits ending in distinct claws (c) completely fused skull bones
(d) both (a) and (b)
45. Avian characters of Archaeoptryx are
(a) feathery skeleton and completely fused skull
(b) rounded cranium with large orbits and single condyle (c) jaws modified into beaks and forelimbs modified into wings (d) all of the above
46. Organs which are structurally similar but functionally dissimilar are called
(a) homologous organs (b) analogous organs
(c) vestigial organs (d) non-homologous organs
47. Which of the following are analogous organs?
(a) Forelimbs of frog and lizard (b) Tail of scorpion and tail of humans (c) Wings of birds and insects (d) Vermiform appendix of birds and humans 48. Which stage of development provides concrete embryological evidence?
(a) Late embryos (b) Completely developed embryo
(c) Early embryos (d) Phylogenic
49. Whichamong the following is a molecular evidence?
(a) Forelimbs of terrestrial vertebrates (b) Remnant of a tail in human (c) Formation of zygote (single dploid cell) (d) ATP as energy currency 50. Mutation is also called as
(a) saltation (b) genetic drift (c) recombination (d) gene frequency 51. Arrangement of eras, periods and epochs on the time scale in an order of evolution of organism is
called
(a) geology (b) geological times
(c) geological time scale (d) both (b) and (c) 52. The period which does not belong to Cenozoic era is
(a) triassic (b) palaeocene (c) miocene (d) pliocene 53. In the geological time period of earth, the longest one is
(a) precambrian (b) archeozoic (c) mesozoic (d) palaeozoic 54. ‘Hardy Weinberg Law’ fails if ____________ occurs in a population.
(a) non-random mating (b) genetic drift
(c) mutations (d) all of these
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55. There are two alleles A and a with frequencies p and q respectively. According to theHardy-Weinberg’s principle, the frequency of Aa allele will be
(a) p2 (b) q2 (c) 2pq (d) 2 p2 q2
56. Primates include (a) apes and man
(b) monkeys, apes and man (c) lorises, lemurs and tarsiers
(d) lorises, lemurs, tarsiers, monkeys, apes and man 57. The prosimii include
(a) tarsiers (b) gibbons (c) orangutan (d) old world monkeys 58. Cercopithecoide includes
(a) old world monkeys (b) new world monkeys
(c) apes and man (d) gorilla and chimpanzee
59. Hominoides are further divided into
(a) Hyalobatidae, Pongidae and Hominidae (b) Cercopithecoidea and ceboidea (c) different types of Hominidae (d) Prosimii and Anthropoides 60. Chimpanzee, organgutan and gorilla are
(a) ancestors of man (b) anthropoid apes (c) ancestors of monkey (d) ancestors of primates 61. The characteristics of lemurs are
(a) grasping hands and feet
(b) flat snouts, large eyes facing infront and long bushy tail (c) arboreal found in East India
(d) both (a) and (b)
62. Major differences between New world and old world monkeys are in
(a) type of nose (b) length of tail
(c) distribution in the world (d) all of these
63. Which of the following includes both the apes and the humans but not the monkey?
(a) Cercopithecoidea (b) Hominoids (c) Anthropoids (d) Prosimians
64. A diastema in upper jaw between incisor and canines which accommodates elongated canies of the lower jaw is a characteristic feature of
(a) man (b) lemurs (c) apes (d) tarsiers
65. The cranial capacity of apes is
(a) 100 to 300 c.c. (b) 400 to 600 c.c. (c) 600 to 800 c.c. (d) 900 to 1000 c.c.
66. Which of the following characters show phylogenetic relationship between apes and man?
(a) Broad chest due to flattening of sternum (b) Ability of sound production
(c) Absence of tail (d) All of the above
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67. Propliopithecus lived in(a) Oligocene epoch (b) Miocene epoch
(c) early Pliocene epoch (d) Pleistocene epoch 68. Which is the alternative name to Dryopithecus?
(a) Java man (b) Southern ape (c) Sinanthropus (d) Proconsul 69. From which part of the world first fossils of Dryopithecus are discovered?
(a) Lake Victoria of Africa (b) Fayam deposits of Egypt
(c) Siwalik Hills (d) Tanzania
70. Ramapithecus lived in
(a) late Miocene and early Pliocene epoch (b) late Oligocene and early Miocene (c) early holocene and late pleistocene (d) early Eocene and late palaeocene 71. Fossils of Ramapithecus shows similarity with fossils of
(a) Propliopithecus (b) Dryopithecus (c) Kenyapithecus (d) Australopithecus 72. Australopithecus africans was discovered in
(a) Siwalik Hills in India (b) Taung in South Africa
(c) Java in Africa (d) Heidelberg in Germany
73. The ape-like character/s of Australopithecus is/are (a) larger jaws and teeth
(b) prognathus face with no chin
(c) eye-brow ridges projected over the eyes with cranial capacity between 450-600 c.c.
(d) all of these
74. Which one is called “a man with ape brain”?
(a) Dryopithecus (b) Parapithecus (c) Sinanthropus (d) Australopithecus 75. Which feature is not true for Homo habilis?
(a) He has lightly built lower jaws (b) He had smaller molars
(c) His cranial capacity was about 1400 cc (d) He could make and use stone tools 76. __________ was the first true man.
(a) Homo erectus (b) Homo habilis
(c) Homo heidelbergensis (d) Homo sapiens 77. Which of the following used fire for the first time?
(a) Java man (b) Ape man (c) Modern man (d) Cro-Magnon man 78. Peking man is known as
(a) Homo erectus (b) Pithecanthropus pekinensis
(c) Australopithecus africanus (d) Pithecanthropus
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79. Neanderthal man evolved from(a) Homo erectus (b) Homo heidelbergensis
(c) Homo sapiens fossilis (d) Homo sapiens sapiens 80. Narrow nose, thin eyebrow ridges and broad face appeared in
(a) Cro-Magnon man (b) Neanderthal (c) Solo man (d) Homo erectus 81. Which of the fossil man given below, was expert in making tool, weapons, paintings etc.?
(a) Java ape man (b) Peking man (c) Rhodesian man (d) Cro-Magnon man 82. Which of the following statement is not applicable to Cro-Magnon man?
(a) He was not erect and bipedal
(b) He made ornaments from ivory and decorated their bodies (c) He used fire and buried dead bodies according to customs (d) He used hides of animals to protect his body
83. Comparative anatomy is the study of
(a) structures of different groups of organisms in a comparative manner (b) study of fossils
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 84. Tail bone is an example of
(a) homology (b) analogy (c) atavism (d) vestigial organ 85. Which of the following statement/s is correct?
(a) Man evolved from monkeys (b) Apes are ancestors of humans (c) Man and apes have a common ancestry (d) Monkeys evolved from apes 86. The first chemicals formed on the earth were
(a) nitric oxide, hydrogen sulphide, sulphur dioxide (b) nitric acid, amino acids, citric acid
(c) water, ammonia, methane
(d) enzymes, nucleic acid, amino acids 87. According to Darwin organic evolution is
(a) descent with modification (b) special creation
(c) cosmic evolution (d) spontaneous generation 88. Struggle for existence results when there is an
(a) explosive increase of population
(b) explosive increase in the means of subsistence
(c) explosive increase in population and limited increase in the means of subsistence (d) explosive increase both in population and means of subsistence
89. According to Darwin, the variations are produced by
(a) genetic recombination (b) mutations (c) changes in gene pool (d) adaptations
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90. Chief agent of evolution is(a) natural selection (b) mutations (c) acquired characters (d) sexual reproduction 91. ‘Gene pool’ is the sum total of genes present in
(a) the single member of species (b) the interbreeding population of a species (c) the community of organisms (d) the parents of a member
92. In the study of organic evolution, homology means structures with
(a) common origin and common function. (b) common origin and different functions.
(c) common function but different origins. (d) different origins and different functions.
93. What does adaptive radiation indicate?
(a) Use of radiation for adaptation
(b) Migration from unsuitable to suitable place
(c) Transformation of original species to many different varieties (d) Transformation of different varieties into common species.
94. Prosimian primate is called Tarsier because of (a) flat nails on digits
(b) long non prehensile tail (c) large eyes in front on face
(d) hind limbs which are longer with elongated tarsals
95. The most significant character of a man from the evolution point of view is (a) foramen magnum shifted forward (b) larger cranial capacity (c) face is orthognathous (d) all of these
96. The ‘man’ who does not belong to the Genus Homo is
(a) Neanderthal man (b) Heidelberg man (c) Ape man (d) Peking man 97. Which of the following characters satisfy the conditions of Homo sapiens?
(a) Body shape and erect posture (b) Bipedal locomotion and free hands
(c) Large cranial capacity and opposable thumb used for manipulating skillful work (d) None of these
98. Formation of which complex molecules was noticed by Urey and Miller when they subjected substances like NH3, CH4 and H2O to electric discharge?
(a) H2SO4 (b) Amino acids (c) NH2 (d) HCl
99. Reproductive isolation leads to the formation of
(a) a new population (b) a new community (c) a new species (d) a new individual
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100. Which statement is correct regarding genetic recombination?(i) Genetic recombination occurs in sexually reproducing organisms.
(ii) During recombination, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material by the process of crossing over
(iii) Occurs during gametogenesis
(iv) Produces new combinations and variations.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct (b) (iii) and (iv) correct, (i) incorrect (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (d) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
101. Natural selection is a process in which, it
(a) is a link between changes in the environment and genetic variations of the species attempting to survive and reproduce
(b) brings about evolutionary changes by favouring differential reproduction of genes
(c) encourages those genes that assure highest degree of adaptive efficiency between population and its environment
(d) all of the above.
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI
TOPIC: ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE (ANSWER KEY)
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d)
26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a)
36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c)
56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (b)
66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (c)
76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (d) 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (c)
86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (d) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b)
96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (c)
101. (d)
ANDHERI / BORIVALI / DADAR / CHEMBUR / THANE / MULUND/ NERUL / POWAI